Practice Exam 3 Flashcards


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1
card image

In the shoulder diagram to the right, the letter "X" is located next to which scapular border?
A. Lateral border
B. Superior border
C. Inferior border
D. Medial border

D. Medial border

-The scapula has three borders, superior, lateral (axillary), and medial (vertebral)

2
card image

The red arrow is pointing to which part of the femur?
A. Greater trochanter
B. Lesser trochanter
C. Lateral condyle
D. Medial condyle

D. Medial condyle

-Remember, the head of the femur is medial and fits into the acetabulum. Therefore, the red arrow is pointing toward
the medial condyle.

3

Which of the following could be considered a reservoir for infection?
1. Humans
2. Animals
3. Inanimate objects
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
A reservoir is a place where pathogens can survive and then be transmitted.

4

While imaging a patient with chest tube drainage, which of the following actions must be taken?
A. Clamp drainage tube
B. Keep drainage tube below chest
C. Raise drainage system above chest
D. Turn pump off during the exam

B. Keep drainage tube below chest

-When a patient has chest tube drainage it is imperative that the tubing be kept below the level of the chest. This way the material being
drained cannot reenter the chest.

5

The brightness of a digital image affects which of the following?
A. Sharpness of detail
B. Visibility of detail
C. Distortion
D. Exposure

B. Visibility of detail

-The image must be a certain brightness to make the details visible. A digital image can be too light or too dark.

6

What separates the head of the humerus from the body (shaft) of the humerus?
A. Anatomical neck
B. Bicipital groove
C. Lesser tubercle
D. Trochlea

A. Anatomical neck

-Directly below the head of the humerus is a narrowed area called the anatomical neck

7

Where would the CR enter for a cross-table (horizontal beam) lateral on a patient with a suspected hip fracture?
A. Acetabulum
B. Iliac crest
C. Intertrochanteric crest
D. Femoral neck

D. Femoral neck
For a cross-table (horizontal beam) lateral hip, the CR should enter the medial aspect of the thigh and be projected perpendicular to the
femoral neck.

8

Oxygenated blood returns from the lungs, through the pulmonary veins, to which chamber of the heart?
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle

B. Left atrium

-The blood then passes through the mitral valve, into the left ventricle and then out the aortic valve into the ascending aorta

9

What position is the patient's right arm in when radiographing the upper right posterior ribs in the RPO position?
A. Abducted and lowered
B. Adducted and lowered
C. Abducted and elevated
D. Adducted and elevated

C. Abducted and elevated

-This brings the right scapula away from the rib cage

10

Which of the following exposure indicator optimal value ranges is/are correct?
1. Fuji's S number, 180 - 220
2. Agfa's log median number, 2.1 - 2.3
3. Carestream's EI number, 1950 - 2050
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
An exposure indicator number within these ranges for the various vendors would be considered optimal

11

Which of the following sequences of examinations is correct?
A. Gallbladder Sonography, Upper GI, Barium Enema
B. Upper GI, Gallbladder Sonography, Nuclear Medicine Scan
C. Gallbladder Sonography, Barium Enema, Upper GI
D. Gallbladder Sonography, Upper GI, Nuclear Medicine Scan

C. Gallbladder Sonography, Barium Enema, Upper GI

-The gallbladder sonography and nuclear medicine scans need to be done before any barium is placed in the body. Then the B.E., because that barium won't interfere with the UGI the following day.

12

How many half value layers (HVL) are required to reduce an x-ray beam from 10 mR/mAs to 5 mR/mAs?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A. 1

-A half value layer is the amount of material that will reduce the intensity of an x-ray beam in half. Therefore, 1 HVL will reduce 10 mR to 5mR.

13

Long bone measurements are taken radiographically for which of the following reasons?
A. Post reduction of a fracture
B. Length differences between two sides
C. Bone age
D. Scoliosis

B. Length differences between two sides

-A special metal ruler is used to measure the length of long bones on patients who have different bone lengths

14

Which of the following will cause a loss in spatial resolution?
A. High grid ratio
B. High kVp
C. Motion
D. Pathology

C. Motion

-Motion can cause a loss of spatial resolution because the area of interest will be blurred.

15

According to the Code of Federal Regulations Title 21 (21 CFR) for fluoroscopic equipment manufactured after June 10, 2006, the AKR nor the cumulative air kerma shall not deviate from the actual values by more than _______ percent.
A. 15
B. 25
C. 35
D. 45

C. 35

-Compliance shall be determined over the range of 6 mGy/min and 100 mGy to the maximum indication of AKR and cumulative air kerma.

16

During a barium enema, if the patient is supine, the CR angled 30-40 degrees cephalad, 2" inferior to the level of the ASIS and to the midsagittal plane, what anatomy is best demonstrated?
A. Splenic flexure
B. Hepatic flexure
C. Rectosigmoid
D. Cecum

C. Rectosigmoid

-This is known as an AP axial projection. The rectosigmoid segment of the large intestine may also be demonstrated with a PA axial
projection, LPO or RAO axial obliques or with a Chassard-Lapine axial projection.

17

Which of the following types of primary radiation CANNOT be produced at tube potentials of less than 70 keV?
A. Bremsstrahlung
B. Photoelectric
C. Compton
D. Characteristic

D. Characteristic

-Primary radiation is produced with either bremsstrahlung or characteristic interactions. It takes at least 70 keV to remove the K-shell electron to produce characteristic radiation.

18

A patient with known salmonella pathogens has an "accident" on your x-ray table. What should you do with the contaminated sheets and pillow case?
A. Place them with the other dirty linen as usual
B. Place them in a plastic, red contamination bag
C. Send them to be incinerated
D. Spray them with Lysol before putting them in a red bag

A. Place them with the other dirty linen as usual

-All linen is considered contaminated, so this case is no different than all cases. The linen is placed in a water proof hamper and handled
appropriately by the linen service personnel.

19

What post-examination instructions should be given to a patient following a myelogram?
A. Lie supine for six hours
B. Take a mild laxative to help rid the body of the contrast agent
C. Remain NPO for 24 hours
D. Elevate head 30 degrees for six hours

D. Elevate head 30 degrees for six hours
-Elevating the patient's head may prevent him from getting a severe headache.

20

As an x-ray beam passes through a material its intensity is reduced. What is this called?
A. Absorption
B. Scattering
C. Leaking
D. Attenuation

D. Attenuation
The intensity of an x-ray beam is reduced because some of it is absorbed, some scattered, and the remainder diverged over a larger area.

21

According to the Code of Federal Regulations Title 21 (21 CFR), fluoroscopic equipment manufactured after June 10, 2006 must meet which of the following standards?
A. The length nor width of the x-ray field can exceed the image receptor by more than 3% of the SID.
B. Display of the last-image-hold (LIH) radiograph shall be replaced by the fluoroscopic image concurrently with re-initiation of
the fluoroscopic exposure.
C. The display of the air kerma rate (AKR) shall be clearly distinguishable from the display of the cumulative air kerma.
D. All of the above

D. All of the above
All of these are standards for fluoroscopy equipment manufactured on or after June 10, 2006

22

Which of the following describes the x-ray beam after it has passed through the patient?
A. Remnant (exit)
B. Scatter
C. Primary
D. Secondary

A. Remnant (exit)

-Remnant means remaining. Remnant (exit) radiation is what is remaining in the beam after it has passed through the patient

23

A scoliosis series involves PA projections of which of the following areas?
A. Cervical and thoracic spines
B. Thoracic and lumbar spines
C. Lumbar spine and sacrum
D. Entire spine

B. Thoracic and lumbar spines

-The thoracic and lumbar vertebrae must be shown along with 1 - 2 inches of the iliac crest

24

Accurate centering of the central ray is critical for which type of grid?
A. Crossed
B. Parallel
C. Focused
D. Perpendicular

C. Focused

-Off-center grid cut-off is more likely with a focused grid

25

Which of the following is the major source of exposure to the radiographer?
A. Primary x rays
B. Scatter x rays
C. Leakage x rays
D. Characteristic x rays

B. Scatter x rays

Scatter radiation from the patient produces the greatest risk to the radiographer, but "backscatter" from the floor and walls, and leakage radiation cannot be ignored. The radiographer should never be in the path of the primary beam.

