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Day 3

1.

What are the two most common causes of dementia in the elderly?

_____ disease (most common)
_____ dementia

Alzheimer disease (most common)
Vascular dementia

2.

What is the likely diagnosis for an adult with a history of chronic alcohol consumption who is exhibiting anterograde amnesia and confabulation in the emergency department?

Korsakoff syndrome

3.

What type of amnesia is present in a patient who sustained a head injury and is unable to recall anything that occurred from the time that the injury occurred?

Anterograde amnesia

4.

What type of amnesia is present in a patient who cannot recall anything that occurred before they sustained a head injury but can still make new memories?

Retrograde amnesia

5.

Korsakoff syndrome is a late neuropsychiatric manifestation of what disease?

Wernicke encephalopathy

6.

What is the definition of an anxiety disorder?

When a patient experiences inappropriate ____ and ____

When a patient experiences inappropriate fear and worry

7.

Which three other conditions must be ruled out to make a diagnosis of anxiety disorder?

Another ____ disorder
____ use
____ condition

Another psychiatric disorder
Substance use
Medical condition

8.

In a person with bipolar disorder, what mood can you expect between episodes of mania/hypomania and depression?

Mood generally returns to ______

Mood generally returns to normal

9.

What disorder is present in a patient who has mild dysthymia and has been experiencing hypomanic episodes for 3 years?

Cyclothymic disorder

10.

What class of drugs are used most commonly to treat bipolar disorder?

____ ____

____ ____

Mood stabilizers
Atypical antipsychotics

11.

How does bipolar I disorder differ from bipolar II disorder?

Bipolar I disorder includes _____ episodes with or without a _____ or _____ episode
Bipolar II disoder includes a _____ episode and a _____ episode, but no _____ episodes

Bipolar I disorder includes manic episodes with or without a hypomanic or depressive episode
Bipolar II disoder includes a hypomanic episode and a depressive episode, but no manic episodes

12.

What class of drugs can cause mania and increase suicide risk in patients with bipolar disorder?

______

Antidepressant

13.

How long are symptoms required to be present for a diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder?

____ or more years with symptoms present at least ____% of the time, with any remission lasting for ____ months or less

2 or more years with symptoms present at least 50% of the time, with any remission lasting for 2 months or less

14.

What additional disorder do patients with selective mutism usually have?

Social anxiety disorder

15.

How do you treat selective mutism?

____, ____, and ____ therapies with or without ____

Behavioral, family, and play therapies with or without SSRIs

16.

What is selective mutism?

____ disorder that involves refraining from ____ in specific situations for less than or equal to ____ month in a child older than ____ years who has no impairment in speech/language development

Anxiety disorder that involves refraining from speech in specific situations for less than or equal to 1 month in a child older than 5 years who has no impairment in speech/language development

17.

Selective mutism interferes with performance of what kinds of tasks?

____ tasks
____ tasks
____ tasks

Academic tasks
Social tasks
Occupational tasks

18.

In _____ disorder, the basic rights of others or social norms are violated
In _____ _____ disorder, the basic rights of others or social norms are not violated

In conduct disorder, the basic rights of others or social norms are violated
In oppositional defiant disorder, the basic rights of others or social norms are not violated

19.

What is the treatment for conduct disorder?

Psychotherapy

20.

How do you treat a child with oppositional defiant disorder?

Psychotherapy

21.

Up to what age is separation anxiety considered a normal phenomenon?

___ to ___ years

3 to 4 years

22.

An episode of separation anxiety in older children must last how long for it to be considered a disorder?

____ weeks or more

4 weeks or more

23.

What can be used to treat a child with separation anxiety disorder?

____ ____ therapy
____ therapy
____ therapy

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy

Family therapy

Play therapy

24.

What modalities are used to treat intractable tics in a patient with Tourette syndrome?

High-potency____, ____-agonists, ________

High-potency antipsychotics
α2-agonists
Tetrabenazine

25.

Tourette syndrome presents with what symptoms and at what age?

Sudden, rapid, recurrent, [rhythmic/nonrhythmic] stereotyped vocal and motor ____ that are present > ____ year(s) before the age of ____ years

Sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic stereotyped vocal and motor tics that are present > 1 year(s) before the age of 18 years

26.

What is the first-line therapy for Tourette syndrome?

_____ therapy
_____education

Behavioral therapy
Psychoeducation

27.

