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Exam 5 Microbio Comprehensive

1.

Who is considered the "father of Western medicine"?

Hippocrates

2.

Who was the first to observe "animalcules" under the microscope?

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

3.

Which of the following is a prokaryotic microorganism?

Cyanobacterium

4.

Not a subfield of microbiology?

Botany

5.

You place a specimen under the microscope and notice that parts of the specimen begin to emit light immediately.

Fluorescent

6.

Microscope for small surface structures of a cell

SEM

7.

Mordant used in gram staining?

Iodine

8.

Microscope that shines a cone of light so that light only hits the specimen indirectly, producing a light image on a dark background

Darkfield

9.

Prokaryotic cell that is COMMA shaped?

Vibrio

10.

Bacterial cell walls are primarily composed of which of the following?

Peptidoglycan

11.

Which of the following organelles is not part of the endomembrane system?

Peroxisome

12.

Uptake of small dissolved molecules into vesicles:

Pinocytosis

13.

The term microbiota refers to which of the following?

Microorganisms in a region of body

14.

type of interaction between two prokaryotic populations in which one population benefits and the other is not affected?

commensalism

15.

Which of the following is the organelle that spirochetes use to propel themselves?

axial filament

16.

photosynthesis performed by bacteria with the use of water as the donor of electrons?

oxygenic

17.

Archaea and Bacteria are most similar in terms of their _

unicellular structure

18.

Molecules bearing both polar and nonpolar groups are said to be which of the following?

amphipathic

19.

Proteomic analysis is a methodology that deals with which of the following?

all proteins of an organism

20.

organism that obtains its energy from the transfer of electrons originating from chemical compounds and its carbon from an inorganic source?

Chemoautotroph

21.

are organic molecules that help enzymes work correctly?

coenzymes

22.

Which is the location of electron transport systems in prokaryotes?

Cytoplasmic membrane

23.

is not an electron carrier within an electron transport system?

ATP synthase

24.

Which of the following is the purpose of fermentation?

regenerate NAD+

25.

Is not produced during breakdown on phospholipids?

glucose

26.

Which is NOT part of nitrogen → nitrogen gas conversion?

nitrogen fixation

27.

Glycolysis requires oxygen or another inorganic final electron acceptor to proceed.

False

28.

What is the function of the Z ring in binary fission?

contractile ring at septum

29.

If a culture starts with 50 cells, how many cells will be present after five generations with no cell death?

1600

30.

Quorum sensing is used by bacterial cells to determine which of the following?

Population density

31.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common pathogen that infects the airways of patients with cystic fibrosis. It does not grow in the absence of oxygen.

Obligate aerobe

32.

A soup container was forgotten in the refrigerator and shows contamination. The contaminants are probably which of the following?

psychrotrophs

33.

Which of the following is the reason jams and dried meats often do not require refrigeration to prevent spoilage?

low water activity

34.

Which of the following environments would harbor psychrophiles?

Mountain lake 12 deg cel

35.

EMB agar is an example of which of the following?

Selective + differential + complex

36.

not found with DNA?

Amino acids

37.

Which of the following statements about base pairing in DNA is incorrect?

Adenine binds guanine

38.

Which of the following is not involved in the initiation of replication?

Ligase

39.

Which of the following components is involved in the initiation of transcription?

promoter

40.

Which component is the last to join the initiation complex during the initiation of translation?

Large subunit

41.

When the ribosome reaches a nonsense codon, which of the following occurs?

polypeptide released

42.

Which of the following refers to the uptake of naked DNA from the surrounding environment?

transformation

43.

Which of the following refers to the mechanism of horizontal gene transfer naturally responsible for the spread of antibiotic resistance genes within a bacterial population?

conjugation

44.

All of the following are processes used to introduce DNA molecules into bacterial cells except:

transcription

45.

The enzyme that uses RNA as a template to produce a DNA copy is called:

reverse transcriptase

46.

Which biosafety level is appropriate for research with microbes or infectious agents that pose moderate risk to laboratory workers and the community, and are typically indigenous?

BSL- 2

47.

Which of the following is suitable for use on tissues for microbial control to prevent infection?