26

Which of the following technical factors will cause receptor exposure to decrease when it is increased?
A. mAs
B. kVp
C. SID
D. Focal spot size

C. SID

-According to the inverse square law, intensity of the x-ray beam decreases when distance increases.

27
card image

The quality assurance test at the right helps determine which of the following?
A. Collimation
B. Spatial resolution
C. Noise
D. Beam alignment

D. Beam alignment
-The holes will appear as one if the central ray is truly perpendicular to the image receptor

28

Which of the following is a postprocessing option to increase the contrast along the borders of a digital image?
A. Masking
B. Edge enhancement
C. Equalization
D. Smoothing

B. Edge enhancement

-Edge enhancement improves the visibility of details.

29

When using anatomically programmed technique (APT) with a digital system and an average size patient, the radiographer changes the density control to -2. Which of the following would result?
1. Decreased brightness
2. Appropriate brightness
3. Increased quantum noise
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 2 & 3 only

D. 2 & 3 only
With digital imaging systems, almost any exposure will result in the proper brightness. The only way a -2 density would be noticeable is that the image would have quantum noise because of the underexposure.

30

When the x-ray beam is traveling in an anterior to posterior direction through a patient, with the image receptor touching his back, which of the
following is true?
1. This would be an AP projection
2. This would be an AP position
3. This would be a posterior position
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 2 only
D. 1 & 3 only

D. 1 & 3 only
Projection is a positioning term used to describe the path of the x-ray beam. Position is a term that relates to the patient's physical position (e.g., erect, supine), as well as the body part that is closest to the image receptor.

31

Medical asepsis is defined as the _______ of pathogens in the environment?
A. complete removal
B. spreading
C. reduction in the number
D. collection

C. reduction in the number

-Medical asepsis is reducing the number of pathogens by washing and cleaning objects that come in contact with patients.

32

For an AP projection of the sacroilliac joints, the central ray enters on the midsagital plane at what angle?
A. 10 to 15 degrees caudad
B. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad
C. 30 to 35 degrees caudad
D. 30 to 35 degrees cephalad

D. 30 to 35 degrees cephalad
-This position shows the sacroilliac joints, lumbosacral joint and the entire sacrum.

33

What is the name of the largest blood vessel in the abdomen?
A. Celiac
B. Renal
C. Aorta
D. Iliac

C. Aorta

-The aorta leaves the heart and is referred to as the thoracic aorta above the diaphragm and the abdominal aorta below the diaphragm.

34

Which of the following primary beam sizes would produce the greatest radiation exposure to the patient?
A. 8 x 10
B. 10 x 12
C. 11 x 14
D. 14 x 17

D. 14 x 17
The larger the area of the patient that is exposed to radiation, the greater the radiation exposure, and the greater the risks of biological damage.

35

Which of the following oxygen delivery systems would indicate the patient needs a high rate of oxygen supply?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Oxygen mask
C. Nonrebreathing mask
D. Nasal catheter

C. Nonrebreathing mask

-This high flow system has a reservoir bag attached and prevents rebreathing exhaled air

36

Which of the following would describe a hemiplegic?
A. Paralyzed from the waist up
B. Paralyzed from the waist down
C. Paralyzed on one side
D. Paralyzed in all four extremities
Hemiplegia indicates paralysis (-plegia) of half (hemi-) of the body, in this case, one side.

C. Paralyzed on one side

-Hemiplegia indicates paralysis (-plegia) of half (hemi-) of the body, in this case, one side.

37

If the mAs is 40 and the time is .1 second, the mA setting must be what?
A. 100 mA
B. 200 mA
C. 300 mA
D. 400 mA

D. 400 mA
mA = mAs/s; mA = 40 mAs/.1 s; mA = 400 mA

38

During fluoroscopy, where is an acceptable position for the radiographer to stand?
A. In the room, next to the patient
B. In the room, next to the radiologist
C. In the room, as far from the patient as practical
D. Holding the patient

C. In the room, as far from the patient as practical

-The patient is the primary source of radiation exposure to the radiographer. Take a step back away from the fluoroscopy unit whenever possible.

39

The American Heart Association's guidelines for CPR recommends which of the following sequences?
A. Airway, breathing, compressions
B. Compressions, airway, breathing
C. Breathing, airway, compressions
D. Airway, compressions, breathing

B. Compressions, airway, breathing

-By changing the sequence from ABC to CAB, compressions will be initiated sooner and starting with compressions may encourage more bystanders to begin CPR.

40

In digital imaging, even though mAs is the controlling factor for receptor exposure, what advantage does the kVp 15% rule have in the adjustment
of receptor exposure?
1. Shorter exposure times are possible
2. Decreased patient dose
3. Greater exposure latitude
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
The 15% rule states "a 15% increase in kVp will double the receptor exposure". By increasing kVp 15%, one can cut the time in half, thereby
decreasing patient dose. High kVp techniques provide greater margin for error (latitude).

41

Cystography is a radiographic examination of which anatomical part?
A. Bladder
B. Gallbladder
C. Spleen
D. Stomach

A. Bladder

-Cystography is done by injecting contrast media through a urethral catheter into the urinary bladder

42

Which of the following is necessary for a true lateral position of the forearm?
1. Elbow flexed 90 degrees
2. Hand placed in a lateral position
3. Humeral epicondyles superimposed
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
A fourth requirement is to place the humerus on the same transverse plane as the forearm to make sure a true lateral is obtained

D. 1, 2 & 3
A fourth requirement is to place the humerus on the same transverse plane as the forearm to make sure a true lateral is obtained

43

If an unattended patient is injured by falling off the x-ray table, why could the radiographer be sued?
A. Assault
B. Battery
C. Tort
D. Negligence

D. Negligence
A reasonable radiographer would not leave a patient unattended if there is a possibility of him/her falling.

44

How long should a patient remain in the upright or lateral decubitus position before an exposure is made to demonstrate free air in the
abdomen?
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes

C. 5 minutes

-5 minutes is the recommended time to leave a patient in the upright or lateral decubitus position so the free air and fluid have time to move

45

Which manufacturer refers to its exposure indicator as a log median number?
A. Agfa
B. Carestream
C. Fuji
D. Image
Agfa uses a logarithmic number to indicate its imaging plate exposure.

A. Agfa

-Agfa uses a logarithmic number to indicate its imaging plate exposure.

46

Which of the following anatomical areas should be covered with protective shielding when they are in or near a properly collimated beam?
1. Breasts
2. Bone marrow
3. Reproductive organs
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
The breasts, bone marrow (blood producing), and the reproductive organs are the most radiosensitive areas of the body and should be
shielded with lead whenever they lie in or near the x-ray field.

47

An AP axial sacrum requires the patient to be supine, the CR angled 15-25 degrees cephalad, and entering a point:
A. midway between the crests of the ilium.
B. 2" superior to the symphysis pubis.
C. parallel to the sacroiliac joints.
D. at the level of the sacral foramina.

