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1

Which of the following statements about sperm is not true?

The sperm midpiece consists of mitochondria spiraled tightly around the contractile filaments of the tail.

2

The placenta, a vitally important metabolic organ, is made up of a contribution from mother and fetus. Which portion is from the fetus?

chorion

3

Which of the following female structures is homologous to the male scrotum?

labia majora

4

Erection of the penis results from ________.

a parasympathetic reflex

5

The duct system of the male reproductive system includes all but which of the following?

corpus spongiosum

6

Which male hormone inhibits the secretion of FSH?

inhibin

7

Which of the following phases or processes in the monthly reproductive cycle of the female occur simultaneously?

regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion

8

All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except ________.

FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium

9

A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would ________.

be unable to produce viable sperm

10

How do the testes respond to exposure to excessive body warmth?

They move away from the pelvic cavity.

11

Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females?

The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary system.

12

Hormones concerned with events of lactation include ________.

oxytocin

13

The genital tubercle forms into which part of the external genitalia in male and females?

Penis of the male; clitoris of the female

14

Which hormone is absolutely necessary for ovulation to occur?

LH

15

Select the correct statement about male sexual response.

Erection is the result of vascular spaces in the erectile tissues filling with blood.

16

Which hormone is not produced by the placenta?

inhibin

17

Normally menstruation occurs when ________.

blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease

18

Which of the following occurs as a result of undescended testes?

Inadequate or nonviable sperm will be produced.

19

The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the role they play?

They regulate the temperature of the testes.

20

Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle.

High estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release.

21

A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause ________.

decreased testosterone secretion

22

Select the correct statement about testosterone control.

GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.

23

Which hormone maintains the viability of the corpus luteum?

human chorionic gonadotropin

24

Which of the following will occur after ovulation?

The endometrium enters its secretory phase.

25

How long is the egg viable and capable of being fertilized after it is ovulated?

12-24 hours

26

At which stage of labor is the "afterbirth" expelled?

placental

27

Which of the following phases or processes in the monthly reproductive cycle of the female occur simultaneously?

regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion

28

The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________.

undescended testes

29

If gametes were diploid like somatic cells, how many chromosomes would the zygote contain?

twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur

30

During the expulsion stage of labor, which is NOT TRUE of a delivery in the breech position?

The skull dilates the cervix

31

The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to ________.

peristaltic contractions

32

The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________.

interstitial endocrine cells

33

Fertilization generally occurs in the ________.

fallopian tubes

34

Which of the following statements about spermatogenesis is not true?

Each spermatid forms two sperm.

35

The ability of a male to ejaculate is due to the action of ________.

the bulbospongiosus muscles

36

The formation of endodermal and ectodermal germ layers occurs at ________.

gastrulation

37

Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?

GnRH

38

A surge in _________ triggers the completion of meiosis II to produce one ovum and one polar body.

Calcium

39

It is impossible for sperm to be functional (able to fertilize the egg) until after ________.

they undergo capacitation

40

Shortly after implantation ________.

the trophoblast forms two distinct layers

41

The trophoblast is mostly responsible for forming the ________.

placental tissue

42

Which of the following is not assessed as part of the Apgar score?

temperature

43

During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle ________.

progesterone levels are at their highest

44

Which of the following statements about sperm is not true?

The sperm midpiece consists of mitochondria spiraled tightly around the contractile filaments of the tail.

45

Which is not a part of the proliferative phase of the female menstrual cycle?

corpus luteum

46

Which of the following is not a germ layer?

epiderm

47

The ability of a male to ejaculate is due to the action of ________.

the bulbospongiosus muscles

48

The testicular cells that construct the blood-testis barrier are the ________.

sustentocytes

49

Which of the following is true in reference to what may pass through the placental barriers?

nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, and alcohol

50

The "master switch" for male reproductive development is ________.

the SRY gene

51

The primary function of the uterus is to ________.

receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum

52

Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes?

The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.