Antiseptic

48.

Which of the following microbial control methods does not actually kill microbes or inhibit their growth but instead removes them physically from samples?

Filtration

49.

Bleach is an example of which group of chemicals used for disinfection?

Halogens

50.

The effectiveness of chemical disinfectants has historically been compared to that of which of the following?

Phenol

51.

Which type of test is used to determine whether disinfectant solutions actively used in a clinical setting are being used correctly?

In-use test

52.

Which of the following refers to a germicide that can kill vegetative cells and certain enveloped viruses but not endospores?

low-level

53.

Which of the following routes of administration would be appropriate and convenient for home administration of an antimicrobial to treat a systemic infection?

oral

54.

Which of the following combinations would most likely contribute to the development of a superinfection?

Long-term use of broad-spectrum antimicrobials

55.

Which of the following terms refers to the ability of an antimicrobial drug to harm the target microbe without harming the host?

selective toxicity

56.

Which of the following does not bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit?

tetracyclines

57.

Which of the following would be a sign of an infection?

fever

58.

During an oral surgery, the surgeon nicked the patient's gum with a sharp instrument and bacterial endocarditis developed. Which type of disease is this?

iatrogenic

59.

A communicable disease that can be easily transmitted from person to person is which type of disease?

contagious

60.

Which of the following is a pathogen that could not be identified by the original Koch's postulates?

Human immunodeficiency virus

61.

Which of the following would be a virulence factor of a pathogen?

A surface protein allowing binding to host cells

62.

Which of the following lists the steps of pathogenesis in correct order?

Exposure, adhesion, invasion, infection

63.

A new toxin is gram-negative, protein, highly toxic, heat labile, and targets liver cells. What is its classification?

exotoxin

64.

Major virulence factor for Cryptococcus:

capsule

65.

Which pathogen undergoes antigenic variation?

plasmodium

66.

Transmission of disease via mosquito bite is which type?

Biological vector transmission

67.

Contaminated well from cattle pasture is which type of transmission?

Vehicle transmission

68.

Which is NOT an emerging disease?

tuberculosis

69.

Why focus on emerging diseases with few cases?

they are increasing therefore not controlled

70.

Bacteriocins and defensins are:

Antimicrobial peptides

71.

Chemical mediator secreted onto skin surface:

sebum

72.

Complement pathway triggered by acute-phase protein binding:

lectin

73.

White blood cells are:

Leukocytes

74.

White blood cells are also referred to as:

Leukocytes

75.

Granulocytes are which type of cell?

Leukocyte

76.

PAMPs are found on:

Pathogen

77.

Swelling due to inflammation:

edema

78.

Inflammation at site of injury or infection:

acute

79.

The innate nonspecific immune system is:

Generalized defenses against groups of pathogens

80.

Cellular adaptive immunity is carried out by:

T cells

81.

Most antigenic molecules are:

proteins

82.

A superantigen:

Activates T cells nonspecifically and uncontrollably

83.

Cytotoxic T cells bind:

Antigens presented with MHC I molecules

84.

Rabies antibody injection after bite is:

Artificial passive immunity

85.

Cold infection and recovery with immunity after is:

Natural active immunity

86.

Type I hypersensitivity cells include

Mast cell

87.

An immune complex is:

Antibody and antigen molecules

88.

Which cells are primarily responsible for adaptive immunity?

lymphocytes

89.

Which type of lymphocyte produces antibodies?

B cells

90.

Cell-mediated immunity is mainly carried out by:

T cells

91.

Main feature of adaptive immunity is:

Specificity and memory

92.

Antibodies are produced after B cells become:

Plasma cells

93.

Helper T cells function by:

Activating other immune cells

94.

Activating other immune cells

Infected host cells

95.

Memory cells are important because they:

Provide faster response upon re-exposure

96.

Vaccination works mainly by stimulating:

Adaptive immune memory

97.

Adaptive immunity is best described as:

slow first, stronger later

98.

The wheel under the stage that adjusts the amount of light is called the:

Diaphragm

99.

Prokaryotes usually have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotes usually have multiple origins of replication

True

100.

good

luck!!