All cellular organisms are classified as

A. Bacteria

B. Archaea

C. Eukarya

All three are cellular organism classifications.

Protists contain all of the following forms of life except

A.protozoa

B.fungi

C.slime molds

D.algae

E. amoeba

fungi

True or False: Viruses are not generally studied by microbiologists because they are not classified as living organisms

False

True or False: Prokaryotes have a relatively complex morphology and a true,membrane-delimited nucleus.

False

Which of the following distinguish the field of microbiology from other fields of biology?

A.The size of the organism studied.

B.The techniques used to study organisms regardless of their size.

C.Both the size of the organism studied and the techniques employed in the study of organisms.

D.Neither the size of the organism studied nor the techniques employed in the study of organisms regardless of their size.

Both the size of the organism studied and the techniques employed in the study of organisms.

The concept that living organisms arise from nonliving material is called

Spontaneous generation

__was the first to observe and accurately describe microorganisms.

van Leeuwenhoek

Redi’s experiment included both a dish of meat covered with cheesecloth and an uncovered dish of meat to show

A. maggots did not appear under any circumstances

B. spontaneous generation would occur if the air could get to the meat

C. that maggots would only appear if flies had access to the meat

D. that bacteria would not grow on the meat

E. air was necessary to produce maggots

that maggots would only appear if flies had access to the meat

The first step in using Koch’s method for determining the organism causing disease is to:

A. Observe the organism in sick animals, but not healthy ones

B. Isolate the different organisms in sick animals, and inject them into healthy subjects

C. Identify the species of the organisms infecting sick animals

D. Grow each organism in pure culture

E. Observe the same disease in animals injected with the purified organism

Observe the organism in sick animals, but not healthy ones

True or False: Although developed over 100 years ago, Koch's postulates continue to be used successfully in all known human infectious diseases.

False

True or False: All microorganisms can be grown on nutrient agar plates

False

If you are working in a laboratory and wish to create a pure culture of a virus, which of the following would best allow you to do this?

A. A nutrient agar plate with LB media.

B. A tube of nutrient media broth.

C. A flask of living cells and nutrient media.

D. All of the above would allow you to do this.

E. None of the above as viruses cannot be cultured in the lab.

A flask of living cells and nutrient media.

The branch of microbiology that deals with the mechanisms by which the human body protects itself from disease-causing organisms is called _____

Immunology

__ microbiology involves the use of microorganisms to make products such as antibiotics, vaccines, steroids, alcohols, vitamins, amino acids, and enzymes.

Industrial microbiology

True or False: . When looking through a compound microscope at an image, the visual image seen is actually upside down

True

18. What is the purpose of a lens in a microscope?

A. To focus light rays at a specific place called the focal point.

B. To bend and refract light waves away from a specimen on a slide.

C. To provide a light source under a specimen.

D. To improve resolution of the image through adjustments of the stage.

E. To measure the ability to gather light and resolve fine specimen detail at a fixed object distance

A. To focus light rays at a specific place called the focal point.

The _____________ is a measure of how greatly a substance slows the velocity of light.

A. reflective index

B. condensing power

C. refractive index

D. resolving powe

rE. condenser

refractive index

Which of the following would provide the greatest amount of resolution in a microscope?

A. A low power magnification

B. A larger numerical aperture

C. A shorter focal length

D. B and C together would give the best resolution

E. All of the abovetogetherwould give the best resolution possible

Both a larger numerical aperture and a shorter focal length

In______________ the visual image is formed by light reflected or refracted by the specimen and is used to view a bright image of the object against a dark background

dark-field microscopy

In ______________ the visual image is formed by converting differences in refractive index/cell density into detected variations in light intensity.

Phase-contrast microscopy

_____________ produces a magnification of 100 million times and can view atoms on a solid surface.

Scanning probe microscopy

True or False: An advantage of phase contrast microscopy is that living cells do not have to be killed with stains in order to be visualized.

True

Which of the following is NOT true about SEM (scanning electron microscopy)

A. Uses electrons excited from the surface of a specimen to create detailed image

B. Can create 3-D images

C. Creates images using the back scatter of electrons or by capturing secondary electrons from the surface of the object to be visualized.

D. Images produced by SEM gain colors based on the fluorescent indexes of electrons

E. All of the above are true about SEM.

Images produced by SEM gain colors based on the fluorescent indexes of electrons

True or False: "Microbiologists study a variety of organisms, but all are considered either Bacteria or Archaea"

False

A mis-folded protein

A prion

Cells with a relatively complex morphology that have a true membrane-delimited nucleus are called

eukaryotes

The concept that human and animal diseases are caused by microorganisms is called the

Germ Theory

Who of the following developed a set of criteria that could be used to establish a causative link between a particular microorganism and a particular disease?