B. 2" superior to the symphysis pubis.

-The CR is angled 15-25 degrees cephalad to enter at a point 2" superior to the symphysis pubis

48

Which of the following combinations will reduce patient exposure the most?
A. Increase grid ratio and decrease speed class
B. Increase mAs and decrease kVp
C. Increase kVp and decrease mAs
D. Increase OID and decrease SID

C. Increase kVp and decrease mAs

-By increasing kVp and decreasing mAs, the amount of radiation can be reduced while maintaining radiographic brightness

49

First-stage entrance-shutters of a variable-aperture collimator are designed to reduce which of the following?
A. Primary radiation
B. Secondary radiation
C. Exit radiation
D. Off-focus radiation

D. Off-focus radiation
-First-stage entrance-shutters stop the off-focus radiation. The remaining shutters shape the primary beam.

50

Bone marrow is the largest producer of blood cells in the human body. Which of the following bone types contain the most bone marrow?
A. Flat bones
B. Irregular bones
C. Long bones
D. Short bones

A. Flat bones

-The pelvis, skull, ribs, and sacrum are flat bones that contain blood producing marrow and should be avoided or shielded when imaging a patient if possible.

51

Which of the following is/are necessary for a patient with contact precautions?
1. Wear gloves and gown if coming in contact with patient
2. The patient should be placed in a private room
3. While imaging the patient use the clean and dirty tech routine
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
Methicillin Resistant Staph Aureus (MRSA) and Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus (VRE) are two reasons why a person would be placed
in contact precautions.

52

Which of the following is a recumbent position in which the patient's head is higher than his/her feet?
A. Sim's
B. Trendelenburg
C. Supine
D. Fowler's

D. Fowler's
The Fowler's position is often used during myelography to move the contrast media into the lumbar area

53
card image

What caused the artifact that is demonstrated on this radiograph?
A. Quantum noise
B. Double exposure
C. Fog
D. Backscatter
This is a common mistake while doing several mobile chest radiographs. The radiographer forgot which cassette had already been exposed and created this double exposure.

B. Double exposure

-This is a common mistake while doing several mobile chest radiographs. The radiographer forgot which cassette had already been exposed and created this double exposure.

54

How are the electrons focused toward the anode of a typical x-ray tube during an exposure?
A. Electrostatic lenses
B. Focusing coil
C. Electron gun
D. Focusing cup

D. Focusing cup
The focusing cup surrounds the filament wires to keep the electrons in a narrow stream during the exposure.

55

Which of the following terms describes the intensity of the x-ray beam?
A. Quality
B. Quantity
C. Primary
D. Remnant (exit)
Intensity is the number of x rays per area. Quantity refers to the number of x rays

B. Quantity

-Intensity is the number of x rays per area. Quantity refers to the number of x rays

56

What is a major benefit of a fixed kVp technique chart?
A. Decreased exposure latitude
B. Increase in patient exposure
C. Consistent radiographic contrast
D. Improves spatial resolution

C. Consistent radiographic contrast

-A fixed kVp chart has the kVp set higher than necessary, which produces a more consistent long scale of contrast.

57

Which of the following can be used to clean the outside of a CR cassette?
A. Alcohol
B. Chemical disinfectant
C. Water
D. All of the above

D. All of the above
-All of these can be used to clean a CR cassette after it has come in contact with a patient. They should be cleaned often, but DO NOT get any of these on the inside of the cassette

58

How does the SNR (signal to noise ratio) affect the quality of a digital image?
A. SNR has no effect on image quality
B. When the signal and noise are equal, the quality is the best
C. The lower the SNR the better the quality of the image
D. The higher the SNR the better the quality of the image

D. The higher the SNR the better the quality of the image
The signal refers to the x-ray exposure incident on the image receptor. Noise is the grainy appearance in an image. If the signal is high enough, the noise will be covered up.

59
card image

In the radiograph to the right, the red arrow is pointing to which of the following anatomical parts?
A. Medial malleolus
B. Styloid process
C. Apex
D. Navicular

A. Medial malleolus

-The medial malleolus is at the distal end of the tibia and helps form the ankle joint

60

From a radiograph, how does one tell if a PA axial (Caldwell) projection of the skull was correctly positioned?
A. The mandibular condyles will be superimposed
B. The supraorbital ridges will be superimposed
C. The occipital bone is well visualized
D. The petrous ridges are projected into the lower 1/3 of the orbits

D. The petrous ridges are projected into the lower 1/3 of the orbits
-If the tube was not angled 15 degrees caudad, or the orbitomeatal line was not perpendicular to the image receptor, the petrous ridges would not be in the lower 1/3 of the orbits.

61

Which of the following is NOT necessary for the production of x rays?
A. Source of electrons
B. Acceleration of electrons
C. Magnetic field
D. Deceleration of electrons

C. Magnetic field

-Whenever high speed electrons are suddenly stopped or change direction, some or all of their kinetic energy is given up in the form of
electromagnetic radiation.

62

f a dynamic recording of a fluoroscopic image is required, how many frames per second must be recorded?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 50
In order to perceive a dynamic image, at least 30 frames per second must be recorded. The new flat panel detectors used for digital fluoroscopy can record 30 fps.

C. 30

-In order to perceive a dynamic image, at least 30 frames per second must be recorded. The new flat panel detectors used for digital fluoroscopy can record 30 fps.

63

A lead apron is designed to protect the radiographer from scatter radiation. A protective apron must have a lead equivalency of at least:
A. .25 mm.
B. .50 mm.
C. 1.0 mm.
D. 2.0 mm.

B. .50 mm.

-The NCRP changed their recommendation from .25 mm Pb to .50 mm Pb equivalent for lead aprons. Lead gloves changed from .50 mm Pb to .25 mm Pb.

64

Which of the following must be taken into consideration when determining the thickness of a protective barrier?
A. Time of occupancy
B. Workload
C. Use
D. All of the above

D. All of the above
-The occupancy factor is either controlled (radiation personnel) or uncontrolled (public); workload is measured in millampere-minutes/week;
the use factor is the percentage of time the beam is directed toward a particular wall.

65

While doing an erect abdomen image, the patient warns you that he/she is about to faint. What should be your first reaction?
A. Run for help
B. Finish the exam as quickly as possible
C. Sit the patient on the image table and put their head between their legs
D. Carefully lower the patient to the floor and have him/her lie down

D. Carefully lower the patient to the floor and have him/her lie down
-If a patient faints, there is little chance that you could hold up that much "dead-weight". Do not leave the patient to run and get a chair or help. Your main goal is to make sure the patient does not fall and injure him/herself.

66

Which of the following would NOT be considered ambient light in a radiologist's reading room?
A. Light from the display monitor
B. Light from a lamp
C. Natural light
D. Fluorescent light

A. Light from the display monitor

-Light from the display monitor is referred to as luminance

67

Which of the following are considered ways of assessing a patient's condition?
1. Reviewing the patient's chart
2. Talking and listening to the patient
3. Observing the patient
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
-Admitting diagnosis, progress reports or any known allergies can be obtained from the patient's chart. Coherence, skin color, etc. can be assessed by talking, listening and observing the patient.

68

Which of the following must be done when checking a patient for radiopaque objects?
1. Ask the patient if they have removed all radiopaque objects
2. Look for radiopaque objects on the patient
3. Feel for radiopaque objects on the patient
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
Verbal, visual and tactile methods must be used to ensure that all radiopaque objects are removed from the patient

69

Which of the following prefixes means "below"?
A. Inter
B. Intra
C. Infra
D. Pseudo
"infra" is the prefix that means "below", as used in the term "inframammary" (below the breast).

C. Infra

-"infra" is the prefix that means "below", as used in the term "inframammary" (below the breast).

