Extremities Flashcards


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1

Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

A Invert the foot.

B Evert the foot.

C Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.

D Angle the CR 10 degrees anteriorly.

Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.

2

To better demonstrate the interphalangeal joints of the toes, which of the following procedures may be employed?

  1. Angle the CR 15 degrees caudad.
  2. Angle the CR 15 degrees cephalad.
  3. Place a sponge wedge under the foot with the toes elevated 15 degree

2 and 3 only

3
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The scapula shown in Figure 2–29 demonstrates

  1. its posterior aspect
  2. its costal surface
  3. its sternal articular surface

1 only

4

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint?

A Medial oblique 15° to 20°

B Lateral oblique 15° to 20°

C Medial oblique 45°

D Lateral oblique 45°

Medial oblique 45°

5

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the

  1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.
  2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed.
  3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs.

1 only

6

The medical term for congenital clubfoot is

A coxa plana. B osteochondritis. C talipes. D muscular dystrophy

talipes.

7
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Which of the labeled bones in Figure A identifies the tarsal navicular?

Number 6

8
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What is the structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2–37?

A Trapezium B Scaphoid C Ulnar styloid D Radial styloid

Radial styloid

9

Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition?

A AP B Lateral C Medial oblique D Lateral oblique

Lateral oblique

10

Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?

A Distal interphalangeal joints B Proximal interphalangeal joints C Metacarpals D Radial styloid

Radial styloid process

11
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Identify the structure labeled 1 in the AP projection of the knee shown in Figure 2–16.

A Lateral condyle B Lateral epicondyle C Medial condyle D Medial epicondyle

Medial epicondyle

12

Impingement on the wrist's median nerve causing pain and disability of the affected hand and wrist is known as

A carpal boss syndrome B carpal tunnel syndrome C carpopedal syndrome D radioulnar syndrome

carpal tunnel syndrome

13

Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau?

  1. Intercondyloid fossa
  2. Tibial condyles
  3. Tibial tuberosity

2 and 3 only

14

In the lateral projection of the foot, the

  1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR.
  2. metatarsals are superimposed.
  3. talofibular joint should be visualized.

1 and 2 only

15
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The structure labeled number 4 in Figure 2–41 is the

coracoid process

16
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What is the name of the structure indicated as number 5 in Figure 7–7?

Olecranon fossa

17
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With the patient positioned as shown in Figure 6–13, how should the CR be directed to best demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?

A Perpendicular to the popliteal depression

B 40 degrees caudad to the popliteal depression

C Perpendicular to the long axis of the femur

D 40 degrees cephalad to the popliteal depression

40 degrees caudad to the popliteal depression

18

In the lateral projection of the ankle, the

  1. talotibial joint is visualized.
  2. talofibular joint is visualized.
  3. tibia and fibula are superimposed

1 and 3 only

19

Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by

  1. trauma or other pathology
  2. greater than 90-degree flexion
  3. less than 90-degree flexion

1 and 3 only

20
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Which of the labeled bones in Figure 6–14 identifies the tarsal navicular?

Number 6

21

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?

  1. Fractured lateral malleolus
  2. Fractured medial malleolus
  3. Fractured posterior tibia

1, 2, and 3

22

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint?

  1. Femur
  2. Tibia
  3. Patella

1 and 2 only

23

Adult orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories?

  1. Bell-Thompson scale
  2. Bucky tray
  3. Cannula

1 and 2 only

24

Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa?

A AP B Lateral C Medial oblique D Lateral oblique

Medial oblique

25

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint , which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

Coronoid process

26
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Which of the following correctly identifies the letter T in the radiograph shown in Figure 7–13?

Diarthrotic joint

27

Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?

  1. Knee
  2. Intervertebral joints
  3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

1 and 3 only

28
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In which of the following projections was the image in Figure 2–7 made?

medial oblique

29

All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except

A popliteal surface B intercondyloid fossa C intertrochanteric line D linea aspera

intertrochanteric line

30
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Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images shown in Figure 2–33?

  1. Image A is positioned in internal rotation.
  2. Image B is positioned in internal rotation.
  3. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A.

2 and 3 only

31

All the following can be associated with the elbow joint except

A the capitulum. B the trochlea. C the tubercles. D the epicondyles

the tubercles.

32
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What is the anatomic structure indicated by the number 7 in Figure 6–22?

note: number 6 - coronoid process

Radial notch of the ulna

33

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?

A. AP

B. 90 degrees mediolateral

C. 45-degree internal rotation

D. 45-degree external rotation

45-degree internal rotation

34

The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as

apposition

35
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The bone labeled number 3 in Figure 7–15 is the

A talus B cuboid C navicular D lateral cuneiform

cuboid

36

Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include
1. osteoarthritis.