Fracastoro

Koch

Pasteur

Lister

Koch

Who of the following was the first to observe and accurately describe microorganisms?

van Leeuwenhoek

Koch

Semmelweiss

Lister

van Leeuwenhoek

Who of the following provided the evidence needed to discredit the concept of spontaneous generation?

Pasteur Koch Semmelweiss Lister

Pasteur

True or False: The relationship between specific bacteria and specific diseases was first demonstrated by Koch.

True

Whose work on spontaneous generation first demonstrated the existence of a very heat-resistant form of bacteria that are called endospores?

Schwann Redi Tyndall Pasteur

Tyndall

Antiseptic surgery was pioneered by

Pasteur Jenner Lister Kitasato

Lister

True or False: "Although developed over 100 years ago, Koch's postulates continue to be used successfully in all known human infectious diseases. "

False

True or False: Agar is used as a solidifying agent for microbiological media because it is not readily digested by most microorganisms.

True

True or False: All microorganisms can be grown on nutrient agar plates.

False

"If you are working in a laboratory and wish to create a pure culture of a virus, which of the following would best allow you to do this?"

A nutrient agar plate with LB media.

A tube of nutrient media broth.

A flask of living cells and nutrient media.

All of the above would allow you to do this.

A flask of living cells and nutrient media.

The branch of microbiology that deals with diseases of humans and animals is called __________ microbiology.

Medical microbiology

The branch of microbiology that deals with the mechanisms by which the human body protects itself from disease-causing organisms is called __________.

Immunology

__________ microbiologists monitor community food establishments and water supplies in order to control the spread of communicable diseases.

Public Health

The branch of microbiology that studies the relationship between microorganisms and their habitats is called __________.

Microbial ecology

"__________ microbiology involves the use of microorganisms to make products such as antibiotics, vaccines, steroids, alcohols, vitamins, amino acids, and enzymes. "

Industrial

"In an outbreak of the bacteria E. coli, who would be the most likely type of microbiologist to respond to the outbreak?"

An immunologist

An industrial microbiologist

A public health microbiologist

A molecular geneticis

A public health microbiologist

. Which of the following external structures are found in archaea but not bacteria?

A. pili

B. flagella

C. hami

D. peptidoglycan

E. All of the above are found in both bacteria and archaea

hami

Which of the following statements about archaeal plasma membranes is TRUE?

A. The plasma membrane is always a lipid bilayer that lacks integral membrane proteins.

B. The plasma membrane must be a lipid bilayer with embedded proteins.

C. The plasma membrane contains peptidoglycan.

D. The plasma membrane can be a lipid monolayer.

E. None of the above statements are true.

The plasma membrane can be a lipid monolayer.

Diglycerol tetraether lipids __________.

A. are a characteristic feature of thermophilicbacteria

B. tend to make the membrane less rigid

C. are found in bothbacteria and archaeaD. form typical bilayer membranes in thermophilic eukaryotes

E. are found in thermophilicarchaea

are found in thermophilicarchaea

The plasma membrane of eukaryotes contains all of the following except

A. sterols

B. phosphoglycerides

C. sphingolipids

D. peptidoglycan

E. cholesterol

peptidoglycan

How do eukaryotic cells move large particles out of a cell?

A. endocytosis

B. exocytosis

C. phagocytosis

D. pinocytosis

E. group translocation

exocytosis

__________ is used for the breakdown and recycling of cytoplasmic componentsin eukaryotic cells.

A. Receptor mediated endocytosis

B. Formation of clathrin coated pits

C. Macroautophagy

D. Caveolin-dependent endocytosis

E. Macropinocytosis

Macroautophagy

Which of the following is FALSE?

A. Histones are found in chromatin.

B. Histones are used to help coil DNA.

C. Histones are proteins.

D. Groups of histones and chromatin form nucleosomes.

E. Histones are found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic microorganisms.

E. Histones are found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic microorganisms.

Bacteria have a nucleolus.

A. True

B. False

False

Which of the following provides evidence in support of the endosymbiotic hypothesis?

A. Double membrane surrounding mitochondria.

B.Double membrane surrounding chloroplasts.

C. Observation of division by binary fission in mitochondria.

D. A and B only

E. A, B, and C

Double membrane surrounding mitochondria, Double membrane surrounding chloroplasts, Observation of division by binary fission in mitochondria.

Mitochondria have their own extra nuclear DNA.

A. True

B. False

True

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. A virion is complete virus particle.

B. All virions have an envelope.

C. All virions have a nucleocapsid.

D. All virions have a nucleocapsid, but not all have an envelope.

E. Virion capsids are comprised of protomers.

All virions have an envelope.

Which of the following is NOT a form of viral genetic material?

A. ds DNA

B. ss DNA

C. ds RNA

D. ss RNA

E. All of the above are forms of viral genetic material.

All of the above are forms of viral genetic material.

what capsid shape is represented in the Ebola virus?