What features and associated disorders may be seen in a patient with Tourette syndrome?

Vocal and motor ____
C____
____-____ ____
____-____ ____ ____

Vocal and motor tics
Coprolalia
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder

28.

____ is the medical term for the involuntary outburst of obscene words, slurs, or socially inappropriate remarks.

Coprolalia

29.

How long do symptoms need to be present for Tourette syndrome to be diagnosed?

More than __ year(s)

More than 1 year(s)

30.

ADHD symptoms must last for how long before diagnosis?

6 months

31.

What three traits characterize attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder?

I____
I____
H____

Inattention
Impulsivity
Hyperactivity

32.

ADHD symptoms must be found in ____ or more settings

2

33.

What are the treatment options for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder?

______ with or without ______ ______ therapy
______ alternatives

Stimulants with or without cognitive behavioral therapy
Stimulant alternatives

34.

You suspect that a child who does poorly in school has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. Does this disorder affect intelligence?

No

35.

What classes of drugs are used to treat disruptive mood dysregulation disorder?

_____

_____

Stimulants
Antipsychotics

36.

How does disruptive mood dysregulation disorder present?

Severe, recurrent _____ outbursts incongruent to situation

Severe, recurrent temper outbursts incongruent to situation

37.

How long must symptoms be present before a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation can be made?

1 year

38.

Autism must present in [early/late] childhood and is more common in [boys/girls]

Autism must present in early childhood and is more common in boys

39.

At what age would you diagnose a patient with conduct disorder?

Before the age of ____ years

Before the age of 18 years

40.

After age 18, conduct disorder is reclassified as _____ _____ disorder.

After age 18, it is reclassified as antisocial personality disorder.

41.

A child with autism may have an intellectual _______ or _______ abilities or specific skills. Size of head and/or brain may be _______.

A child with autism may have an intellectual disability or exceptional abilities or specific skills. Size of head and/or brain may be increased

42.

Which childhood disorder is characterized by poor social interactions, communication deficits, ritualized or repetitive behavior, and restricted interests?

_____ _____ disorder

Autism spectrum disorder

43.

What is intellectual disability?

______ cognitive deficits that affect memory, reasoning, judgment, abstract thinking, language, and learning

Global cognitive deficits that affect memory, reasoning, judgment, abstract thinking, language, and learning

44.

Why do patients with intellectual disability have difficulties in socialization, education, employment, and independence?

_____ functioning is impaired due to _____ cognitive deficits

Adaptive functioning is impaired due to global cognitive deficits

45.

How do you treat a patient with intellectual disability?

By providing ______ support to improve global functioning

By providing multidisciplinary support to improve global functioning

46.

A child is unable to read near the level of proficiency for his or her age even after working with a tutor 7 months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

_____ _____ disorder

Specific learning disorder

47.

What happens to general functioning and intelligence in an individual with specific learning disorder?

They are usually normal

48.

How long must symptoms persist for a diagnosis of specific learning childhood disorder?

> ___ months

> 6 months

49.

How do you treat a patient with specific learning disorder?

_____ support
C_____
_____ activities

Academic support
Counseling
Extracurricular activities

50.

How do you treat delirium?

Treatment of delirium is aimed at identifying and addressing the _____ _____

Treatment of delirium is aimed at identifying and addressing the underlying condition

51.

_____ may be used as needed for acute episodes of delirium

Antipsychotics may be used as needed for acute episodes.

52.

What classes of medication should be avoided in the treatment of delirium?

_____
_____
_____

Benzodiazepines
Anticholinergics
Opioids

53.

What could be the cause of sudden waning of consciousness in hospitalized older patients?

delirium

54.

You suspect that your patient with altered mental status has delirium. What test may help to confirm the diagnosis?

_____

EEG

55.

EEG may reveal _____ _____ _____ slowing, a finding associated with delirium.

diffuse background rhythm

56.

Define delirium.

Acute, [reversible/irreversible], onset of waxing/waning _____ with rapidly decreasing _____ span and level of _____

Acute, reversible, onset of waxing/waning consciousness with rapidly decreasing attention span and level of arousal

57.

How do you begin management of delirium before considering medication?

Identifying/treating underlying _____
Providing cognitive _____
Keeping a clock or calendar nearby for _____ purposes
Reducing _____ disturbances

Identifying/treating underlying condition
Providing cognitive stimulation
Keeping a clock or calendar nearby for orientation purposes
Reducing sleep disturbances

58.

