Chapter 14 Flashcards


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Microbiology Study test
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1

1) A commensal bacterium

A) does not receive any benefit from its host.

B) is beneficial to its host.

C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen.

D) isnt capable of causing disease in its host.

E) always causes disease in its host.

C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen.

2

2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) Both members are harmed in a symbiotic relationship.

B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.

C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host.

D) Symbiosis always refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other.

E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.

E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.

3

3) A nosocomial infection is

A) always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization.

B) acquired during the course of hospitalization.

C) always caused by medical personnel.

D) only a result of surgery.

E) always caused by pathogenic bacteria.

B) acquired during the course of hospitalization.

4

4) The major significance of Robert Kochs work is that

A) microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.

B) diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another.

C) microorganisms can be cultured.

D) microorganisms cause disease.

E) microorganisms are the result of disease.

D) microorganisms cause disease.

5

5) Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Kochs postulates?

A) Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies.

B) Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions.

C) Some human diseases have no other known animal host.

D) Some diseases are not caused by microbes.

E) Some diseases are noncommunicable.

E) Some diseases are noncommunicable.

6

6) Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?

A) botulism

B) tuberculosis

C) measles

D) the common cold

E) diphtheria

A) botulism

7

7) Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission

A) occurs when a pathogen is carried on the feet of an insect.

B) involves fomites.

C) involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission.

D) requires direct contact.

E) works only with noncommunicable diseases.

C) involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission.

8

8) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?

A) endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population

B) epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world

C) pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time

D) sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally

E) incidence: number of new cases of a disease

B) epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world

9

9) Focal infections initially start out as

A) sepsis.

B) bacteremia.

C) local infections.

D) septicemia.

E) systemic infections.

C) local infections.

10

10) The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can be directly attributed to

A) increased use of antibiotics.

B) improved handwashing.

C) vaccinations.

D) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms.

E) None of the answers is correct.

C) vaccinations.

11

11) Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called?

A) bacteremia

B) focal infection

C) local infection

D) septicemia

E) systemic infection

D) septicemia

12

12) Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections?

A) antibiotic resistance

B) lapse in aseptic techniques

C) gram-negative cell walls

D) lack of handwashing

E) lack of insect control

C) gram-negative cell walls

13

13) Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota

A) cause diseases.

B) are found in a certain location on the host.

C) are always acquired by direct contact.

D) are present for a relatively short time.

E) never cause disease.

D) are present for a relatively short time.

14

14) Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE?

A) They occur in compromised patients.

B) They may be caused by opportunists.

C) They may be caused by drug-resistant bacteria.

D) They may be caused by normal microbiota.

E) The patient was infected before hospitalization.

E) The patient was infected before hospitalization.

Answer: E

15

15) One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in

A) body odor.

B) fewer diseases.

C) increased susceptibility to disease.

D) normal microbiota returning immediately.

E) no bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.

C) increased susceptibility to disease.

16

16) Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?

A) a sick person

B) a healthy person

C) a sick animal

D) a hospital

E) None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.

E) None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.

17

17) Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease?

A) malaria

B) AIDS

C) tuberculosis

D) tetanus

E) typhoid fever

D) tetanus

18

18) Which of the following is a fomite?

A) water

B) droplets from a sneeze

C) pus

D) insects

E) a hypodermic needle

E) a hypodermic needle

19

19) Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE?

A) The pathogen reproduces in the vector.

B) The pathogen may enter the host in the vectors feces.

C) Houseflies are an important vector.

D) The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector.

E) The pathogen may require the vector as a host.

C) Houseflies are an important vector.

20

20) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?

A) acute: a short-lasting primary infection

B) inapparent: infection characteristic of a carrier state

C) chronic: a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months

D) primary infection: an initial illness

E) secondary infection: a long-lasting illness

E) secondary infection: a long-lasting illness

21

21) Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms

A) are changes felt by the patient.

B) are changes observed by the physician.

C) are specific for a particular disease.

D) always occur as part of a syndrome.

E) None of the answers is correct.

A) are changes felt by the patient.

22

22) The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called

A) ecology.

B) epidemiology.

C) communicable disease.

D) morbidity and mortality.

E) public health.

B) epidemiology.

23
card image

Figure 14.1 shows the incidence of influenza during a typical year. Which letter on the graph indicates the endemic level?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

card image

D) d

24

24) Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT

A) antibiotic resistance.