2. osteomalacia.

3. rickets.

2 and 3 only

37

The term varus refers to

the term valgus refers to

turned inward

turned outward

38

The AP oblique projection (medial rotation) of the elbow demonstrates which of the following?
1. Radial head free of superimposition

2. Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa

3. Coronoid process free of superimposition

2 and 3 only

39

An AP oblique (lateral rotation) of the elbow demonstrates which of the following?

  1. Radial head free of superimposition
  2. Capitulum of the humerus
  3. Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa

1 and 2 only

40

In the 15° medial oblique projection of the ankle, demonstrates the entire
1. talofibular joint.

2. tibiotalar joint.

3. ankle mortise.

1, 2, and 3

41

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion,

A the AP projection requires two separate positions and exposures.

B the AP projection is made through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular to IR.

C the AP projection is made through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR parallel to the humerus.

D the AP projection is eliminated from the routine.

the AP projection requires two separate positions and exposures.

42
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In Figure 2–29, which of the following is represented by the number 3?

Acromion process

43
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What does the number 8 in Figure 6–14 identify?

Medial malleolus

44
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With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2–20, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?

A Patella B Patellofemoral articulation C Intercondyloid fossa D Tibial tuberosit

Intercondyloid fossa

45

The primary center of ossification in long bones is the

diaphysis

46

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

epiphysis

47
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Figure A was made in which of the following positions?

Lateral oblique

48
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Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the radiograph shown in the Figure below?

  1. The acromion process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib.
  2. This projection is performed to evaluate the scapula.
  3. This projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclavicular articulation.

2 only

49

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

A Avulsion fracture B Torus fracture C Comminuted fracture D Compound fracture

Avulsion fracture

50
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Which of the following statements regarding Figure 2–10 is (are) true?

  1. Correct degree of rotation is present.
  2. Midphalanges are foreshortened.
  3. Fingers are parallel to the IR

1 and 2 only

51

The carpal scaphoid can be demonstrated in which of the following projection(s) of the wrist?

  1. PA oblique
  2. PA with radial flexion
  3. PA with elbow elevated 20 degrees

1 only

52

Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

Internal rotation

53
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What projection was used to obtain the image seen in Figure 2–41?

AP, external rotation

54

Which of the following shoulder projections can be used to evaluate the lesser tubercle in profile?

Internal rotation position

55

Which of the following is most likely to be the correct routine for a radiographic examination of the forearm?

AP and lateral

56

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?

  1. Talotibial
  2. Talocalcaneal
  3. Talofibular

1 and 3 only

57

What is the most superior structure of the scapula?

A Apex

B Acromion process

C Coracoid process

D Superior angle

Acromion process

58

All of the following statements regarding the inferosuperior axial (nontrauma, Lawrence method) projection of the shoulder are true, except:

A the coracoid process and lesser tubercle are seen in profile.

B the arm is abducted about 90° from the body.

C the arm should be in internal rotation.

D the CR is directed medially 25° to 30° through the axilla.

the arm should be in internal rotation.

59

All the following can be associated with the distal ulna except

A head. B radioulnar joint. C styloid process. D trochlear notch.

trochlear notch.

60

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

A AP projection

B lateral projection

C medial oblique projection

D lateral oblique projection

AP projection

61

Cells concerned with the formation and repair of bone are

A osteoblasts. B osteoclasts. C osteomas. D osteons

osteoblasts.

62

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?

A Lateral oblique foot B Medial oblique foot C Lateral foot D Weight-bearing foot

Lateral oblique foot

63

Which of the following is (are) located on the proximal aspect of the humerus?

  1. Intertubercular groove
  2. Capitulum
  3. Coronoid fossa

1 only

64

Which of the following articulations participate in the formation of the elbow joint?

1. Between the humeral trochlea and the semilunar/trochlear notch

2. Between the capitulum and the radial head

3. The proximal radioulnar joint

1 2 and 3

65

The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is

distal

66
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The radiograph shown in Figure 7–12 can be produced with the

  1. long axis of the plantar surface perpendicular to the IR
  2. CR 40 degrees cephalad to the base of the third metatarsal
  3. CR 20 degrees cephalad to the talotibial joint

1 and 2 only

67

Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?

  1. AP humerus
  2. Lateral forearm
  3. Internal rotation shoulder

2 and 3 only

68
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To better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in Figure 2–31, the radiographer should

A flex the knee more acutely

B flex the knee less acutely

C angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees cephalad

D angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees caudad

angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees cephalad

69
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Which of the following indicates the scapular costal surface seen in the figure below?