What is the treatment for atypical depression?
_____
_____ _____ therapy
_____ (not first-line)

SSRIs
Cognitive behavioral therapy
MAOIs (not first-line)

59.

What symptoms differentiate atypical depression from classical depression?

_____ reactivity
[Hypersomnia/Hyposomnia]
[Overeating/Undereating]
_____ paralysis
_____ to rejection

Mood reactivity
Hypersomnia
Overeating
Leaden paralysis
Hypersensitivity to rejection

60.

Heavy feeling in legs and arms is called what?

Transient improvement in mood in response to a positive event is called what?

Leaden paralysis

Mood reactivity

61.

What is the most common subtype of depression?

Depression with atypical features

62.

How long must symptoms be present for a diagnosis of delusional disorder to be made?

> [...] month(s)

> 1 month(s)

63.

How long must symptoms persist for a diagnosis of brief psychotic disorder?

< [...] month(s)

< 1 month(s)

64.

Symptoms of major depressive disorder last ≥ [...] weeks
Dysthymia and cyclothymia are diagnosed in adults after symptoms last > [...] years

Symptoms of major depressive disorder last ≥ 2 weeks
Dysthymia and cyclothymia are diagnosed in adults after symptoms last > 2 years

65.

After how many months of anxiety-related symptoms can the diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder be made?

> [...] months

> 6 months

66.

After how many months of symptoms can the diagnosis of panic disorder be made?

> [...] month(s)

> 1 month(s)

67.

How many months of symptoms are necessary for a narcolepsy diagnosis?

> [...] month(s)

> 3 months

68.

How long must symptoms be present in a child for a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder to be made?

> [...] months

> 6 months

69.

How long must symptoms be present for the diagnosis of tic disorder be made?

> [...] year(s)

> 1 year(s)

70.

How long must symptoms be present for the diagnosis of a phobia be made?

> [...] months

> 6 months

71.

Symptoms persisting ____ than ____ months indicate adjustment disorder

Symptoms persisting ____ than ____ months indicate generalized anxiety disorder

Symptoms persisting less than 6 months indicate adjustment disorder

Symptoms persisting more than 6 months indicate generalized anxiety disorder

72.

Compare the duration of symptoms in acute stress disorder versus post-traumatic stress disorder.

Acute stress disorder → Symptoms persist ____ than ____ month(s)
Post-traumatic stress disorder → Symptoms persist ____ than ____ month(s)

Acute stress disorder → Symptoms persist less than 1 month(s)
Post-traumatic stress disorder → Symptoms persist more than 1 month(s)

73.

How long must symptoms be present for a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder to be made?

Symptoms must be present for [...] to [...] months

Symptoms must be present for 1 to 6 months

74.

How long must symptoms be present for a diagnosis of schizophrenia to be made?

> 6 months

75.

Name six psychiatric conditions associated with dissociative identity disorder.

____-____ ____ disorder
______
______ personality disorder
______ use disorder
______ disorders
History of ______ abuse

Post-traumatic stress disorder
Depression
Borderline personality disorder
Substance use disorder
Somatoform disorders
History of sexual abuse

76.

Dissociative identity disorder is more common in which sex?

female

77.

Depersonalization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from one's ____
Derealization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from one's ____

Depersonalization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from one's self
Derealization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from one's environment

78.

A man often feels estranged from his surroundings and from himself, almost as if he is merely an observer. What could this condition be?

________/________ disorder

Depersonalization/derealization disorder

79.

If a patient has two or more distinct personality states or identities, what is the diagnosis?

Dissociative identity disorder

80.

Due to the severe trauma of child abuse, a woman is unable to recall her date of birth. What type of amnesia is this?

_____ amnesia

Dissociative amnesia

81.

A man abruptly travels to the other side of the country and is found wandering on the streets there. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dissociative _____

Dissociative fugue

82.

Dissociative fugue occurs during a period of dissociative amnesia, which is often associated with _____ circumstances.

traumatic

83.

Which eating disorder involves dieting, fasting, and/or exercising excessively without purging or binge eating for ≥ 3 months?

Anorexia nervosa, restricting type

84.

Which eating disorder involves recurrent purging behaviors or binge eating for ≥ 3 months?