70

Edema describes which of the following conditions?
A. Vomiting
B. Swelling
C. Redness
D. Rapid heart rate

B. Swelling

-Edema is an accumulation of fluid in tissues and is commonly seen in patients with a sprained ankle

71
card image

What position/projection is demonstrated on this radiograph?
A. AP
B. Right lateral
C. RAO
D. LPO

B. Right lateral

-The lateral vertebrae help to identify this as a right lateral stomach

72

When a patient is being registered, that person's information is being typed into which of the following?
A. HIS
B. RIS
C. PACS
D. DICOM

A. HIS

-When a patient is registered, that information is put into the hospital information system (HIS). The radiology information system (RIS) and other hospital intranets then have access to that information.

73

Which of the following must be done to correct a saturated digital image?
A. Change the window width
B. Change the window level
C. Invert the image
D. The image must be repeated.

D. The image must be repeated.
Nothing can be done to correct the saturated image other than repeating it.

74

Which of the following is an appropriate way to make sure you have the correct patient and are doing the correct procedure?
A. Call the patient's name, follow the orders on the request
B. Check wristband, follow the orders on the request
C. Check wrist band and ask the patient for his/her date of birth
D. Ask the receptionist

C. Check wrist band and ask the patient for his/her date of birth

-Checking the wrist band and asking for date of birth are the two accepted means of assuring you have the correct patient.

75

Which of the following people have the authority to restrain a patient?
A. Nursing supervisor
B. Radiographer
C. Patient's family
D. Patient's physician

D. Patient's physician
-The patient's physician is the only individual who has the legal authority to order a patient to be restrained. A radiographer should not even hold a patient to restrain them during a radiographic exam.

76

If ureteral reflux is suspected during cystography, which of the following radiographs is necessary?
A. Erect
B. Right lateral
C. Voiding
D. Post void

C. Voiding

-Ureteral reflux is the backward flow of urine up the ureter during urination.

77

What is the proper way to move a heavy object?
A. Push it
B. Pull it
C. Lift it
D. Roll it

A. Push it

-Trying to lift or pull a heavy object puts undue stress on your shoulders and lower back. Pushing allows you to get your weight behind the object.

78

Which of the following structures should be filled with air for a soft tissue neck radiograph?
1. Nasopharynx
2. Oropharynx
3. Trachea
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
-A lateral position of the neck will demonstrate all three of these structures free from superimposition.

79

When should a grid be used?
1. When radiographing body parts greater than 10 cm
2. When using high kVp
3. When the production of scatter radiation is high
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
The purpose of a grid is to absorb scatter radiation. Scatter radiation is highest when the body part is large and/or dense and when high kVp is used.

80

How would a crack in an imaging plate appear in a digital image?
A. White
B. Black
C. Gray
D. Dark gray

A. White

-If there is a crack in the imaging plate, no light would be produced in that area. Therefore, the pixel value would be 0, so it would appear white.

81

What criteria should be used to make sure a lateral position of the wrist is of optimum quality?
A. The ulnar head and radius should be superimposed
B. The scaphoid should be well visualized
C. All carpal bone are free of superimposition
D. The metacarpophalangeal joints are visualized

A. The ulnar head and radius should be superimposed

-In order to get a true lateral of the wrist, the patient's arm and forearm must be resting on the table, the elbow flexed 90 degrees and the ulnar head and radius superimposed.

82

You and a co-worker are on the weekend shift. It is a busy department for a small hospital and it demands a great deal of effort from both of you. Your co-worker frequently leaves the department to deal with his personal problems. You do not know much about the circumstances, nor have you known him for long. Some days your co-worker helps very little, and, as a result, you are putting in an excessive amount of overtime to get the patients done. You feel that your health may begin to suffer because of the stress and the overtime. Which of the following is the appropriate response?
A. Raise the issue with your department manager. Explain that the patients are not being done in a reasonable time because
of the lack of effort from your co-worker.
B. Continue to put in overtime to keep the peace.
C. Tell your department manager that you need more than two people working the weekend shift.
D. Follow the co-worker to see where he goes.

A. Raise the issue with your department manager. Explain that the patients are not being done in a reasonable time because

-It is your manager's job to solve this problem. Overworking yourself or lying to your manager is not the solution.

83

Which of the following will cause magnification?
A. Increased SID
B. Increased filtration
C. Increased grid ratio
D. Increased OID

D. Increased OID
-An increased OID or a decreased SID will cause magnification.

84

The capitullum of the humerus articulates with which of the following anatomical structures?
A. Styloid process of the radius
B. Head of the radius
C. Head of the ulna
D. Styloid process of the ulna

B. Head of the radius

-A good way to remember this is that a cap fits on your head. The capitullum articulates with the head of the radius!

85

What is an imaging contrast agent called that absorbs more x rays than the surrounding tissue?
A. Low density contrast agent
B. Absorbing density contrast agent
C. Positive contrast agent
D. Negative contrast agent

C. Positive contrast agent

-A positive contrast agent has a high atomic number, either barium sulphate or iodine

86

Which of the following will reduce patient exposure during fluoroscopy?
1. Pulsed beam
2. Intermittent beam
3. Low kVp
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

A. 1 & 2 only

-Newer digital, fluoroscopic units use a pulsed beam instead of a continuous beam to produce the images, reducing patient exposure. A radiologist can use an intermittent beam instead of a continuous beam to reduce patient exposure.

87

What is the name of the spongy pad that lies between the vertebrae?
A. Spinous disk
B. Intervertebral disk
C. Herniated disk
D. Intralumbar disk

B. Intervertebral disk

-Intervertebral disks are found between the bodies of the vertebrae. They act as shock absorbers

88

Inspiration and expiration PA projections of the chest may be used to demonstrate which of the following?
A. Pneumonia
B. Pneumothorax
C. Atelectasis
D. Emphysema

B. Pneumothorax

-Other indications for inspiration and expiration views of the chest are foreign body localization, diaphragm movement or to distinguish between an opacity in the rib or lung.

89

Which of the following positions would be best when radiographing the sternum of a trauma patient?
A. LPO
B. RPO
C. LAO
D. RAO

A. LPO

-Even though the sternum is further from the image receptor in this position, it is easier on the patient and reduces the risk of further injury

90

When should the timing for a small bowel series begin?
A. When the patient enters the x-ray room
B. When the patient swallows the barium
C. When the radiologist completes fluoroscopy
D. Whenever the radiographer wants

B. When the patient swallows the barium

-Since fluoroscopy time varies with patients and radiologists, to maintain consistency, the timing of a small bowel series should begin when the patient first swallows the barium

91

If you were alone with a patient that you felt was going into cardiogenic shock, which of the following should you do while you are waiting for help
to arrive?
A. Put a blanket on the patient and elevate his feet
B. Take the patient's blood pressure and administer oxygen
C. Elevate the patient's feet and start an IV
D. Start an IV and administer oxygen

A. Put a blanket on the patient and elevate his feet

-Shock is a result of poor blood supply to the vital organs. If you feel your patient may be going into shock because he is restless, has a rapid heart rate, lacks color, and has cold, clammy skin. Your first response is to call for help. Then you should cover him, elevate his feet and reassure him that help is coming soon.