Helical

A virus that infects bacteria specifically is referred to as a

A. bacteriophage

B. bacterial virion

C. virube

D. V4

E. protease

bacteriophage

Unlike bacteria, viruses do not have enzymes.

A. True

B. False

False

Why does influenza typically infect lung cells but not brain cells?

A. Due to the preference for macrophages over neuronal cells.

B. Due to host specificity.

C. Due to tissue tropism.

D. Due to host tropism.

E. Due to tissue deselectivity.

Due to tissue tropism.

___ viruses typically lyse host cells upon release.

A. Enveloped

B. Non-enveloped

Non-enveloped

In the __________, phage DNA inserts into bacterial host genome where it is copied as a cell divides.

A. lytic cycle

B. acute cycle

C. virulent cycle

D. lysogenic cycle

E. archaeal cycle

lysogenic cycle

Genes whose expression (or abnormal expression) causes cancer are called ___________.

A. carcinogens

B. progenies

C. cancerous genes

D. prototype genes

E. oncogenes

oncogenes

A plaque in virology refers to

A. a complete virus particle

B. anincomplete virus particle

C. a complete and infectious virus particle

D. an incomplete and infectious particle

E. a complete but non-infectious particle

a complete and infectious virus particle

The smallest amount of virus needed to cause infection in 50% of exposed host cells or organisms is called the__________.

A. lethal dose

B. infectious dose

C. innocuousdose

D. preferred dose

E. virulence dose

infectious dose

____are infectious nucleic acids that encode their own capsid proteins when helped by a helper virus.

A. Satellites

B. Prions

C. Viroids

D. Virions

E. Caspases

Satellites

You diagnose a patient with Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease. Will prescribing antibiotics help this patient with their condition?

A. Yes because it is a bacterialdisease.

B. No because it is a satellite disease.

C. No because it is a viral disease.

D. Yes because it is a viroid disease.

E. No because it is a prion disease

No because it is a prion disease

A circular shape in a microorganism is called

coccus

Diplo

Pair

Strepto

chain

Staphylo

cluster

A rod-shaped microorganism

Bacillus

A curved rod

Vibrio

A coil-shaped microogranism

Spirilla

Spiral-shaped Microorganism

Spirochete

Helical shaped microorganism

Helicobacter

These cells lack a true membrane-delimited nucleus

Prokaryotic cells

These cells have a membrane-enclosed nucleus, are more complex morphologically, and are usually larger than prokaryotic cells

Eukaryotic cells

Usually single-celled, Majority have cell wall with peptidoglycan

Most lack a membrane-bound nucleus

Ubiquitous and some live in extreme environments

Bacteria

Distinguished from Bacteria by unique rRNA gene sequences

No peptidoglycan in cell walls

Have unique membrane lipids

Some have unusual metabolic characteristics

Many live in extreme environments

Archaea

algae, protozoa, slime molds, and water molds are examples of

Protists

Yeast and mold are examples of

Fungi

smallest of all microbes

requires host cell to replicate

cause range of diseases, some cancers

Viruses

infectious agents composed of RNA

Viroids

Infectious proteins

Prions

first person to observe and describe microorganisms accurately

Antony van Leeuwenhoek (1632-1723)

Belief that life comes from nonliving matter

Spontaneous Generation

The idea that living things only come from living things

Biogenesis

discredited spontaneous generation when he showed that maggots on decaying meat came from fly eggs and did not arise from the meat its self

Francesco Redi(1626-1697)

his experiment: First boiling, then sealing mutton broth in flasks, which resulted in a cloudy broth with microogranisms

John Needham (1713-1781)

This scientist first sealed, then boiled mutton broth in flasks, which resulted in no growth of microorganisms

Lazzaro Spallanzani(1729-1799)

These two set out to show there were living things in the air

Franz Shultzeand Theodor Schwann (1836)

Swan-neck flask’ experiments answered issues of critics about air and heat

Louis Pasteur (1822-1895)

The earliest established connection between microorganisms and disease were found in human diseases such as cholera and tuberculosis.

T/F?

False

demonstrated microorganisms carried out fermentations and developed the method of pastuerization, helping French wine industry

Louis Pasteur (1822-1895)

developed a system of surgery designed to prevent microorganisms from entering wounds as well as methods for treating instruments and surgical dressings

Joseph Lister

Established the relationship between Bacillus anthracis and anthrax

Robert Koch (1843-1910)

1.The suspected disease agent must be observed in every animal that has the disease, but not in healthy animals

2. The suspected disease agent must be extracted from a diseased animal and grown in a "pure" culture away from other types of cells, i.e., isolated from other possible disease agents

3. The suspected disease agent, which has been grown in the pure culture, must now be injected into healthy animals

4. The healthy animals must become diseased and the suspected disease agent must be observed in their bodies.

Koch's Postulates

Are there any limitations to Koch’s postulates?