B) climatic changes.

C) new strains of previously known agents.

D) ease of travel.

E) The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.

E) The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.

25

25) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) malaria vector

B) salmonellosis vehicle transmission

C) syphilis direct contact

D) influenza droplet infection

E) None of the pairs is mismatched.

E) None of the pairs is mismatched.

26

26) Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?

A) using syringes more than once

B) normal microbiota on the operating room staff

C) errors in aseptic technique

D) antibiotic resistance

E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct.

27
card image

In Figure 14.2, when is the prevalence the highest?

A) July

B) January

C) February

D) March

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

card image

C) February

28

28) A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of

A) direct contact.

B) droplet transmission.

C) fomite.

D) vector.

E) vehicle transmission.

E) vehicle transmission.

29

29) A researcher has performed a prospective study on a disease. To which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring?

A) analytical

B) case control

C) descriptive

D) experimental

E) prodromal

C) descriptive

30

30) The CDC is located in

A) Atlanta, GA.

B) Washington, DC.

C) New York City, NY.

D) Los Angeles, CA.

E) Chicago, IL.

A) Atlanta, GA.

31

31) A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as

A) subacute.

B) subclinical.

C) latent.

D) zoonotic.

E) acute.

C) latent.

32

32) A needlestick is an example of

A) direct contact.

B) droplet transmission.

C) indirect contact transmission by fomite.

D) direct biological transmission by vector.

E) vehicle transmission.

C) indirect contact transmission by fomite.

33

33) Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease?

A) lifestyle

B) genetic background

C) climate

D) occupation

E) All of these are predisposing factors of disease.

E) All of these are predisposing factors of disease.

34

34) In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor?

A) urinary tract infections

B) pneumonia

C) salmonellosis

D) tetanus

E) anthrax

A) urinary tract infections

35

35) In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?

A) prodromal

B) decline

C) convalescence

D) incubation

E) both incubation and convalescence

E) both incubation and convalescence

36

During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years.

36) Situation 14.1 is an example of

A) human reservoirs.

B) a zoonosis.

C) a nonliving reservoir.

D) a vector.

E) a focal infection.

B) a zoonosis.

37

37) The etiologic agent of the disease in Situation 14.1 is

A) sheep.

B) soil.

C) Coxiella burnetii.

D) pneumonia.

E) wind.

C) Coxiella burnetii.

38

38) The method of transmission of the disease in Situation 14.1 was

A) direct contact.

B) droplet.

C) indirect contact.

D) vector-borne.

E) vehicle.

E) vehicle.

39

39) Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism?

A) acid production by bacteria

B) bacteriocin production

C) bacteria occupying host receptors

D) bacteria causing disease

E) bacteria producing vitamin K

D) bacteria causing disease

40

40) The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of

A) symbiotic bacteria.

B) antagonistic bacteria.

C) parasitic bacteria.

D) commensal bacteria.

E) other fungi.

B) antagonistic bacteria.

41

41) If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease, it should occur prior to

A) incubation.

B) illness.

C) decline.

D) convalescence.

B) illness.

42

42) Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis?

A) cat-scratch disease

B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

C) rabies

D) tapeworm

E) All of these are zoonoses.

E) All of these are zoonoses.

43

43) Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a

A) communicable disease.

B) latent infection.

C) nosocomial infection.

D) sporadic disease.

C) nosocomial infection.

44
card image

44) Figure 14.3

The graph in Figure 14.3 shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955 indicates a(n)

A) endemic level.

B) epidemic level.

C) sporadic infection.

D) communicable disease.

E) pandemic.

card image

B) epidemic level.

45

45) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Antimicrobial therapy for hemodialysis-associated infections increases antibiotic resistance.

B) S. aureus is differentiated from other mannitol+ cocci by the coagulase test.

C) The M in MRSA stands for mannitol.

D) The USA100 strain accounts for most hospital-acquired MRSA.

E) The USA300 strain accounts for most community-acquired MRSA.

C) The M in MRSA stands for mannitol.

46

1) For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rates.

Answer: TRUE

47

2) Testing the effectiveness of a new drug for anthrax would be best performed as an experimental study.

Answer: TRUE

48

3) MMWR is a publication by the CDC that reports on only emerging diseases.