92

Which of the following postprocessing techniques could be used while evaluating a digital image for central line placement within the
mediastinum?
A. Brighten the image
B. Equalize the image
C. Magnify the image
D. Invert the image

D. Invert the image
-Inverting the image changes the white to black and the blacks to white. The white catheter will now be black and a little easier to visualize

93

When a residual latent image appears on a subsequent CR digital image it is known as what?
A. Primary image
B. Secondary image
C. Ghost image
D. Fog

C. Ghost image

-A ghost image can be caused by overexposing the original image or by inadequate erasing of the original imaging plate

94

A sampling frequency of 5 pixels per millimeter would produce how much spatial resolution?
A. 2.5 line pairs per millimeter
B. 5.0 line pairs per millimeter
C. 7.5 line pairs per millimeter
D. 10 line pairs per millimeter

A. 2.5 line pairs per millimeter

-It takes 2 pixels to make a line pair, therefore, 5 pixels would produce 2.5 line pairs per millimeter.

95
card image

In the image to the right, the red arrow is pointing to which of the following anatomical parts?
A. Acromion
B. Styloid process
C. Scapular notch
D. Coracoid process

D. Coracoid process
-The coracoid process projects anteriorly off the scapula just medial to the acromioclavicular joint

96

Which of the following positions/projections will produce the least exposure to the thyroid gland during a cervical spine radiographic series?
A. AP
B. PA
C. LPO
D. Lateral

B. PA

-A PA projection of the cervical spine will cause the lower energy x-rays to be absorbed before they ever reach the thyroid gland.

97

Which of the following can be detrimental to viewing digital images on a monitor?
A. Luminance
B. Wide dynamic range
C. Ambient light
D. High spatial resolution

C. Ambient light

-Ambient light refers to the overall illumination of a room. It consists of natural light, fluorescent lights and lamps. Ambient light is reflected off the monitor and can reduce the contrast of an image.

98

What is the function of the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurement (NCRP)?
A. Set standards for using radiation
B. Educate the public about radiation
C. Educate radiation workers
D. Keep records on radiation hazards

A. Set standards for using radiation

-The National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) sets standards for the measurement of and the protection from
radiation

99

Which of the following will result in an underexposed radiograph while using automatic exposure control (AEC)?
A. Insufficient backup time set
B. Having the upright Bucky selected while using the table Bucky
C. Having a positive density setting instead of a normal density setting
D. Small focal spot set

A. Insufficient backup time set

-When the backup time is reached, it will terminate the exposure even though the AEC would require more x rays to terminate the exposure

100

Which of the following will put the humerus in a true AP projection?
A. Adduction
B. Abduction
C. AP internal rotation
D. AP external rotation

D. AP external rotation
-In order to place the humerus in a true AP projection the hand has to be supinated (arm externally rotated)

101

Which of the following can be done to reduce the patient's skin dose during prolonged fluoroscopic examinations?
A. Keep the image intensifier as close to the patient as possible
B. Keep the kVp as high as possible
C. Change the patient position
D. All of the above

D. All of the above
-Also, use tight collimation, keep beam on-time to an absolute minimum, do not over-use the magnification mode, minimize room lighting to improve image quality.

102

Which of the following positions/projections will best demonstrate the coronoid process of the elbow?
A. AP
B. Medial oblique
C. Lateral oblique
D. Lateral

B. Medial oblique

-The medial oblique shows the coronoid process free from superimposition. The lateral oblique shows the radial head.

103

Managing patient information, patient orders, and scheduling information in the Imaging Department is done on computers using RIS. What does RIS stand for?
A. Radiology information system
B. Random input series
C. Realtime information speed
D. Radiology income studies

A. Radiology information system

-The software that is used for these purposes in the Imaging Department is referred to as the radiology information system.

104

Children have a greater sensitivity to radiation than adults. Which of the following should be done to keep radiation exposure to children to a minimum?
A. Select an imaging modality that minimizes radiation (e.g., MRI, sonography)
B. Reduce the number of exposures (eliminate obliques)
C. Shield breasts and gonads
D. All of the above

D. All of the above
All of the above should be considered for pediatric patients.

105

Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate a right pleural effusion?
A. Right lateral
B. Right lateral decubitus
C. Right posterior oblique
D. AP semierect

B. Right lateral decubitus

-Pleural effusion is an accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity (a double-walled membrane that surrounds the lungs). It is best demonstrated
with the affected side down, in this case the right side, hence the right lateral decubitus.

106

Tube angulation will produce which type of shape distortion?
A. Magnification
B. Minification
C. Elongation
D. Foreshortening

C. Elongation

-Elongation makes the object to appear longer that it actually is. It occurs when the tube is angled or when the tube and image receptor are not properly aligned.

107

Which of the following interactions with matter leaves an atom ionized?
A. Compton effect and photodisintegration
B. Compton effect and photoelectric absorption
C. Pair production and photodisintegration
D. Pair production and photoelectric absorption

B. Compton effect and photoelectric absorption

-Both of these interactions results in an incoming photon striking an electron and ejecting it from its energy shell, thereby, leaving the atom with more positive charges than negative charges (ionized).

108

Which of the following positions/projections clearly demonstrate all four paranasal sinuses?
A. Parietoacanthial (Waters) (horizontal beam) projection
B. PA axial (Caldwell) (horizontal beam) projection
C. Submentovertex (full basal) (horizontal beam) projection
D. Lateral (horizontal beam).

D. Lateral (horizontal beam)
The sphenoid sinuses are of primary interest in the lateral (horizontal beam) position, since they are not well demonstrated in other views.

109

What is the definition of amorphous?
A. A noncrystalline state of an otherwise crystalline material
B. The process of emitting light when stimulated by x rays
C. Converting x rays to light
D. Storing electrical charge for digital viewing

A. A noncrystalline state of an otherwise crystalline material

-Amorphous is defined as a noncrystalline state of an otherwise crystalline material.

110

What instructions could a radiographer give to a patient following a small bowel series?
A. Drink plenty of liquids
B. Remain NPO for 8 more hours
C. Keep head elevated for 24 hours
D. Take a strong laxative

A. Drink plenty of liquids

-Since barium can become hardened in the large bowel, the radiographer can tell the patient to drink plenty of liquids. It is not appropriate for a radiographer to instruct the patient to take a laxative. It may be contraindicated for some patients.

111

What do the letters RBE stand for?
A. Radiation by exposure
B. Roentgen biological effect
C. Relative biological effect
D. Radiation beam entrance

C. Relative biological effect

-RBE describes the capability of various radiations to produce a particular biological effect.

112

What part of the CR imaging plate is used to match the imaging plate to a particular patient/examination?
A. Reader
B. Barcode
C. Plate ID
D. Backing

B. Barcode

-A barcode is printed on the back of the plate which is read by a barcode reader to match the imaging plate to a patient/examination.

113

Which of the following would best demonstrate a blow-out fracture of the orbit?
A. PA axial (Caldwell) projection
B. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection
C. Modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters)
D. Lateral

C. Modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters)

-The difference between a Waters and modified Waters is that the modified Waters has the chin and nose resting on the tabletop, which makes the OML form a 55 degree angle with the image receptor. A Waters forms a 37 degree angle when the nose does not touch the tabletop.

114

The body part _______ the image receptor is referenced when describing the term "position".
A. above
B. behind
C. nearest
D. farthest from

C. nearest

-The term position refers to a specific body position, oblique or decubitus, in which the body part nearest the image receptor describes the position. For example, a right anterior oblique would have the right anterior side nearest the image receptor.

115

At a 40" SID, the collimator light-to-x-ray field must be accurate to within how many inches?
A. 0.4"
B. 0.8"
C. 1.6"
D. 4.0"
2% of 40" equals 0.8"

B. 0.8"

-2% of 40" equals 0.8"

116

Going from the easiest to penetrate to the hardest to penetrate, which of the following is in the correct order?
A. Fat, gas, muscle, bone
B. Gas, fat, muscle, bone
C. Bone, muscle, fat, gas
D. Gas, muscle, fat, bone

B. Gas, fat, muscle, bone

-The less the tissue density, the easier to penetrate

117

What is the name of the organ that lies within the duodenal loop?
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. Adrenal
D. Gallbladder

B. Pancreas

-The pancreas lies within the duodenal loop and the main pancreatic duct empties into the duodenum through the sphincter of Oddi.