Some organisms cannot be grown in pure culture

Using humans in completing the postulates is unethical

Q. How can limitations to Koch's postulates be overcome?

Molecular and genetic evidence may replace and overcome these limits

revolutionized all medicine by discovering the world's first antibiotic, or bacteria killer

Alexander Fleming (1881 -1955)

___ is concerned with the impact of microorganisms on agriculture

Agricultural microbiology

____ studies metabolic pathways of microorganisms

Microbial physiology

____ study the nature of genetic information and how it regulates the development and function of cells and organisms

Molecular biology

a measure of how greatly a substance slows the velocity of light

Refractive index

Distance between center of lens and focal point

Focal Length

Light rays are focused at a specific place called

focal point

the ability to distinguish closely spaced points as separate

Resolution

Distance between the front surface of lens and surface of cover glass or specimen when it is in sharp focus

Working distance

As you increase in magnification power, what happens to the working distance?

Working distance decreases as you increase in magnification power

Shorter wavelength = ?

greater resolution

a measure of its ability to gather light and resolve fine specimen detail at a fixed object distance

Numeric aperture

Why is the highest power objective lens referred to as the “oil immersion” lens?

Oil must be used to improve the refractive index of light to allow for appropriate resolution of images under the microscope.

4 cocci in a square

tetrads

sarcinae

cubic configuration of 8 cocci

network of long, multinucleate filaments

Mycelium

Which of the following is not a macromolecule?

1. Carbohydrates

2. Proteins

3. Lipids

4. Nucleic acids

5. Carbon Dioxide

Carbon Dioxide

These macromolecules are comprised of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in the ratio CH2O

Carbohydrates

These are complex macromolecules made from linking together amino acids by peptide bonds

Proteins

hydrophobic molecules that include fats, steroids, and phospholipids, and play a critical role in cell membranes

Lipids

the storage facilities for all the genetic material in life

Nucleic Acids

a sugar + a phosphate + a nitrogenous base = ?

A nucelotide

required in trace amounts

Micronutrients

Mn, Zn, Co, Mo, Ni, and Cu are examples of

Micronutrients

required in relatively large amounts

Macroelements

C, H, N, O, P, S, K, Ca, Mg, and Fe are examples of

Macroelements

transport mechanism used by Bacteria and Archaea

Group Translocation

the movement of molecules from area of high concentration to low concentration

Diffusion

diffusion of small, hydrophobic molecules across the membrane

Passive transport

the transport of hydrophilic and charged molecules across the membrane

Facilitated diffusion

the movement of water across a membrane

Osmosis

When a solution is ______ the concentration of a solute is equal on both sides of the cell membrane

isotonic

When a solution is _____ the concentration of a solute is greater on the inside of the cell membrane

hypotonic

When a solution is ___________ the concentration of a solute is greater outside of the cell membrane

hypertonic

_____ requires that a cell expend energy to move molecules across a membrane.

Active Transport

a membrane-bound vesicle fuses with the membrane and expels the large molecule

Exocytosis

a vesicle forms around a large molecule and brings it into the cell

Endocytosis

Rigid structure that lies just outside the cell plasma membrane

Two types based on standard Gram staining

Peptidoglycan

stain purple; thick peptidoglycan

Gram-positive

stain pink or red; thin peptidoglycan and outer membrane

Gram-negative

Outermost layer in the cell envelope

Glycocalyx

short, thin, hairlike, proteinaceous appendages (up to 1,000/cell) that can mediate attachment to surfaces, motility, DNA uptake

Fimbriae

longer, thicker, and less numerous (1-10/cell)–and are required for conjugation

Sex pili

one flagellum

Monotrichous

flagella at each end of the cell

Polar flagellum

one flagellum at each end of cell

amphitrichous

cluster of flagella at one or both ends

Lophotrichous

flagella spread over entire surface of cell

Peritrichous

Movement toward chemical attractant or away from chemical repellent

Chemotaxis

In flagella, counterclockwise (CCW) rotation causes forward motion and is called

Run

In flagella, clockwise rotation (CW) disrupts run causing cell to stop is called

Tumble

Complex, dormant structure formed by some bacteria and is resistant to numerous environmental conditions

Endospore

Why are bacteria haploid?

They do not undergo sexual reproduction

Binary fission and budding are examples of what type of reproduction?

Asexual

True or False: There is no mitotic phase for bacteria.