Anorexia nervosa, binge-eating/purging type

85.

What three treatment options are available for patients with anorexia nervosa?

_____
_____ rehabilitation
_____

Psychotherapy
Nutritional rehabilitation
Olanzapine

86.

What is the definition of anorexia nervosa?

Intense fear of [gaining/losing] weight, distortion of body image, and overvaluation of ____ → Calorie ____, extreme weight [gain/loss], and inappropriately [high/low] BMI

Intense fear of gaining weight, distortion of body image, and overvaluation of thinness → Calorie restriction, extreme weight loss, and inappropriately low BMI

87.

Name three electrolyte disturbances that occur in refeeding syndrome in patients with anorexia.

[Hyperkalemia/Hypokalemia]
[Hyperphosphatemia/Hypophosphatemia]
[Hypermagnesemia/Hypomagnesemia]

Hypokalemia
Hypophosphatemia
Hypomagnesemia

88.

In anorexia nervosa, what three symptoms or diseases may present due to disruption of the endocrine symptom?

[Hyperthyroidism/Hypothyroidism]
_____
_____

Hypothyroidism
Amenorrhea
Osteoporosis

89.

How may body hair be altered in anorexia nervosa?

Development of ____ hair on the arms and legs

Development of soft hair on the arms and legs

90.

Compare the body weight profiles of patients with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.

Anorexia nervosa → _____ BMI
Bulimia nervosa → _____ or _____ BMI

Anorexia nervosa → Low BMI
Bulimia nervosa → Normal BMI or overweight

91.

What four findings may be seen in a patient with bulimia nervosa?

____ of enamel on teeth
Metabolic [acidosis/alkalosis]
____ disturbances
[Ventral/Dorsal] hand ____ caused by induction of vomiting

Erosion of enamel on teeth
Metabolic alkalosis
Electrolyte disturbances
Dorsal hand calluses caused by induction of vomiting

92.

What is the definition of pica?

Recurring consumption of _____ items, not considered normal for an individual's culture or developmental stage, for _____ month(s) or longer

Recurring consumption of nonfood items, not considered normal for an individual's culture or developmental stage, for 1 month(s) or longer

93.

What is the treatment for pica?

First-line treatment → _____ rehabilitation and _____
Second-line treatment → _____

First-line treatment → Nutritional rehabilitation and psychotherapy
Second-line treatment → SSRIs

94.

What population of patients does pica typically affect?

_____
_____ women

Children
Pregnant women

95.

What four comorbidities is pica associated with?

______ deficiency anemia
______ disabilities
______
______ trauma

Iron deficiency anemia
Developmental disabilities
Malnutrition
Emotional trauma

96.

Describe the mechanism of refeeding syndrome and three potential complications in a patient with anorexia.

Sudden increase in calorie intake → Increase in ____ → [Hyperphosphatemia/Hypophosphatemia], [hyperkalemia/hypokalemia], and [hypermagnesemia/hypomagnesemia] → Rhabdomyolysis, seizures, and cardiac complications

Sudden increase in calorie intake → Increase in insulin → Hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia → Rhabdomyolysis, seizures, and cardiac complications

97.

What treatment options are available for binge-eating disorder?

_____ (first-line treatment)
_____
_____

Psychotherapy (first-line treatment)
SSRIs
Lisdexamfetamine

98.

Why is bupropion contraindicated for patients with bulimia nervosa?

Elevated risk of ______

Elevated risk of seizures

99.

Why might a doctor order an endoscopy for a patient with bulimia nervosa?

To check for _____ in the [upper/lower] part of the esophagus

To check for tears in the lower part of the esophagus.

This is Malory-Weiss syndrome.

100.

Which enzyme would increase as a result of parotid gland hypertrophy in patients with bulimia nervosa?

Serum _____

Serum amylase

101.

What is the treatment for bulimia nervosa?

_____
_____ rehabilitation
_____

Antidepressants
Nutritional rehabilitation
Psychotherapy

102.

Is electroconvulsive therapy safe for pregnant patients and elderly patients?

Yes. There are no absolute contraindications to electroconvulsive therapy.

103.

Name four clinical indications for electroconvulsive therapy.

Acute _____
_____ with psychosis
_____ depression
C_____

Acute suicidality
Depression with psychosis
Refractory depression
Catatonia

104.