118

Which of the following terms describes the horizontal portion of the mandible?
A. Alveolar process
B. Ramus
C. Body
D. Condyloid process

C. Body

-The mandible has a curved, horizontal portion called the body.

119

Which of the following tarsal bones articulates with the talus anteriorly?
A. Calcaneus
B. Cuboid
C. Cuneiform
D. Navicular

D. Navicular
The navicular lies anterior to the talus and the calcaneus lies inferior to the talus.

120

Which of the following image matrix sizes is necessary to produce adequate spatial resolution for digital chest radiography?
A. 256 x 256
B. 512 x 512
C. 1024 x 1024
D. 2048 x 2048

D. 2048 x 2048
-A 2048 x 2048 matrix is necessary to produce an image sharp enough for an accurate diagnosis of chest details.

121

Which of the following automatic exposure control (AEC) functions will prevent overexposing the patient in the event of a malfunction or
mispositioned x-ray beam?
A. Focal spot size
B. Brightness control
C. Back-up timer
D. Sensor control

C. Back-up timer

-The back-up timer or back-up mAs should be set to approximately 150% of the expected value.

122

Where should the central ray enter for an AP axial projection of the foot?
A. 3rd metatarsophalangeal joint
B. Base of the 3rd metatarsal
C. Anterior talus
D. Medial cuneiform

B. Base of the 3rd metatarsal

-The base of the 3rd metatarsal is the proximal end of the metatarsal, which is in the center of the foot.

123

The histogram is used to automatically rescale the image to the proper brightness. Which of the following could cause an error with the
histogram analysis?
1. Exposure field NOT detected
2. Unexpected metal in the data set
3. Gross overexposure
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
-Anything that would change the shape of the histogram could cause an error in the histogram analysis. When the exposure field is not detected or there is metal in the anatomy (e.g., prosthesis) the image will usually be too dark because the algorithm tries to automatically rescale the light areas to the proper tissue brightness.

124

What is the definition of a fomite?
A. An insect
B. A method of sterilization
C. A small animal
D. An item to which microorganisms cling

D. An item to which microorganisms cling
-A fomite is an object or item to which microorganisms cling, serving as an agent of transmission of an infection

125

You received the requests for the following procedures all at the same time. In what sequence would you perform these procedures?
1. UGI series on pediatric patient
2. Ankle radiograph from the emergency room
3. Lumbar spine on outpatient
A. 1, 2 then 3
B. 2, 1 then 3
C. 2, 3 then 1
D. 3, 1 then 2

B. 2, 1 then 3

-Emergency patients are always first. Then pediatric and geriatric patients who are fasting. Followed by routine imaging procedures.

126

Which of the following hospital personnel is considered "qualified" to interpret radiation monitoring reports?
A. Registered staff radiographer
B. Chief technologist
C. Certified medical physicist
D. Hospital administrator

C. Certified medical physicist

-Radiation monitoring reports must be interpreted by a "qualified expert", a certified medical physicist.

127

A test pattern should be used to evaluate which of the following monitor qualities?
A. Contrast
B. Spatial resolution
C. Luminance
D. All of the above

D. All of the above
Noise can also be evaluated with a test pattern.

128

You are imaging a patient with head trauma in the emergency room and he suddenly appears drowsy and confused. What is your immediate
response?
A. Work quickly to finish the procedure
B. Notify the ER physician or ER nurse
C. Administer oxygen
D. Gently shake the patient to wake him up

B. Notify the ER physician or ER nurse

-Always be aware of a patient's clinical symptoms and get help immediately if they change for the worse

129
card image

What must be done to correct this radiograph of the dens?
A. Rotate the head to the right
B. Flex the chin
C. Extend the chin
D. Open the mouth wider

B. Flex the chin

-With the mouth open, flexing the chin will keep the base of the skull from superimposing the dens. The position calls for the upper incisors and the base of the skull to be superimposed.

130

The speed at which the projectile electrons are accelerated across the x-ray tube is determined by which of the following?
A. mAs
B. kVp
C. Thermionic emission
D. Rotor speed

B. kVp

-As kVp increases, the projectile electrons increase in speed. This increase in kinetic energy increases the energy of the resultant x rays.

131

Which of the following describes the part of the fluoroscopic system designed to maintain a constant image brightness?
A. Automatic exposure rate control (AERC)
B. Automatic collimation
C. Automatic programmed radiography
D. Automatic channel selector

A. Automatic exposure rate control (AERC)

-Automatic exposure rate control (ABC) is designed to compensate for changes in patient positioning and/or tube movement during fluoroscopy.

132

Which of the following methods uses light to imprint information onto an image?
A. Photographic
B. Radiographic
C. Electronic
D. Magnetic

A. Photographic

-This method is used to record patient demographics onto an image

133

Which type of radiation has a greater biological effect on a tissue when its cells are well oxygenated?
A. X or gamma radiation
B. Fast neutrons
C. Alpha particles
D. Beta particles

A. X or gamma radiation

-The oxygen effect is important for low LET radiation (x or gamma), but less important for higher LET radiation (alpha particles). Low LET radiation penetrates deeper making a more uniform distribution throughout the cell.

134

Which of the following anatomical structures is at the level of the iliac crest?
A. T10
B. L2-3 interspace
C. Body of L3
D. L4-5 interspace

D. L4-5 interspace
T10 is at the level of the xiphoid tip and L2-3 interspace is at the lower costal margin.

135

Personnel monitoring is required when there is a chance that an employee will be exposed to:
A. 1/25 or more of the annual effective dose limits of 50 mSv in any one year
B. 1/10 or more of the annual effective dose limits of 50 mSv in any one year
C. 1/4 or more of the annual effective dose limits of 50 mSv in any one year
D. 3/5 or more of the annual effective dose limits of 50 mSv in any one year

B. 1/10 or more of the annual effective dose limits of 50 mSv in any one year

-The NCRP #116 requires individuals for whom there is a reasonable probability of exceeding 10% of the occupational effective dose limit (50 mSv/year) in the course of their work to wear a radiation monitor.

136

Digital imaging has created which of the following poor radiation practices?
A. Overexposure
B. Bad images are electronically erased
C. Poor collimation is hidden by cropping
D. All of the above

D. All of the above
Digital images can easily be overexposed, deleted or cropped, hiding a radiographer's incompetence.

137

What is the suture between the parietal bones and the occipital bone called?
A. Sagittal
B. Coronal
C. Lambdoidal
D. Squasmosal

C. Lambdoidal

-The sagittal is between the parietals, the coronal is between the parietals and frontal, and the squasmosal is between the parietal and temporal.

138

Which projection of the knee will show the proximal tibiofibular articulation free from superimposition?
A. AP or PA
B. Lateral
C. Lateral oblique
D. Medial oblique

D. Medial oblique
Identifying the proximal tibiofibular articulation is the way to check to make sure the correct oblique position was obtained.

139

What is the purpose of the photodetector in a CR reader?
A. It guides the laser light in a raster pattern
B. It scans the surface of the image plate
C. It converts the analog data to digital data
D. It converts photostimulable luminescence into an electric current

D. It converts photostimulable luminescence into an electric current
When the laser excites trapped electrons, photostimulable luminescence (light) is produced; the light is directed through a light guide to the
photodetector where it is converted to an electric current; the analog to digital converter (ADC) converts the electric current into digital data.