K

70

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the

  1. atlantoaxial joint
  2. radioulnar joint
  3. temporomandibular joint

1 and 2 only

71

A modified axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the femoral neck is particularly useful
1. when the "cross-table" axiolateral is contraindicated.

2. for patients with bilateral hip fractures.

3. for patients with limited movement of the unaffected leg.

1, 2, and 3

72

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?

A AP

B Lateral oblique

C Medial oblique

D Lateral

Medial oblique

73

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid?

A Lateral wrist B Ulnar deviation C Radial deviation D Carpal tunnel

Ulnar deviation

74

All the following are posterior structures except

A the linea aspera. B the intertrochanteric line. C the popliteal surface. D the intercondyloid fossa.

the intertrochanteric line.

75
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Which of the following correctly identifies the head of the ulna in the illustration in Figure 6–22?

Number 9

76

For the AP projection of the scapula, the

  1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body.
  2. patient's elbow is flexed.
  3. exposure is made during quiet breathing.

1, 2, and 3

77

In the 45-degree medial oblique projection of the ankle, the

  1. talotibial joint is visualized
  2. tibiofibular joint is visualized
  3. plantar surface should be vertical

2 and 3 only

78

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?

A AP recumbent, affected shoulder

B AP recumbent, both shoulders

C AP erect, affected shoulder

D AP erect, both shoulders

AP erect, both shoulders

79

For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

SN: 19 cm (thin pelvis), the CR should be directed 3 to 5 degrees caudad; when the distance is between 19 to 24 cm, the CR is directed vertically/perpendicular (0 degrees); when the distance is greater than 24 cm (thick pelvis), the CR is directed 3 to 5 degrees cephalad.

0 degrees (perpendicular)

80

Which of the following articulates with the base of the fifth metatarsal?

A First cuneiform B Third cuneiform C Navicular D Cuboid

Cuboid

81

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?

A Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees

B Lateral oblique 15 to 20 degrees

C Medial oblique 45 degrees

D Lateral oblique 45 degrees

Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees

82

How can OID be reduced for a PA projection of the wrist?

A Extend the fingers.

B Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints.

C Extend the forearm.

D Oblique the metacarpals 45 degrees

Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints.

83

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?

A Ewing sarcoma

B Osgood–Schlatter disease

C Gout D

Exostosis

Osgood–Schlatter disease

84

In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5° cephalad to prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space?

Medial femoral condyle

85

Which of the following is (are) valid criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?
1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally.

2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed.

3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.

2 and 3 only

86

The instrument that is used frequently in quality-control programs to measure varying degrees of x-ray exposure is the

A aluminum step wedge. B spinning top. C densitometer. D sensitometer

densitometer.

87

Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?

  1. The heads of the first row of phalanges
  2. The cuboid
  3. The cuneiforms

2 and 3 only

88

Which of the following is (are) valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?

  1. The radius and the ulna should be superimposed distally.
  2. The coronoid process and the radial head should be partially superimposed.
  3. The humeral epicondyles should be superimposed.

1, 2, and 3

89

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?

  1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
  2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
  3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

1 and 2 only

90

The greater tubercle should be visualized in profile in which of the following?

A AP shoulder, external rotation

B AP shoulder, internal rotation

C AP elbow

D Lateral elbow

AP shoulder, external rotation

91
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Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure A is (are) true?

1. The tibial eminences are well visualized.

2. The intercondyloid fossa is demonstrated between the femoral condyles.

3. The femorotibial articulation is well demonstrated.

1 and 3 only

92

Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?

A Synarthrodial B Diarthrodial C Amphiarthrodial D Cartilaginous

Diarthrodial

93

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the

  1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia.
  2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized.
  3. femoral condyles should be superimposed.

1, 2, and 3

94
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Which of the following correctly identifies the letter L in the radiograph shown in Figure 7–13?

Lunate

95

Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?

AP and scapular Y

96
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What is the structure labeled number 2 in Figure 2–37?

Trapezium

97

Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?

  1. The procedure is performed in the erect position.
  2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.
  3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.

1 and 2 only

98

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees

A toward the affected side

B away from the affected side

C with the arm at the side in the anatomic position

D with the arm in external rotation

toward the affected side

99
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The mediolateral projection of the knee shown in Figure 6–1 could best be improved by

angling the CR about 5 degrees cephalad

100

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?

  1. Scapular Y projection
  2. Inferosuperior axial
  3. Transthoracic lateral

1, 2, and 3

101

In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis?