53

Which of the following glands are responsible for 70% of the synthesis of semen?

the seminal vesicles

54

Select the correct statement about fertilization.

Millions of sperm cells are destroyed by the vagina's acidic environment.

55

What destroys the sperm receptors on the surface of the oocyte?

zonal inhibiting proteins

56

Which of the following statements about the female reproductive process is not true?

Rebuilding the endometrium is under the control of prolactin.

57

Prostate cancer is ________.

sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient

58

The correct sequence of preembryonic structures is ________.

zygote, morula, blastocyst

59

Spermatogenesis ________.

involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes

60

During which stage of labor is the fetus delivered?

expulsion stage

61

Which of the choices below is not a function of the vagina?

serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte

62

Secretion of progesterone stimulates ________.

preparation of the mammary glands for lactation

63

Which of the choices below is not a function of testosterone?

stimulates mammary gland development

64

The formation of endodermal and ectodermal germ layers occurs at ________.

gastrulation

65

The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the ________.

fallopian tubes

66

Effects of estrogen include ________.

growth of the breasts at puberty

67

Why is the blood-testis barrier important?

because spermatozoa and developing cells produce surface antigens that are recognized as foreign by the immune system

68

How long are sperm viable after ejaculation?

24-48 hours

69

Why doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation?

The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes.

70

Proteases and acrosin are enzymes. How do they function in reproduction?

They act to break down the protective barriers around the egg, allowing the sperm to penetrate.

71

Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle.

Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes?

72

Spermiogenesis involves the ________.

formation of a functional sperm by the stripping away of superfluous cytoplasm

73

Implantation of the blastocyst is the result of all of the following except ________.

phagocytosis by the trophoblast cells

74

Which of the choices below occurs if fertilization of the ovum occurs and implantation takes place?

The corpus luteum is maintained until the placenta takes over its hormone-producing functions.

75

What percentage of sperm contain a Y chromosome?

50%

76

Select the correct statement about cardiac output.

A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.

77

Norepinephrine acts on the heart by ________.

causing threshold to be reached more quickly

78

When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________.

O

79

Which of the following do not influence arterial pulse rate?

the vessel selected to palpate

80

Histologically, the ________ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer.

tunica intima

81

When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother?

if the father is Rh-

82

Aldosterone will ________.

promote an increase in blood pressure

83

The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.

pumps blood against a greater resistance

84

The slowest step in the clotting process is ________.

formation of prothrombin activator

85

A foramen ovale ________.

connects the two atria in the fetal heart

86

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

kidney

87

Brain blood flow autoregulation ________.

is abolished when abnormally high CO2 levels persist

88

If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________.

the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute

89

The arteries that are also called distributing arteries are the ________.

muscular arteries

90

If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, ________.

threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase

91

Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?

excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

92

Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?

170/96 in a 50-year-old man

93

Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure?

renal regulation

94

Platelets ________.

stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break

95

Isovolumetric contraction ________.

refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers

96

Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?

Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood.

97

The influence of blood vessel diameter on peripheral resistance is ________.

significant because resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius

98

Modified capillaries that are lined with phagocytes are called ________.

sinusoids

99

Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign?

rapidly falling blood pressure

100

Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation?

the dural sinus reflex

101

Damage to the ________ is referred to as heart block.

AV node

102

No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in ________.

monocytes

103

Which statement best describes arteries?

All carry blood away from the heart.

104

Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.

105

When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________.

noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls

106

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

kidney

107

Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure.

Excess red cell production would cause a blood pressure increase.

108

Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open?

Ventricles are in diastole.

109

To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the ________.

second intercostal space to the right of the sternum

110

During contraction of heart muscle cells ________.

some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores

111

The most common type of blood capillary is the ________.

continuous capillary

112

Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?

They are nucleated.

113

The slowest step in the clotting process is ________.

formation of prothrombin activator

114

The pulse pressure is ________.

systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure

115

The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is ________.

angina pectoris

116

Arteriolar blood pressure increases in response to all but which of the following?

falling blood volume

117

Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation?

lungs

118

Isovolumetric contraction ________.

refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers

119

The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is ________.

shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea

120

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

121

Which of the following is true about veins?

Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs.

122

The short-term controls of blood pressure, mediated by the nervous system and bloodborne chemicals, primarily operate via all but which of the following?

altering blood volume

123

In the dynamics of blood flow through capillaries, hydrostatic pressure ________.

is the same as capillary blood pressure

124

The plasma protein that is the major contributor to osmotic pressure is ________.

albumin

125

Which of the following is a protective function of blood?

prevention of blood loss

126

Platelets ________.

stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break

127

Which of the following statements regarding the hepatic portal system is false?

It branches off of the inferior vena cava.

128

The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

isovolumetric relaxation

129

Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?

fibrinolysis

130

Which of the choices below does not explain why low capillary pressures are desirable?

Low blood pressure is associated with longer life span than high blood pressure.

131

The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ________.

atrial depolarization

132

Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.

The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.

133

Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls?

hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

134

Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?

transport of salts to maintain blood volume

135

The arteries that are also called distributing arteries are the ________.

muscular arteries

136

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.

has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium

137

Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?

hemocytoblast

138

The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called ________.

arterioles

139

Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding ________.

rate of erythrocyte formation

140

The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?

changes in arterial pressure

141

Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ________.

capillaries

142

Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance?

blood vessel diameter

143

If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, ________.

threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase

144

Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood during right ventricular systole?

pulmonary trunk

145

A foramen ovale ________.

connects the two atria in the fetal heart

146

Select the correct statement about blood flow.

Blood flow through the entire vascular system is equivalent to cardiac output.

147

Norepinephrine acts on the heart by ________.

causing threshold to be reached more quickly

148

If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________.

decreased delivery of oxygen

149

Secondary hypertension can be caused by ________.

arteriosclerosis

150

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________.

pump blood with greater pressure

151

A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________.

pernicious anemia

152

Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?

170/96 in a 50-year-old man

153

Brain blood flow autoregulation ________.

is abolished when abnormally high CO2 levels persist

154

The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ________.

hemoglobin F

155

Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood pressure?

nitric acid

156

Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure?

renal regulation

157

Which of the following is a type of circulatory shock?

vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone

158

Which of the choices below does not involve tissue perfusion?

blood clotting

159

Thromboembolic disorders ________.

include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system

160

The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.

pumps blood against a greater resistance

161

Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?

when the ventricle is in systole

162

Select the correct statement about cardiac output.

A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.

163

Which of these vessels receives blood during ventricular systole?

both the aorta and pulmonary trunk

164

Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?

There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.

165

Which of the following is not a functional characteristic of WBCs?

granulosis

166

Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia?

sleeping in a well-ventilated room

167

The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________.

coronary arteries

168

Aldosterone will ________.

promote an increase in blood pressure

169

Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ________.

left atrium

170

Peripheral resistance ________.

increases as blood viscosity increases

171

Mechanisms that do not help regulate blood pressure include ________.

the dural sinus reflex

172

Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?

excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

173

Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.

The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.

174

The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called ________.

cardiac tamponade

175

During the period of ventricular filling ________.

blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valves into the ventricles

176

Blood volume restorers include all of the following except ________.

packed cells

177

Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation?

right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium

178

Histologically, the ________ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer.

tunica intima

179

Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ________.

a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

180

What is the average normal pH range of blood?

7.35-7.45

181

Blood is a ________.

suspension

182

James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16 g/100 ml blood. This is ________.

within the normal range

183

Which of the following would not result in the dilation of the feeder arterioles and opening of the precapillary sphincters in systemic capillary beds?

a local increase in pH

184

Factors that aid venous return include all except ________.

urinary output

185

Which of the following statements does not describe blood?

Blood carries body cells to injured areas for repair

186

Which of the following is not a structural characteristic that contributes to erythrocyte gas transport functions?

mitotically active

187

Which of the following is not one of the three main factors influencing blood pressure?

emotional state

188

All of the following conditions impair coagulation except ________.

vascular spasm

189

Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?

tunica media

190

When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother?

if the father is Rh-

191

Which of the following is true about blood plasma?