140

Quantum noise in a digital image is the result of which of the following?
A. Low kVp
B. High mAs
C. Overexposure
D. Underexposure

D. Underexposure
-Quantum noise is the result of not enough x rays striking the image receptor. The image receptor would be underexposed.

141

When a patient is transported to the imaging department, their chart is brought with them. Why is their chart brought?
A. To determine if you have the proper patient
B. To check the patient's weight so you will not have to embarrass them by asking
C. To have in case of an emergency
D. To determine the patient's risk factors

D. To determine the patient's risk factors
-The patients' risk factors should be noted on the front of the chart. The technologist should also check inside the chart to see if the imaging procedure was ordered or if there are any contraindications to the procedure (e.g., creatinine level, BUN).

142

When using automatic exposure control (AEC), how can the radiographer decrease the time of the exposure and still maintain a satisfactory
exposure?
A. Decrease the kVp
B. Increase the mA
C. Increase the focal spot size
D. Decrease the back-up time

B. Increase the mA

-The same principles are true with AEC as they are with manual exposures. An increase in mA or kVp will allow the exposure time to be reduced.

143

What is the name of the plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior halves?
A. Transverse plane
B. Horizontal plane
C. Vertical plane
D. Midcoronal plane

D. Midcoronal plane
The midcoronal plane passes through the coronal suture of the skull

144

Which of the following documents describes the treatment that is due a patient?
A. Conduct Code
B. Professional Code of Ethics
C. AHA Patient Care Partnership (Patient's Bill of Rights)
D. Scope of Practice

C. AHA Patient Care Partnership (Patient's Bill of Rights)

-The AHA Patient Care Partnership (Patient's Bill of Rights) lists a number of rights of a patient. Everything from the right to know your name
to the right to refuse treatment.

145

What is the shortest portion of the small intestine?
A. Ileum
B. Pylorus
C. Jejunum
D. Duodenum

D. Duodenum
-The small intestine measures approximately 18 feet in length. The duodenum is only 10 inches long. The jejunum is 7 feet long and the ileum
is 10 feet long

146

Immobilization methods used in radiology:
1. help the patient remain still for the purpose of producing a quality image.
2. include tape and sandbags.
3. include restraints such as ankle or wrist bands that are being used to protect the patient.
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

A. 1 & 2 only

-Immobilization includes temporary methods to help the patient stay still during the x-ray exposure and include tape and sandbags. Unlike restraints, which help protect the patient, these are used only for the procedure

147

The dynamic range of an image display monitor is:
A. the range of intensities that can be display.
B. also referred to as display latitude.
C. what determines the brightness of the digital image.
D. what prevents ambient light from affecting the image.

A. the range of intensities that can be display.

-The dynamic range is from the smallest to largest input intensities that can be displayed

148

A flat-panel detector is exposed with nothing between the x-ray tube and detector. 5 images were acquired on 5 different days using the same exposure. The pixel readings within a region of interest (ROI) are compared. What quality control test was performed?
A. Detectability
B. Linearity
C. Repeatability
D. Uniformity

C. Repeatability

-Repeatability checks the stability of the pixel readings over time.

149
card image

Why was this IVU radiograph repeated?
A. Fog
B. Motion
C. Overexposed
D. Static

B. Motion

-Motion is seen in the left kidney area

150

Which of the following is a postprocessing option to remove white areas from the final digital image that is caused by tight collimation?
A. Blocking
B. Masking
C. Shadowing
D. Bordering

B. Masking

-Digital images that are tightly collimated have clear white areas that can fatigue a radiologist's eyes. Blocking this white light is called masking and it can be done manually or automatically

151

When should a water soluble contrast agent, such as Gastrografin, be used instead of barium?
1. When there is a possibility of a perforated ulcer
2. When a patient is under one year old
3. When a ruptured appendix is suspected
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

B. 1 & 3 only

-Barium sulfate will not be absorbed by the body. Therefore, if there is a "hole" in the gastrointestinal tract, barium would leak into the abdomen and cause infection. Barium would be indicated for children.

152

According to the law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, which of the following will have the greatest effect on cell radiosensitivity?
A. Increased proliferation, immature cell, high metabolic rate
B. Decreased proliferation, immature cell, high metabolic rate
C. Increased proliferation, mature cell, high metabolic rate
D. Increased proliferation, immature cell, low metabolic rate

A. Increased proliferation, immature cell, high metabolic rate

-An increased proliferation (reproduction) rate means cells are in the metaphase stage of mitosis more often and therefore, more radiosensitive. An immature cell cannot repair itself from radiation damage as well as a mature cell. A high metabolic rate increases the radiosensitivity of cells.

153

Which of the following primary factors has the greatest effect on subject contrast?
A. mA
B. Time (seconds)
C. kVp
D. SID

C. kVp

-Subject contrast is affected by tissue thickness, tissue density and x-ray beam energy (kVp).

154

A female gonadal shield should be placed with:
A. the upper margin covering the breasts.
B. the upper margin at the iliac crests and the lower margin at the symphysis pubis.
C. the lower margin at the symphysis pubis and the upper margin on the pelvic inlet.
D. the lower margin at the symphysis pubis and the upper margin at the level of the ischial spines.

C. the lower margin at the symphysis pubis and the upper margin on the pelvic inlet.

-Gonadal shields are only used when they will not interfere with the examination.

155

In the case of an electrical emergency, which of the following should be done immediately?
A. Turn off the lights
B. Turn off the control panel
C. Turn off the main breaker switch
D. Call the hospital maintenance department

C. Turn off the main breaker switch

-The main breaker switch turns off the electrical current to the entire radiographic room. A quick response may prevent serious injury.

156

What is another name for the second cervical vertebra?
A. Axis
B. Atlas
C. Process
D. Spinous

A. Axis

-The 1st cervical vertebra (atlas) rotates around the axis (second cervical vertebra).

157

Which of the following would be found in a thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)?
A. Aluminum filter
B. Copper filter
C. Lithium fluoride crystal
D. Zinc cadmium sulfide screen

C. Lithium fluoride crystal

-When exposed to radiation, the TLD absorbs energy and stores it in the form of excited electrons in the lithium fluoride crystalline lattice. When heated, these excited electrons fall back to their normal orbital state with emission of visible light. The intensity of light is proportional to the radiation dose received.

158

Which of the following complications of diabetes results when a patient has an excess amount of insulin in his/her bloodstream?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Ketoacidosis
C. Respiratory distress
D. Hyperosmolar

A. Hypoglycemia

-The radiographer's response would be to get the patient something with sugar in it immediately?

159

Which of the following anatomical structures are part of the sternum?
1. Manubrium
2. Tubercle
3. Xiphoid process
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

C. 1 & 3 only

-A tubercle would be found on a rib, where it articulates with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra.

160

Which of the following grid ratios will result in the greatest increase in patient exposure?
A. no grid
B. 5:1 grid
C. 8:1 grid
D. 12:1 grid

D. 12:1 grid
An increase in grid ratio will absorb more scatter radiation resulting in a decrease in image brightness. Therefore, the exposure will have to be increased to produce the proper brightness. A 12:1 grid requires 5 times more exposure than no grid.

161

Which of the following positions/projections are required when the determination of the alignment of fractures is necessary?
A. AP only
B. AP and lateral
C. AP and both obliques
D. AP and PA

B. AP and lateral

-There always has to be two projections, 90 degrees from each other, in order to determine the alignment of fractures. AP and lateral are the required views.

162

Automatic exposure control (AEC) was used for an erect abdomen but the SID was left at 72" SID instead of moving it to 40". The image will be:
A. underexposed.
B. overexposed.
C. properly exposed.
D. fogged.