  1. Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant)
  2. Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast)
  3. Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)

1 only

102

Synovial fluid is associated with the

A brain. B spinal canal. C peritoneal cavity. D bony articulations

bony articulations.

103

Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?

A Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.

B Use a support sponge for the phalanges.

C Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR.

D Use ulnar flexion.

Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.

104
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What could be done to improve the mediolateral projection of the knee seen in Figure 2–3?

A Rotate the pelvis slightly forward/anteriorly.

B Rotate the pelvis slightly backward/posteriorly.

C Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees cephalad.

D Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees caudad.

Rotate the pelvis slightly backward/posteriorly.

105

The lesser tubercle of the humerus will be visualized in profile in the

AP shoulder internal rotation radiograph.

106

Ulnar deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?

  1. Medial carpals
  2. Lateral carpals
  3. Scaphoid

2 and 3 only

107

A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head and associated with an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is called a(an)

A Hill-Sachs defect.

B Bankart lesion.

C rotator cuff tear.

D adhesive capsulitis.

Hill-Sachs defect.

108

Which of the following articulates with the base of the first metatarsal?

A First cuneiform B Third cuneiform C Navicular D Cuboid

First cuneiform

109
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The structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2–41 is the

glenohumeral joint

110

In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated?

Medial oblique foot

111

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?

Tangential metatarsals/toes

112

The first carpometacarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the base of the first metacarpal and the

trapezium.

113

Which of the following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation?
1. AP humerus

2. AP thumb

3. Lateral humerus

2 and 3 only

114

With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

A Fifth metacarpal B First metacarpal C Distal radius D Distal ulna

First metacarpal

115

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?

A AP oblique, medial rotation

B AP oblique, lateral rotation

C Mediolateral

D Lateral weight-bearing

AP oblique, medial rotation

116
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What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in Figure 2–22?

A Use a perpendicular CR.

B Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad.

C Angle the CR about 30 degrees caudad.

D Angle the MSP 15 degrees toward the affected side.

Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad

117

The fifth metacarpal is located on which aspect of the hand?

Medial

118

Muscles that contribute to the formation of the rotator cuff include the

1. subscapularis.

2. infraspinatus.

3. teres minor.

1, 2, and 3

119

The tarsals and metatarsals are arranged to form the
1. transverse arch.

2. longitudinal arch.

3. oblique arch.

1 and 2 only

120
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Which of the following projections/positions would best demonstrate structure number 6 seen in Figure 7–7?

Lateral projection

121

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include

  1. only the joint closest to the injured site must be supported during movement.
  2. both joints must be included in long bone studies.
  3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required.

2 and 3 only

122

Which of the following projections require(s) that the shoulder be placed in external rotation?

  1. AP humerus
  2. Lateral forearm
  3. Lateral humerus

1 only

123

The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?

A Endocrine B Integumentary C Skeletal D Muscular

Skeletal

124
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The radiograph shown in Figure 2–15 demonstrates the articulation between the

  1. talus and the calcaneus
  2. calcaneus and the cuboid
  3. talus and the navicular

2 and 3 only

125

What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image receptor?

A Coracoid B Coronoid C Olecranon D Glenoid

Olecranon

126

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that

  1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR.
  2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally.
  3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.

2 and 3 only

127

Conditions in which there is a lack of normal bone calcification include

  1. rickets.
  2. osteomalacia.
  3. osteoarthritis.

1 and 2 only

128

Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?

A Tangential

B AP axial

C Transthoracic lateral

D PA oblique scapular

PA oblique scapular Y

129

Tangential axial projections of the patella can be obtained in which of the following positions?
1. supine flexion 45° (Merchant)

2. prone flexion 90° (Settegast)

3. prone flexion 55° (Hughston)

1, 2, and 3 only

130

What projection of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

A Axial plantodorsal projection

B Axial dorsoplantar projection

C Lateral projection

D Weight-bearing lateral projection

Axial plantodorsal projection

131

Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?

A AP recumbent

B Lateral recumbent

C AP erect

D Medial oblique

AP erect

132

To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

A rest on the cassette for immobilization

B must be supported parallel to the IR

C are radiographed in natural flexion

D are radiographed in palmar flexion

must be supported parallel to the IR

133

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate

  1. a fracture
  2. a foreign body
  3. soft tissue

2 and 3 only

134

Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?

  1. Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa
  2. Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia
  3. Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint

1 and 2 only

135

Shoulder arthrography is performed to

  1. evaluate humeral luxation
  2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear
  3. evaluate the glenoid labrum

2 and 3 only

136

Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?

Lateral oblique

137

In the AP knee projection of an asthenic patient who measures less than 19 cm from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to tabletop, the CR should be directed

5 degrees caudad

138

Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an AP projection of the normal knee?