It is about 90% water.

192

If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ________.

tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action

193

An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________.

receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen

194

When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________.

O

195

Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?

closure of the heart valves

196

Which of the following is not true regarding fenestrated capillaries?

Fenestrated capillaries form the blood-brain barrier.

197

Blood flow to the skin ________.

increases when environmental temperature rises

198

All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except ________.

low blood viscosity

199

Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?

O

200

If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________.

the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute

201

Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels?

The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.

202

The velocity of blood flow is ________.

slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest

203

Which of the statements below does not describe antigens?

Antigens only come from microbes.

204

The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ________.

inspiratory reserve

205

In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned?

antigen

206

Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue.

Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue.

207

Select the correct statement about antigens.

One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

208

Immunocompetence ________.

is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it

209

In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is ________.

only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in blood

210

What is a bubo?

an infected lymph node

211

Which of the following is not a part of the lymphatic system?

erythrocytes

212

Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?

reactivity with an antibody

213

The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ________.

diapedesis

214

Fever ________.

production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting

215

Which of the following is not a stimulus for breathing?

rising blood pressure

216

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.

vasodilation

217

Which of the following is not a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorders?

direct cell lysis

218

Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?

replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

219

Interferons ________.

interfere with viral replication within cells

220

Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.

medulla and pons

221

Which of the following is not a type of T cell?

antigenic

222

Clonal selection of B cells ________.

results in the formation of plasma cells

223

How is the bulk of carbon dioxide carried in blood?

as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells

224

Which of the following is not a method that maintains lymph flow?

capillary smooth muscle contraction

225

Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of CO2?

blood pH adjustment

226

The main site of gas exchange is the ________.

alveoli

227

Which of the following is not a stimulus for breathing?

rising blood pressure

228

Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?

C-shaped cartilage rings

229

Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________.

opsonization

230

Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is not true?

It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

231

The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________.

Boyle's law

232

The loudness of a person's voice depends on the ________.

force with which air rushes across the vocal folds

233

Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?

red blood cells

234

Select the correct definition about tissue grafts.

Isografts are between identical twins.

235

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.

plasma cells

236

Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue?

A and C

237

Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.

B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.

238

The primary immune response ________.

has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

239

The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ________.

Dalton's law

240

What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?

protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses

241

Select the correct statement about lymph transport.

Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

242

With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a(n) ________.

decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

243

The major nonelastic source of resistance to air flow in the respiratory passageways is ________.

friction

244

Which of the following is not a form of lung cancer?

Kaposi's sarcoma

245

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________.

increase of carbon dioxide

246

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.

pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

247

Cytotoxic T cells ________.

are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells

248

Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?

the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid

249

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

250

The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.

alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes

251

Functions of the spleen include all of those below except ________.

forming crypts that trap bacteria

252

Which of the following cells is the most critical cell in immunity?

helper T cell

253

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

254

Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies?

composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains

255

Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________.

tonsil

256

Which of the following incorrectly describes mechanisms of CO2 transport?

attached to the heme part of hemoglobin

257

Helper T cells ________.

function in the adaptive immune system activation

258

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.

interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

259

B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ________.

producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

260

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

bone marrow

261

Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?

replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

262

Which of the choices below is not a role of the pleura?

aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs

263

For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ________.

0.5 to 1 micrometer thick

264

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

lymphocytes

265

T-cell activation requires ________.

antigen binding and co-stimulation

266

Which of the following does not contain a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?

thymus

267

Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

pancreas

268

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.

diffusion

269

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is to ________.

secrete surfactant

270

Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed ________.

lymph nodes

271

Which of the following is true of immediate hypersensitivities?

They involve IgE antibodies and the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils.

272

The thymus is most active during ________.

childhood

273

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

partial pressure gradient

274

The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not ________.

directly fight antigens

275

Which of the following is not a role of activated complement?

prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions

276

Possible causes of hypoxia include ________.

too little oxygen in the atmosphere

277

Activated T cells and macrophages release ________ to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area.