True

True or False: All bacterial chromosomes are circular

False. Most bacterial chromosomes are circular

The site at which replication begins on a bacterial chromosome

origin of replication

The site at which replication is terminated, located opposite of the origin on a bacterial chromosome

Terminus

A group of proteins needed for DNA synthesis

Replisome

formation of cross walls between daughter cells

Septation

These microbes grow optimally in the presence of NaCl or other salts at a concentration above about 0.2M

Halophiles

These microbes require salt concentrations of 2M and 6.2M

Extreme Halophiles

What is the difference between a halotolerant microbe and a halophile?

“–phile” implies “a love of”. Halotolerant microbes will tolerateNaCl, but not like it

A chemical compound that releases H+to a solution is a(n)___

Acid

A compound that accepts H+and removes them from solution is a(n)__

Base

These microbes grow optimally between pH 0 and pH 5.5

Acidophiles

These microbes grow optimally between pH 5.5 and pH 7

Neutrophiles

These microbes grow optimally between pH 8.5 and pH 11.5

Alkalophiles

These microbes grow between 0 degrees C to 20 degrees C

Psychrophiles

These microbes grow between 0 degrees C to 35 degrees C

psychrotrophs

These microbes grow between 20degrees C to 45 degrees C

Mesophiles

These microbes grow between 55 degrees C to 85 degrees C

Thermophiles

These microbes grow between 85 degrees C to 113 degrees C

Hyoperthermophiles

These microbes grow in presence of atmospheric oxygen (O2) which is 20% O2

Aerobes

These microbes require O₂

Obligate aerobe

These microbes grow in the absence of O₂

Anaerobe

These microbes usually killed in presence of O₂

Obligate anaerobe

These microbes do not require O₂ but grow better in its presence

Facultative anaerobes

These microbes require 2–10% O₂

Microaerophiles

____ grow with or without O₂

Aerotolerant anaerobes

important antioxidant defense in nearly all living cells exposed to oxygen; out-competes damaging reactions of superoxide

Superoxide Dismutase (SOD)

Ubiquitous in nature in water, these are complex, slime enclosed communities of microbes

Biofilm

This media favors the growth of some microorganisms and inhibit growth of others

Selective media

This type of media can distinguish between different groups of microorganisms based on their biological characteristics

Differential media

True or False: Media can be selective or differential, but not both.

False. Media can be both selective and differential.

Which is not a phase in the growth curve?

Lag phase

Communal phase

Exponential(log) phase

Stationary phase

Death phase

Communal phase

At 8:00 a.m., a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 1,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 2.5 hours. At 2:00 p.m. the log phase culture has a population of 6 million cells. The mean generation time is approximately_______?

3.5 hours/12.56 generations = 0.29 hours = ~20 minutes

What is used to accomplish microbial metabolism?

ATP

Chemical work, Transport work, and Mechanical work all make up

Microbial metabolism

In metabolism, the synthesis of complex molecules is __

Chemical work

In metabolism, take up of nutrients, elimination of wastes, and maintenance of ion balances is ___

Transport work

In metabolism, cell motility and movement of structures within cells is ____

Mechanical work

the breakdown of organic molecules

Catabolism

The synthesis of organic molecules

Anabolism

One is electron donating(oxidizing reaction)

One is electron accepting reaction (reducing reaction)

Oxidation-Reduction (redox) reaction

NAD, NADP, FAD, FMN, and CoQ are

electron carriers

____ speed up the rate at which a reaction proceeds toward its final equilibrium

Enzymes

protein component of an enzyme

Apoenzyme

non-protein component of an enzyme

Cofactor

firmly attached non-protein component of an enzyme

prosthetic group

loosely attached non-protein component of an enzyme

coenzyme

apoenzyme+ cofactor =

holoenzyme

Why would an enzyme denature at high temperatures?

It is a protein. Proteins denature at adversely high temperatures.

directly competes with binding of substrate to active site

competitive inhibitor

binds enzyme at site other than active site and changes enzyme’s shape so that it becomes less active

Noncompetitive inhibitor

_____ pathways are enzyme catalyzed reactions whereby the product of one reaction serves as the substrate for the next

catabolic

____ pathways function both as catabolic and anabolic pathways

amphibolic

What are these three pathways used for?

Embden-Meyerhof pathway

pentose phosphate pathway

Entner-Duodoroffpathway

Breakdown of glucose to pyruvate

Also known as glycolysis, this is the most common pathway for glucose degradation to pyruvate in stage two of aerobic respiration and can function with or without O₂

The Embden-Meyerhof Pathway

True or False: The Embden-Meyerhof Pathway has three phases.