  1. Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally.
  2. Patella superimposed on distal tibia.
  3. CR enters ½ in. distal to base of patella.

1 only

139

Which of the following is most useful for bone age evaluation?

PA hand

140
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Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in Figure 2–7?

olecranon process

141

Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle?

  1. Clavicular body
  2. Acromioclavicular joint
  3. Sternocostal joint

1 and 2 only

142

A spontaneous fracture most likely would be associated with

A pathology. B crepitus. C trauma. D metabolism

pathology.

143
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With the patient and the x-ray tube positioned as illustrated in Figure 2–2, which of the following will be visualized?

  1. Intercondyloid fossa
  2. Patellofemoral articulation
  3. Tangential patella

2 and 3 only

144

All the following can be associated with the distal radius except

A head.

B styloid process.

C ulnar notch.

D radioulnar joint.

head

145

Which of the following is (are) located on the distal aspect of the humerus?
1. Capitulum

2. Intertubercular groove

3. Coronoid fossa

1 and 3 only

146

In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

A Dorsoplantar projection of the foot

B Plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus

C Medial oblique position of the foot

D Lateral foot

Plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus

147
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What is the structure indicated by the letter A in Figure 7–3?

acromion process

148

Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur?

  1. Patellar surface
  2. Intertrochanteric crest
  3. Linea aspera

1 only

149

Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, “Ball-Catcher's position,” is (are) correct?

  1. Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained.
  2. It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis.
  3. The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up.

1, 2, and 3

150

What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?

A Semilunar/trochlear notch B Radial head C Capitulum D Trochlea

Trochlea

151

The following procedure can be employed to better demonstrate the carpal scaphoid:
1. elevate hand and wrist 20°.

2. place wrist in ulnar deviation.

3. angle CR 20° distally (toward fingers).

1 and 2 only

152

Which of the following statements regarding knee x-ray arthrography is (are) true?

  1. Ligament tears can be demonstrated.
  2. Sterile technique is observed.
  3. MRI can follow x-ray.

1, 2, and 3

153

All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the

A femur. B tibia. C fibula. D mandible

fibula.

154

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees, with epicondyles perpendicular to IR. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best ?

  1. Radial head
  2. Capitulum
  3. Coronoid process

1 and 2 only

155

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
1. Scapular Y projection

2. Inferosuperior axial

3. Transthoracic lateral

1, 2, and 3

156

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

A AP knee B Lateral knee C Tangential patella D Tunnel view

Tangential patella

157

Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a
1. torn meniscus.

2. Baker's cyst.

3. torn rotator cuff.

1 and 2 only

158
card image

Which of the following correctly identifies the radial styloid process in the illustration in Figure A?

Number 11

159

In the AP projection of the ankle, the

  1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical.
  2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia.
  3. calcaneus is well visualized.

1 and 2 only

160

Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

A Mediolateral B Lateromedial C Lateral weight-bearing D 30-degree medial oblique

Lateral weight-bearing

161

Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile?
1. Epicondyles parallel to the IR

2. Arm in external rotation

3. Humerus in AP position

1, 2, and 3

162

Which of the following is used to obtain a lateral projection of the upper humerus on patients who are unable to abduct their arm?

A Bicipital groove projection B Superoinferior lateral C Inferosuperior axial D Transthoracic lateral

Transthoracic lateral

163

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

A Radial flexion/deviation B Ulnar flexion/deviation C AP (medial) oblique D AP (lateral) oblique

AP (medial) oblique

164

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

AP (medial) oblique

165

With which of the following does the lateral extremity of the clavicle articulate?

Acromion process

166

Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include

  1. epicondyles parallel to the IR
  2. lesser tubercle in profile
  3. superimposed epicondyles

2 and 3 only

167
card image

In Figure 2–29, which of the following is represented by the number 7?

A Medial border B Lateral border C Inferior angle D Superior angle

Lateral border

168

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

epiphysis.

169

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed

  1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula
  2. following inversion or eversion injuries
  3. to demonstrate a ligament tear

2 and 3 only

170

The best projection to demonstrate the articular surfaces of the femoropatellar articulation is the

tangential (“sunrise”) projection.

171

To demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, the patient is positioned

A 45 degrees oblique, affected side away from IR.

B 45 degrees oblique, affected side adjacent to IR.

C 25 degrees oblique, affected side away from IR.

D 25 degrees oblique, affected side adjacent to IR.

45 degrees oblique, affected side adjacent to IR.

172

Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

A AP projection. B lateral projection. C medial oblique projection. D lateral oblique projection

lateral projection.