Answer: FALSE

49

4) A researcher only needs to select a cohort group when implementing an analytical epidemiological study.

Answer: FALSE

50

5) Diseases that are referred to as emerging infectious diseases have only been discovered in the past fifty years.

Answer: FALSE

51

6) Compromised hosts are always suffering from suppressed immune systems.

Answer: FALSE

52

7) A host is not considered diseased until an infection changes ones state of health.

Answer: TRUE

53

8) Reservoirs of infections are always animate objects.

Answer: FALSE

54

9) Urinary tract infections are the most common forms of nosocomial infections.

Answer: FALSE

55

10) Both normal and transient flora can become opportunistic pathogens.

Answer: TRUE

56

an abnormal state in which the body is not performing normal functions

Disease

57

analyzes relationships between microbial communities on the body and human health

Human Microbiome Project

58

one organism benefits at the expense of the other

parasitism

59

also known as blood poisoning; growth of bacteria in the blood

Septicima

60

spreads to a host by a nonliving object called a fomite

Indirect contact transmission:

61

the study of disease

pathology

62

the development of disease

pathogenesis

63

invasion or colonization of the body by pathogens

Infection

64

may be present for days, weeks, or months

transient microbiota

65

a competition between microbes

Microbial antagonism (competitive exclusion)

66

one organism benefits, and the other is unaffected

commensalism

67

both organisms benefit

mutualism

68

number of people who develop a disease during a particular time period

incedence

69

number of people who develop a disease at a specified time, regardless of when it first appeared
Takes into account both old and new cases

prevalence

70

worldwide epidemic

pandemic disease

71

symptoms develop slowly

chronic disease

72

toxins in the blood

Toxemia

73

interval between initial infection and first signs and symptoms

Incubation period:

74

disease is most severe

Period of illness:

75

signs and symptoms subside

Period of decline:

76

are diseases transmitted from animals to humans

animal reservoirs (zoonoses)

77

an individual whose resistance to infection is impaired by disease, therapy, or burns

Compromised host:

78

number of people affected in relation to the total population in a given time period

Morbidity rate:

79

number of deaths from a disease in relation to the population in a given time

Mortality rate:

80

diseases in which physicians are required to report occurrence

Notifiable infectious diseases:

81

Body returns to its predeceased state

period of convalescence

82

The science that deals with when disease occurs and how they are transmitted is called?

Epidimeology

83

A researcher has performed a prospective study on a disease to which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring

Descriptive

84

Pathogen reproduces in the vector; transmitted via bites or feces

biological transmission

85

Symptoms develop rapidly, but the disease lasts only a short time

acute disease

86

Permanently colonize the host and do not cause disease under normal conditions

Normal microbiota

87

A disease that is spread from one host to another

Communicable disease

88

Disease constantly present in a poulation

Endemic

89

Disease acquired by many people in a given area in a short time

Epidemic

90

Changes in the body that can be measured or observed as a result of disease

Signs

91

no noticeable signs or symptoms (inapparent infection)

Subclinical disease

92

Toxic inflammatory condition arising from the spread of microbes especially bacteria or their toxins, from a focus infection.

Sepsis

93

Viruses in the blood

Viremia

94

A specific group of signs and symptoms that accompany disease

Syndrome

95

Pathogens are limited to a small area of the body

Local infection

96

Number of people who develop disease during a particular time period

Incedence

97

Requires close association between the infected and susceptible host

Direct contact transmission

98

Opportunistic infection after a primary (predisposing) infection

Secondary infection

99

One organism benefits at the expense of the other

Parasatism

100

May have inapparent infection or latent disease

Carriers (human reservoirs)

101

The cause of disease

Etiology

102

Is the relationship between normal microbiota and the host

Symbiosis

103

Transmission by an inanimate reservoir; waterborne, food borne,airborn

Vehicle transmission

104

the study of disease

Pathology

105

Intermediate between acute and chronic

Subacute disease

106

Soil and water

Non living reservoirs

107

May be present for days weeks or months

Transient microbiota

108

Short period after incubation; early mild symptoms

Prodromal perdiod

109

An infection throughout the body

Systemic generalized

110

Invasion or colonization of the body by pathogens

infection

111

Arthropods carry pathogens on its feet

Mechanical transmission

112

Immunity in most of a population

herd immunity