False; it has only two phases- six-carbon and three-carbon phases

Used by soil bacteria and a few gram-negative bacteria, this pathway replaces the first phase of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway and yields 1 ATP, 1 NADPH, and 1 NADH per glucose molecule

Entner-Duodoroff pathway

Also called the hexose monophosphate pathway, this pathway can operate at same time as glycolytic pathway or Entner-Duodoroff pathway

The Pentose Phosphate Pathway

Also called citric acid cycle and Kreb’scycle

•Common in aerobic bacteria, free-living protozoa, most algae, and fungi

•Major role is as a source of carbon skeletons for use in biosynthesis

•Summary: for each acetyl-CoA molecule oxidized, generate 2 molecules of CO2, 3 molecules of NADH, one FADH2, and one GTP

Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle

True or False: All electron transport chains are found in the mitochondrial inner membrane.

False. Bacteria and Archaea do not have mitochondria

The most widely accepted hypothesis to explain oxidative phosphorylation

Chemiosmotic Hypothesis of Oxidative Phosphorylation

The theoretical maximum total yield of ATP during aerobic respiration is

38

Net gain of 146 ATP under aerobic conditions

Fat catabolism

____ hydrolyzes protein to amino acids

Protease

___ is the removal of amino group from amino acid

Deamination

_____ bacteria oxidize ammonia to nitrate

Nitrifying

A process of photosynthesis where light energy is trapped and converted to chemical energy

Light reaction

A process of photosynthesis where energy produced in the light reactions is used to reduce CO2 and synthesize cell constituents

Dark reaction

_________ is the total of all chemical reactions occurring in the cell.

Metabolism

Cells carry out three major types of work; which of the following involves nutrient uptake and waste elimination?

Chemical work. Transport work. Mechanical work. None of these.

Transport work

Cells carry out three major types of work; which of the following involves energy for cell motility and the movement of structures within cells?

Chemical work. Transport work. Mechanical work. None of these.

Mechanical work

The change in __________ is the amount of energy in a system that is available to do work.

free energy

The __________ is the electron acceptor in a redox reaction.

oxidant

The standard reduction potential of a redox reaction is a measure of the tendency of the __________ to __________ electrons.Ê

reductant; lose

True or False: The equilibrium constant for a redox reaction is called the standard reduction potential.

True

Which of the following is used as an electron carrier by living organisms?

NAD+

NADP+

ubiquinone

all of the choices

NAD+, NADP+, and ubiquinnone

True or False: The electron transport chain is based on the principle that redox couples with more positive reduction potentials will donate electrons to couples with more negative potentials.Ê

False

Which of the following is not true about enzymes?

Enzymes are catalysts that speed up reactions.

Enzymes are proteins that can be denatured by changes in pH or temperature.

Enzymes are highly specific for the substrates they react with and catalyze only one or a limited set of possible reactions with those substrates.

All of the choices are true about enzymes

All of the choices are true about enzymes

The most specific term usually used to describe a substance in a biological system that increases the rate of a reaction without being permanently changed by the reaction is a(n)

enzyme

Enzymes catalyze a reaction byÊ

decreasing the activation energy of the reaction.

"The synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi, when coupled with an exergonic chemical reaction is called __________ phosphorylation. Ê"

substrate-level

The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose metabolized anaerobically via the Embden-Meyerhoff pathway in prokaryotes is Ê

2

The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose metabolized to pyruvate using Entner-Doudoroff pathway is Ê

1

The pentose phosphate pathway produces Ê

CO2.

NADPH.

glyceraldehyde

3-phosphate.

all of the choices.

The pentose phosphate produces all three

The most common pathway for conversion of glucose to pyruvate is Ê

Embden-Meyerhoff.

The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex oxidizes and cleaves pyruvate to form one CO2 and Ê

acetyl-CoA

The TCA cycle generates all of the following from each acetyl-CoA molecule oxidized except Ê

three NADH molecules.

two CO2 molecules.

one FADH2 molecule.

two ATP or GTPÊmolecules.

two ATP or GTPÊmolecules.

The major function(s) of the TCA cycle is(are) Ê

energy production and provision of carbon skeletons for biosynthesis of cell components.

The most commonly accepted hypothesis for the production of ATP that results from electron transport system is called the __________ hypothesis. Ê

chemiosmotic

The electron transport systems in eukaryotes and prokaryotes use the same electron carriers. Ê

false; they use different electron carriers`]

"In higher eukaryotes, most aerobically generated ATP is produced by Ê"

a membrane bound proton translocating ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation.

"In aerobic conditions, it takes __________ sugar to produce the same amount of ATP when compared to anaerobic conditions.Ê"

less

The number of ATP molecules generated per atom of oxygen that is reduced when electrons are passed from NADH or reduced FAD (FADH) to O2 is called the Ê

P/O ratio.