Cytokines

278

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

transporting respiratory gases

279

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is ________.

greater than the pressure in the atmosphere

280

The fluid link between the external and internal environment is ________.

plasma

281

The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.

osmosis

282

In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach ________.

initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins

283

Hypoproteinemia is a condition of unusually low levels of plasma proteins. This problem is often characterized by ________.

tissue edema

284

The term hypotonic hydration refers to ________.

a condition that may result from renal insufficiency or drinking extraordinary amounts of water

285

Chyme is created in the ________.

stomach

286

If an incision has to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, the first layer of tissue to be cut is the ________.

serosa

287

Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)?

the stretching of the bladder wall

288

A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates ________.

respiratory acidosis

289

Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?

eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat

290

Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by ________.

secondary active transport

291

The ________ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure.

liver

292

The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin ________.

by a decrease in the blood pressure

293

The macula densa cells respond to ________.

changes in solute content of the filtrate

294

The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ________.

lamina propria

295

Which of the choices below is not a method by which the cells of the renal tubules can raise blood pH?

by secreting sodium ions

296

The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ________.

glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)

297

The body's water volume is closely tied to the level of which of the following ions?

sodium ions

298

Gastrin, histamine, endorphins, serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin are hormones or paracrines that are released directly into the lamina propria. Which of the following cell types synthesize and secrete these products?

enteroendocrine cells

299

Which of the hormones below is responsible for facultative water reabsorption?

ADH

300

Total body water is not a function of which of the following?

amount of water ingested

301

Which of the following hormones is important in stimulating water conservation in the kidneys?

antidiuretic hormone

302

You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?

amylase

303

Peristaltic waves are ________.

waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

304

The urinary bladder is composed of ________ epithelium.

transitional

305

Which of the following hormones is important in the regulation of sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid?

aldosterone

306

The single most important factor influencing potassium ion secretion is ________.

potassium ion concentration in blood plasma

307

Which of the following is not a chemical buffer system?

nucleic acid

308

Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier?

production of intrinsic factor

309

The function of angiotensin II is to ________.

constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure

310

The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________.

digestion

311

There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs ________.

before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought

312

Which hormone causes an increased output of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile?

cholecystokinin

313

Respiratory acidosis can occur when ________.

a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction

314

The movement of fluids between cellular compartments ________.

is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces

315

The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ________.

nephron

316

The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ________.

stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position

317

The descending limb of the nephron loop ________.

contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla

318

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

319

Which of the following is not a phase of gastric secretion?

enterogastric

320

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________.

in the walls of the tract organs

321

The solutes contained in saliva include ________.

electrolytes, digestive enzyme, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA

322

The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it ________.

is drained by an efferent arteriole

323

Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.

Bile contains enzymes for digestion.

324

Which of the following is the least important influence on reabsorption of a substance in the nephron?

molecular complexity

325

The renal corpuscle is made up of ________.

Bowman's capsule and glomerulus

326

Whereas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid, most ________ is found in the intracellular fluid.

potassium

327

The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?

plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli

328

What hormone reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and sodium ion and water retention?

atrial natriuretic peptide

329

Which of the following is not associated with the renal corpuscle?

a vasa recta

330

The enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule is called ________.

hydrolysis

331

The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________.

mesenteries

332

The term alkaline reserve is used to describe the ________ buffer system.

bicarbonate

333

Most electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.

hormonally controlled in distal tubule segments

334

Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

B12

335

Which of the choices below exerts primary control over sodium levels in the body?

aldosterone

336

Select the correct statement about the ureters.

The ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract.

337

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________.

increase in the production of ADH

338

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach?

parietal cells

339

Hepatocytes do not ________.

produce digestive enzymes

340

Which of the following is not a method for regulating the hydrogen ion concentration in blood?

diet

341

The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________.

collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage

342

Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________.

chief cells of the stomach

343

The lamina propria is composed of ________.

loose connective tissue