What is the mechanism of electroconvulsive therapy?

Electroconvulsive therapy induces ____-____ seizures in patients under anesthesia and neuromuscular blockade

Electroconvulsive therapy induces tonic-clonic seizures in patients under anesthesia and neuromuscular blockade

105.

What are the adverse effects of electroconvulsive therapy?

_____
_____
_____/_____ amnesia that usually resolves within _____ months

Headache
Disorientation
Anterograde/retrograde amnesia that usually resolves within 6 months

106.

What is the first-line treatment for someone diagnosed with enuresis?

______ modifications
[Positive/Negative] reinforcement

Behavioral modifications
Positive reinforcement

107.

For nocturnal urinary incontinence refractory to behavioral modifications, what are two treatment options?

Bedwetting ______
Oral ______

Bedwetting alarm
Oral desmopressin

108.

How long must symptoms of nighttime incontinence last for a diagnosis of enuresis to be made?

≥ [...] times per week for ≥ [...] months

≥ 2 times per week for ≥ 3 months

109.

How old does a person have to be for a diagnosis of enuresis to be made?

> [...] years

> 5 years

110.

A caregiver—usually a parent—intentionally fabricates, exaggerates, or induces physical or psychological symptoms in a dependent (often a child) to deceive others and gain attention or sympathy.

_____ disorder imposed on [self/another]

Factitious disorder imposed on another

111.

Patients with factitious disorder imposed on self are _____ to undergo tests and procedures

Patients with malingering often _____ treatment

Patients with factitious disorder imposed on self are willing to undergo tests and procedures

Patients with malingering often avoid treatment

112.

What is the primary goal of a patient with a factitious disorder?

To get _____ and medical _____ by means of the sick role

To get sympathy and medical attention by means of the sick role

113.

In which two population groups is factitous disorder imposed on self more common?

_____ workers
[Men/Women]

Healthcare workers
Women

114.

What is the definition of gambling disorder?

Persistent, recurrent, problematic gambling that cannot be better explained as a _____ episode

Persistent, recurrent, problematic gambling that cannot be better explained as a manic episode

115.

What is the treatment of gambling disorder?

______

Psychotherapy

116.

What is the definition of transgender?

When a patient lives their life as a [similar/different] gender than what was assigned at _____

When a patient lives their life as a different gender than what was assigned at birth

117.

What is definition of gender dysphoria?

A difference between the way an individual ______ gender and the gender assigned at ______

A difference between the way an individual experiences gender and the gender assigned at birth

118.

gender dysphoria lasts for over ______ months and causes persistent ______.

gender dysphoria lasts for over 6 months and causes persistent distress.

119.

Is gender nonconformity a mental disorder?

No

120.

At what age does gender identity develop?

3 yo

121.

What are seven of the most common symptoms associated with generalized anxiety disorder?

Excessive _____
_____ problems
_____
_____
Difficulty _____
_____
Muscle _____

Excessive anxiety
Sleep problems
Restlessness
Fatigue
Difficulty concentrating
Irritability
Muscle tension

122.

By definition, the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder must be present for how long to be clinically significant?

On most days for [...] months or longer

On most days for 6 months or longer

123.

What are three first-line treatment options available for generalized anxiety disorder?

____ ____ therapy
____
____

Cognitive behavioral therapy
SSRIs
SNRIs

124.

What are three second-line treatment options for generalized anxiety disorder?

____
____
____

Buspirone
TCAs
Benzodiazepines

125.

How do the criteria for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder in adults compare with the criteria for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder in children?

Adults → ≥ [...] symptoms of generalized anxiety
Children → ≥ [...] symptoms of generalized anxiety

Adults → ≥ 3 symptoms of generalized anxiety
Children → ≥ 1 symptoms of generalized anxiety

126.

Compare hypomanic and manic episodes in terms of severity.

Hypomanic episodes are [more/less] intense
Hypomanic episodes do not impair ____ or feature ____
Hypomanic episodes do not require ____
Hypomanic episodes last for ≥ ____ consecutive days

Hypomanic episodes are less intense
Hypomanic episodes do not impair function or feature psychosis
Hypomanic episodes do not require hospitalization
Hypomanic episodes last for ≥ 4 consecutive days

127.

What treatment options are first line for major depressive disorder?

_____ _____ _____
_____

Cognitive behavioral therapy
SSRIs

128.