Fermentation does not involve the use of pyruvate and/or other organic molecules as electron acceptors.Ê

False: fermentation does involve the use of pyruvate and/or other organic molecules as electron acceptors

Which of the following can be used as electron acceptors during anaerobic respiration?Ê

nitrate sulfate carbon dioxide

nitrate, sulfate, and carbon dioxide can all be used as electron acceptors

Fatty acids are metabolized by the __________ pathway. Ê

beta-oxidation

"During breakdown of fatty acids, carbons are removed __________ at a time with each turn of the cycle, and two carbon units are released Êas __________. Ê"

two; acetyl-CoA

Amino acids are processed first by the removal of the amino group through Ê

deamination or transamination

Which of the following may be used as sources of energy by chemolithotrophs?Ê

Hydrogen gas. Reduced nitrogen compounds. Reduced sulfur compounds.

all three can be used as sources of energy by chemolithotrophs

Photosynthetic electron transport in cyanobacteria takes place Ê

on the thylakoid membranes.

Most bacterial and archaeal cells divide by

binary fission

"The cell elongates, replicates its chromosome, and separates the chromosome into the two parts of the cell, and a septum forms at midcell."

the correct order for binary fission

The actin-like protein that seems to be involved in determining cell shape is

MreB

"During cytokinesis, a critical step in septation is the assembly of the "

Z ring

Quorum sensing

is a phenomenon in which bacteria monitor their own population density.

depends on the sensing of signal protein molecules.

plays an important role in formation of biofilms by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

All three describe quorum sensing

Which of the following can be used to isolate pure cultures of bacteria from mixtures?

spread plates streak plates pour plates

all three are methods to isolate pure cultures or bacteria

Media containing some ingredients of unknown chemical composition are called __________ media.

complex

"Mannitol salt agar (MSA) only allows the growth of halophiles (salt-loving microbes); nonhalophiles will not grow. Among the halophiles, mannitol fermenters will produce acid that turns the pH indicator yellow; mannitol nonfermenters leave the medium red. Onto MSA you inoculate a halophilic mannitol fermenter and a halophilic mannitol nonfermenter. In this case, the medium is acting as (a) __________ medium/"

differential

"Mannitol salt agar (MSA) only allows the growth of halophiles (salt-loving microbes). Among the halophiles, mannitol fermenters release acid that turns the pH indicator yellow; mannitol nonfermenters leave the medium red. Onto MSA you inoculate a halophilic mannitol nonfermenter and a nonhalophilic mannitol nonfermenter. Here the medium acts as a __________ medium. "

selective

Media in which all components and their concentration are known are called __________ media.

defined

The total number of viable microorganisms remains constant in stationary phase because

either there is a balance between cell division and cell death or there is a cessation of cell division even though the cells may remain metabolically active.

Cells may enter stationary phase because of

the depletion of an essential nutrient.

a lack of available oxygen.

the accumulation of toxic waste products.

all three may cause a cell to enter stationary phase

Which of these methods can be used to determine the number of viable microorganisms in a sample?

Light scattering in a spectrophotometer.

Measuring total cell mass.

Measuring colony forming units per ml.

Counting a known volume of cells in a hemocytometer.

Measuring colony forming units per ml.

Microorganisms are most nearly uniform in terms of chemical and physiological properties during __________ phase.

exponential

Which of the following is a reason for the occurrence of a lag phase in a bacterial growth curve?

"The cells may be old and depleted of ATP, essential cofactors, and ribosomes that must be synthesized before growth can begin."

The medium may be different from the previous growth medium so that the cells must synthesize new enzymes to use different nutrients.

The organisms may have been injured and require time to recover.

All of these are potential reasons.

All of these are potential reasons.

"If all cell components are synthesized at constant rates relative to one another, the culture is said to be in __________ growth; however, if the rates of synthesis of some components change relative to the rates of synthesis of other components, the culture is said to be in __________ growth. "

balanced; unbalanced

"Given a log phase bacterial culture with 1 x 10^6 cells per ml and a generation time of 30 minutes, how long does it take the culture to reach a density of 6.4x 10^7 cells per ml? "

3 hours

"At 4:00 p.m. a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 1 hour. At 9:00 p.m. the log phase culture has population of 65 million cells. The approximate number of generations that has occurred is"

13

"At 4:00 p.m. a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 1 hour. At 9:00 p.m. the log phase culture has a population of 65 million cells. The mean generation time is approximately"

20 minutes

The Archaea generally lack which of the following that are normally found in gram-negative bacteria?

Outer membrane.

A complex peptidoglycan network.

Lipopolysaccharide.

archaea lack all three features

A feature unique to some archaeal plasma membranes is that they may

consist of a lipid monolayer.

Because archaeons lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls

some have an outer layer of complex polysaccharide and some have an outer layer of protein

Archaeal membranes contain which of the following lipids?

phospholipids sulfolipids glycolipids

archaea contain all three lipids

Diglycerol tetraether lipids

are a characteristic feature of thermophilic Archaea.