What are the features of major depressive disorder?

_____ disturbance
Decreased interest in _____ activities
_____
[Increased/Decreased] energy
[Increased/Decreased] concentration
_____ /_____ changes
_____ agitation
_____ ideation

Sleep disturbance
Decreased interest in pleasurable activities
Guilt
Decreased energy
Decreased concentration
Appetite/weight changes
Psychomotor agitation
Suicidal ideation

129.

For major depressive episode: Symptoms must have been present for most days for a period of ____ ____ or longer

2 weeks

130.

Which disorder is often milder than major depressive disorder with at least 2 depressive symptoms lasting at least 2 years and with remission of 2 months or less?

_____ _____ disorder AKA _____

Persistent depressive disorder AKA dysthymia

131.

In which depressive disorder do episodes occur only during a particular season in 2 or more consecutive years?

_____ _____ disorder with _____ _____

Major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern

132.

What are the treatment options for major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern?

______ ______ therapy
______
______ therapy

Cognitive behavior therapy
SSRIs
Light therapy

133.

Psychotic features occur only ______ the major depressive episode in a patient with major depressive disorder with psychotic features

A patient with schizoaffective disorder will have psychotic symptoms [dependent/independent] of a depressive episode

Psychotic features occur only during the major depressive episode in a patient with major depressive disorder with psychotic features

A patient with schizoaffective disorder will have psychotic symptoms independent of a depressive episode

134.

What is the treatment for major depressive disorder with psychotic features?

A(n) ______ combined with a(n) ______ ______ or ______ therapy

A(n) antidepressant combined with a(n) atypical antipsychotic or electroconvulsive therapy

135.

Define major depressive disorder with psychotic features.

Major depressive disorder accompanied by _____ or _____

Major depressive disorder accompanied by delusions or hallucinations

136.

In major depressive disorder with psychotic features, hallucinations and delusions typically have what overlying theme?

They are typically mood ______ with depressed mood

They are typically mood congruent with depressed mood

137.

Which disorder is intentional and the patient's complaints stop after something is gained?

Malingering

138.

Which disorder occurs when a patient consciously fakes, exaggerates, or reports a disorder with goal of attaining a secondary gain?

Malingering

139.

How does malingering affect a patient's compliance with treatment and follow-up?

Compliance with treatment or follow-up is often _____

Compliance with treatment or follow-up is often poor

140.

What are the seven symptoms of a manic episode?

_____
_____/_____
_____
Flight of _____
[Increased/Decreased] activity/agitation
[Increased/Decreased] sleep needs
_____

Distractibility
Impulsivity/indiscretion
Grandiosity
Flight of ideas
Increased activity/agitation
Decreased sleep needs
Talkativeness

141.

For diagnosis of a manic episode, how many manic symptoms must be present and for how long?

At least ___ symptoms for at least ___ ___

At least 3 symptoms for at least 1 week

142.

Define mood disorders: disorders in which an abnormal range of internal emotions/moods and loss of ____ over them cause distress and impairment in ____ function

Disorders in which an abnormal range of internal emotions/moods and loss of control over them cause distress and impairment in daily function

143.

Give four examples of disorders that are classified as mood disorders.

____ ____ disorder
____ disorder
____ disorder
____ disorder

Major depressive disorder
Bipolar disorder
Dysthymic disorder
Cyclothymic disorder

144.

Can a patient with a mood disorder experience symptoms of psychosis, such as hallucinations or delusions?

Yes

145.

List the order in which a person loses his or her components of orientation.

First → ______
Second → ______
Third → ______

First → Time
Second → Place
Third → Person

146.

What is orientation in the context of the psychiatric exam?

An individual’s ability to know ____ he/she is, ____ he/she is, and the ____ and ____

An individual’s ability to know who he/she is, where he/she is, and the date and time

147.

What are the common causes of loss of orientation?

____ injury
Fluid/electrolyte ____
____
____
Hypo_____
Hypo_____
_____
_____ deficiencies

Head injury
Fluid/electrolyte imbalance
Drugs
Alcohol
Hypoglycemia
Hypoxia
Infection
Nutritional deficiencies

148.

What are the criteria for a diagnosis of panic disorder?

____ ____ followed by history of ≥ ____ month of ____ or more of the following criteria:

____ of new attacks
____ about consequences of attacks
Changed ____ due to attacks

Panic attack followed by history of ≥ 1 month of 1 or more of the following criteria:

Fear of new attacks
Worry about consequences of attacks
Changed behavior due to attacks

149.

What is the treatment for panic disorder?

_____ _____ therapy
_____
_____

Cognitive behavioral therapy
SSRIs
Venlafaxine

150.

For panic disorder, what drug class may be used for acute episodes?

Benzodiazepines may be used for acute episodes.

151.

Is panic disorder genetic?

Yes

152.

What disorder causes recurrent episodes of intense fear, nausea, paresthesias, and depersonalization for short periods?

Panic Disorder

153.

How does panic disorder affect the risk for suicide?

Increases sucide risk

154.

What are risk factors for postpartum psychosis?

_____ disorder
_____ disorder
[First/Second] pregnancy
_____ history
Recent discontinuation of _____ medication

Bipolar disorder
Psychotic disorder
First pregnancy
Family history
Recent discontinuation of psychotropic medication

155.

Which of the peripartum mood disturbances is the only one that does not usually warrant pharmacologic therapy?

_____ _____

Postpartum blues

156.

What postpartum mental disorder could cause a woman to have delusions and threaten to kill herself and the baby?

_____ _____

Postpartum psychosis

157.

What is the treatment for major depressive disorder with peripartum onset?

____
____ ____ therapy

SSRIs
Cognitive behavioral therapy

158.

When will the symptoms of postpartum blues likely resolve?

Within ____ ____

Within 2 weeks

159.

What are three peripartum mood disturbances that new mothers may experience in order from highest to lowest incidence rate?

____ ____ (50% to 85%)
____ ____ disorder with ____ ____ (10% to 15%)
____ ____ (0.1% to 0.2%)

Postpartum blues (50% to 85%)
Major depressive disorder with peripartum onset (10% to 15%)
Postpartum psychosis (0.1% to 0.2%)

160.

What is the treatment for postpartum psychosis?

Admission to inpatient _____ unit

Administration of _____ _____ or _____ therapy if drug therapy is ineffective

Admission to inpatient psychiatric unit

Administration of atypical antipsychotics or electroconvulsive therapy if drug therapy is ineffective

161.

What is the definition of personality disorder?

[Flexible/Inflexible] and ______ pattern of behavior that is pervasive in their life → Distress and/or impaired function

Inflexible and maladaptive pattern of behavior that is pervasive in their life → Distress and/or impaired function

162.

What is the definition of personality trait?

A personality trait is an enduring pattern in which a person processes and relates to his/her _____ and his/her _____ in it

A personality trait is an enduring pattern in which a person processes and relates to his/her environment and his/her role in it

163.

In what age group do personality disorders usually present?

Before or during early ______

Before or during early adulthood

164.

What are the three clusters of personality disorders?

Cluster A → "____"
Cluster B → "____"
Cluster C → "____"

Cluster A → "Weird"
Cluster B → "Wild"
Cluster C → "Worried"

165.

What are the three cluster A personality disorders?

____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder

Paranoid personality disorder
Schizoid personality disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder

166.

Cluster A personality disorders have a genetic association with which other psychiatric disorder?

_______

Schizophrenia

167.

What common characteristics could be observed in an individual with paranoid personality disorder?

Pervasive _____
[Hypervigilance/Hypovigilance]
_____
Very _____ view of the world

Pervasive distrust
Hypervigilance
Suspiciousness
Very cynical view of the world

168.

What are four common characteristics of schizotypal personality disorder?

_____ beliefs
Interpersonal _____
_____ thinking
_____ appearance

Odd beliefs
Interpersonal awkwardness
Magical thinking
Eccentric appearance

169.

What three characteristics are common with schizoid personality disorder?

Limited _____ expression
Indifferent to the _____ of others
Prefers _____ activities

Limited emotional expression
Indifferent to the opinion of others
Prefers solitary activities

170.

What are the four cluster B personality disorders?

____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder

Antisocial personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder
Histrionic personality disorder
Narcissistic personality disorder

171.

What three characteristics do cluster B personality disorders share?

D_____ behavior
E_____ behavior
E_____ behavior

Dramatic behavior
Emotional behavior
Erratic behavior

172.

Cluster B personality disorders are genetically associated with what two other disorders?

____ abuse
____ disorders

Substance abuse
Mood disorders

173.