"Which of the following organelles is involved in the modification, packaging, and secretion of materials? "

golgi apparatus

Receptor mediated endocytosis

"depends on formation of clathrin coated pits that pinch off and is used to internalize molecules such as hormones, growth factors, iron, and cholesterol."

The nucleolus plays a major role in synthesis of

RNA

Which is not true of viruses?

They can exist in an intracellular or extracellular phase.

They infect animal and plant cells only.

They replicate only inside host cells. They are acellular.

They infect animal and plant cells only.

A complete virus particle is called a

virion

The nucleic acids carried by viruses usually consist of

either DNA or RNA.

Which of the following is not true of viruses?

Viruses are acellular.

Viruses consist of one or more molecules of DNA or RNA enclosed in a coat of protein and sometimes in other more complex layers.

Viruses can exist in two phases: intracellular and extracellular.

Viruses replicate by binary fission.

Viruses replicate by binary fission.

"In an enveloped virus, the part of the virus including the nucleic acid genome and the surrounding protein coat but not the envelope is called the "

nucleocapsid.

Viral capsid protein subunits are called

protomers

Glycoprotein spikes protruding from the outer surface of viral envelopes function as

factors that bind to host cells.

The function of the viral protein coat is to

protect the viral genetic material and aid in the transfer of the viral genetic material between host cells.

Most enveloped viruses use the host __________ membrane as their envelope source.

plasma

Nonenveloped viruses most often gain access to eukaryotic host cells by

endocytosis

Animal viruses have been cultivated in

suitable host animals.

embryonated eggs.

tissue cultures (monolayers of animal cells).

animal viruses have been cultivated in all three

A ________ assay is most useful for determining the viability of a viral preparation?

plaque

Viroids are of economic significance because they cause disease in

plants

Which of the following diseases is (are) caused by prions?

Scrapie. Mad cow disease. Kuru and Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease.

all three are prion caused diseases

Which of the following individuals or groups of individuals demonstrated that the transforming principle was DNA?

" Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty"

Griffith

Hershey and Chase

Watson and Crick

" Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty"

The principle of transformation was first demonstrated by which of the following individuals or groups of individuals?

" Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty"

Griffith

Hershey and Chase

Watson and Crick

Griffith

"Hershey and Chase demonstrated that when the bacteriophage T2 infected its host cell, the __________ is injected into the host but the __________ remained outside. "

DNA; protein

The genetic information in DNA is divided into units called

genes

Which of the following is true about the structure of DNA?

Purine and pyrimidine bases are attached to the 1'-carbon of the deoxyribose sugars.

Purine and pyrimidine bases are joined by phosphodiester bonds. "

Adjacent bases are stacked on top of each other, one base pair every 0.34 nm."

all of the above are true.

all of the above are true about DNA structure

Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

adenine cytosine thymine uracil

adenine

"The two strands of a DNA molecule are __________; that is, they are oriented in opposite directions. "

antiparallel

"When a DNA molecule is replicated, the daughter molecules contain one strand of parental DNA and one strand of newly synthesized DNA; this is called __________ replication. "

semi-conservative

The chromosomes of most bacteria are comprised of

double-stranded circular molecules

During replication the 2 strands of the DNA molecule are unwound from one another by enzymes called

helicases

"The coding sequence in the DNA of __________ is normally continuous; that is, it is not interrupted by noncoding sequences. "

prokaryotes

The process by which the base sequence of all or a portion of a DNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule is called

transcription

The region at which the RNA polymerase binds is the __________ region.

promoter

"The transcribed, but not translated, sequence that is immediately upstream of the region that encodes the functional product is called the __________ region. "

leader

The unexpressed regions of split genes are called

introns

The strand of DNA for a particular gene that is copied by the RNA polymerase to form mRNA is called the __________ stran

template

Messenger RNA molecules that direct the synthesis of more than one polypeptide are said to be __________.

polycistronic

A consensus sequence in the untranslated leader sequence of a prokaryotic mRNA which serves as a ribosome binding site is called the __________ sequence.

Shine-Delgarno

The process by which the base sequence of an RNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of a protein is called

translation.

________ molecules deliver amino acids to ribosomes during translation.

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

Which of the following is not a termination codon?

AUG UAA UAG UGA

The portion of the tRNA molecule that binds to the codon on the mRNA is called the

anticodon

What is the minimum number of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzymes needed to attach amino acids to all the various tRNA molecules?

20

In __________ ribosomes can attach to the mRNA and begin translation even though transcription has not been complete

prokaryotes

The energy needed for protein synthesis is provided by the hydrolysis of

ATP and GTP

___________ in proteins includes alpha-helixes and beta-pleated sheets.

secondary structures

What are used to regulate protein folding to minimize the risk of protein mis-folding?

chaperones

A gram negative bacterium wishes to secrete a previously-folded virulence factor. Which of the following secretion systems would be used to accomplish this?

Type II SS