What personality disorder could cause a person who has fragile self-esteem to demonstrate entitlement, grandiosity, and defensiveness and lack empathy?

______ personality disorder

Narcissistic personality disorder

174.

What personality disorder could cause a person to engage in impulsive and self-mutilating behavior, express emotional emptiness, and have unstable moods and relationships?

______ personality disorder

Borderline personality disorder

175.

What is the treatment for borderline personality disorder?

_____ _____ therapy

Dialectical behavioral

176.

What is a major defense mechanism for a patient with borderline personality disorder?

Splitting

177.

What personality disorder could cause a person to be shallow and sexually provocative, seek attention, and use dramatic speech and emotional expression?

______ personality disorder

Histrionic personality disorder

178.

What personality disorder could cause individuals to be hostile, impulsive, manipulative, and unremorseful when they disregard the rights of others?

______ personality disorder

Antisocial personality disorder

179.

Is antisocial personality disorder more common in males or females?

Males

180.

What are the three cluster C personality disorders?

____ personality disorder
____-____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder

Avoidant personality disorder
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Dependent personality disorder

181.

What category of disorders is cluster C personality disorders associated with?

_____ disorders

Anxiety disorders

182.

What personality disorder could cause an individual to have low self-confidence, often remain in abusive relationships, and constantly seek support from others?

_____ personality disorder

Dependent personality disorder

183.

What personality disorder could cause a person to be preoccupied with perfectionism, order, and control and experience pleasure in doing so?

_____-_____ personality disorder

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

184.

What personality disorder could cause a person to be hypersensitive to rejection, timid, and socially inhibited and express feelings of inadequacy yet desire relationships?

[...] personality disorder

Avoidant personality disorder

185.

What are the three hallmarks of serotonin syndrome?

[Increased/Decreased] activity
____ instability
Altered ____ status

Increased activity
Autonomic instability
Altered mental status

186.

Which medication can be used in the treatment of serotonin syndrome, and what is its mechanism?

_____ , which is a _____ receptor antagonist

Cyproheptadine, which is a 5-HT2 receptor antagonist

187.

What condition can develop in a patient on a MAOI who consumes tyramine-rich foods?

______ ______

Hypertensive crisis

188.

What is the treatment for a patient prescribed MAOIs undergoing a hypertensive crisis?

______

Phentolamine

189.

How does eating tyramine-rich foods while taking MAOIs result in hypertensive crisis?

Tyramine displaces ______ in the synaptic cleft → Increased ______ → Stimulation of the ______ nervous system

Tyramine displaces norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft → Increased norepinephrine → Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

190.

What are six manifestations of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

M________
F________
E________
________ unstable
[Increased/Decreased] enzyme levels
Muscle ________

Myoglobinuria
Fever
Encephalopathy
Vitals unstable
Increased enzyme levels
Muscle rigidity

191.

What class of drugs should not be prescribed for a patient with a known family history of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

Antipsychotics

192.

What drugs can be used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
_____
_____
_____ agonists

Dantrolene
Benzodiazepines
Dopamine agonists

193.

In a patient experiencing alcohol withdrawal, when does delirium tremens typically arise?

____ to ____ days after the last drink

2 to 4 days after the last drink

194.

What is the treatment for a patient undergoing alcohol withdrawal with seizures?

Longer-acting _______

Longer-acting benzodiazepines

195.

What is the likely cause of laryngospasm requiring intubation in a patient who has started taking an antipsychotic medication?

Acute _____

Acute dystonia

196.

What three symptoms may be present in a patient with acute dystonia?

Muscle _____
Muscle _____
_____ crisis

Muscle spasms
Muscle stiffness
Oculogyric crisis

197.

acute dystonia symptoms can begin hours to days after use of a _____ _____.

typical antipsychotic

198.

An oculogyric crisis is an acute, involuntary neurological condition characterized by a sustained, ______ deviation of the eyeballs.

upward

199.

What is the treatment for lithium toxicity?

______ of lithium

Hydrating aggressively with ______ ______ solution

______ can be considered

Discontinuation of lithium

Hydrating aggressively with isotonic saline solution

Hemodialysis can be considered

200.

What is the treatment for a TCA overdose?

_____ treatment

Activated _____

_____

_____ monitoring

Supportive treatment

Activated charcoal

Bicarbonate

ECG monitoring