C. properly exposed.

-The AEC will remain on until the proper number of x rays have struck the ionization chamber. or until the backup time is reached. In most cases, the result would be a properly exposed image.

163

To introduce contrast medium for myelography, the subarachnoid space is punctured at which of the following sites?
A. C6-7
B. T10-11
C. L1-2
D. L3-4

D. L3-4
The subarachnoid space can be punctured at either C1-2 or L3-4.

164

Since imaging plates and flat-panel detectors are sensitive to scatter radiation, which of the following are necessary?
1. Restrict the beam to just the area of interest
2. Do not overexpose the patient, even though you can with digital imaging
3. Use a grid for any part greater than 10 cm, and on all adult chests
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
Even low levels of scatter radiation effect digital image receptors. Using beam restrictors, technique charts or automatic exposure control (AEC), and grids are necessary to produce an optimum digital image.

165

Which vertebrae have costovertebral joints?
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacrum

B. Thoracic

-A costovertebral joint is where the head of a rib articulates with the facet of a thoracic vertebra.

166

Which of the following needles has the smallest lumen?
A. 15 gauge
B. 19 gauge
C. 21 gauge
D. 25 gauge

D. 25 gauge
-The larger the gauge number, the smaller the needle's diameter, or lumen. The 25 gauge needle has the smallest lumen

167

To reduce occupational exposure, the radiographer should consider which of the following before each exposure?
1. Time
2. Distance
3. Shielding
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
Known as the cardinal rules of radiation protection, the radiographer should spend as little time as possible in the imaging room during the exposure, put shielding between him/her and the source and stand back as far as possible.

168

Lead aprons CANNOT protect the radiographer from which of the following types of radiation?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Scatter
D. Leakage

A. Primary

-Lead aprons are designed to protect the radiographer from scatter radiation

169

Flat-panel detectors are sensitive to low intensity background radiation because of their wide dynamic range and high detective quantum
efficiency (DQE). How do flat-panel detectors remove the fog caused from background radiation?
A. The flat-panel is erased after every exposure
B. The flat-panel is removed and put through a reader
C. The flat-panel erase button is pushed on the control panel
D. The flat-panel is discharged electronically every 35 seconds

D. The flat-panel is discharged electronically every 35 seconds
-Approximately every 35 seconds, the flat-panel detectors' capacitors are electronically discharged. This removes any fog due to background radiation or scatter.

170
card image

In the drawing to the right, the red arrow is pointing to which of the following structures?
A. Common bile duct
B. Cystic duct
C. Hepatic duct
D. Pancreatic duct

A. Common bile duct

-The hepatic duct (leaving the liver) and the cystic duct (leaving the gallbladder) join together to form the common bile duct which empties bile into the duodenum.

171

A digital image receptor exposed to 50% less radiation than optimal will display which of the following?
A. Saturation
B. Quantum noise
C. Latitude
D. Distortion

B. Quantum noise

-An insufficient number of x rays will cause a grainy image. This grainy appearance is called quantum noise.

172

Which of the following speed classes will produce the longest time to process an image?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 400

D. 400
-The higher the speed class the longer the time to process an image.

173

How many milliseconds are in .10 seconds?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 100
D. 1000

C. 100

-The prefix "milli" stands for 1/1000 (one thousandth). There are 1000 milliseconds in 1 second or 100 milliseconds in .1 seconds

174

What is the greatest advantage of digital imaging?
A. Contrast resolution
B. Spatial resolution
C. Decreased exposure
D. Less distortion

A. Contrast resolution

-Digital imaging's exceptional ability to differentiate between the slight differences in subject contrast is its greatest advantage

175

How much should the patient be obliqued for a scapular Y position of the shoulder?
A. 15 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 75 degrees

C. 45 degrees

-The scapular Y position is used to rule out dislocation or fractures of the proximal humerus.

176

When does foreshortening occur?
A. When the object is angled and the CR and image receptor are perpendicular
B. When the CR and object are angled
C. When the CR and image receptor are angled
D. When the image receptor is angled and the object and CR are perpendicular

A. When the object is angled and the CR and image receptor are perpendicular

-Foreshortening only occurs when the object is angled.

177

Which of the following defines the ability of an image receptor to record a wide range of exposures?
A. Speed
B. Contrast
C. Latitude
D. Gamma

C. Latitude

-Latitude is the image receptor's ability to record a range of exposures that fall within the diagnostic range

178

Which of the following are reasons for nasogastric tubes?
1. Gastric decompression for small bowel obstruction
2. Feeding patients who are unable to swallow
3. Measuring central venous pressure
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

A. 1 & 2 only

-Central venous catheters like the Hickman and PIC are used for measuring central venous pressure

179

Which of the following exposure indicator numbers indicates that the patient was overexposed?
A. 2.5
B. 200
C. 1700
D. 2000

A. 2.5

-Agfa's perfect log median number is 2.2. Anything above that would indicate an overexposure. 2.5 indicates the patient received twice the necessary exposure.

180

Which of the digital radiography systems use exposure indicators (e.g., S-number) to express the radiation dose received by the image receptor?
A. Direct digital radiography
B. Indirect digital radiography
C. Computed radiography
D. Charge-coupled devices

C. Computed radiography

-Fuji calls it the S-number, Carestream calls it an exposure index (EI), and Agfa refers to it as log-median

181

Why is a small focal spot valuable to radiographic quality?
A. Improves spatial resolution
B. Improves contrast
C. Improves receptor exposure
D. Improves distortion

A. Improves spatial resolution

-The smaller the focal spot size, the less unsharpness and the better the spatial resolution.

182

Radiation that passes through the tube housing in directions other than that of the useful beam is termed what?
A. Primary
B. Scatter
C. Leakage
D. Remnant (exit)

C. Leakage

-Ideally, any radiation other than the primary beam, will get absorbed by the lead impregnated glass tube or tube housing

183

Epinephrine (Adrenalin) would be the drug needed for which of the following symptoms?
A. Nausea
B. Itching
C. Bronchospasms
D. Angina

C. Bronchospasms

-Epinephrine (Adrenalin) is classified as a bronchodilator. It increases the size of the bronchioles

184

Data corruption can occur during:
A. transmission.
B. retrieval.
C. processing.
D. all of the above

D. all of the above
Environmental conditions (microwaves) can interfere with wireless transmission, head crashes and general wear and tear can prevent retrieval, software errors with the system or application can cause processing errors.

185

Which of the following statements concerning mobile imaging is/are true?
1. The cord to the exposure switch must allow the radiographer to get at least 2 meters (6 feet) from the patient
2. All operators of mobile units should wear lead aprons
3. The source-to-skin distance cannot be less than 12"
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3
Items 1 & 2 protect the technologist, whereas, item 3 protects the patient.

186

Where does the CR enter for a PA finger only projection of the 3rd digit?
A. 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint
B. 3rd proximal interphalangeal joint
C. 3rd distal interphalangeal joint
D. 3rd carpophalangeal joint

B. 3rd proximal interphalangeal joint

-The CR is perpendicular, and enters at the 3rd proximal interphalangeal joint

187
card image

The red X is lying directly over which anatomical part of the kidney?
A. Ureter
B. Cortex
C. Major calyx
D. Renal pelvis

C. Major calyx

-The major calyces drain into the renal pelvis

188

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right colic flexure of the colon?
A. Right lateral
B. Right lateral decubitus
C. RAO
D. LAO

C. RAO

-The RAO (right anterior oblique) position best demonstrates the right colic flexure and the LAO (left anterior oblique) best demonstrates the left colic flexure.

189

What is the average pulse rate for an adult?
A. 30-40 beats per minute
B. 50-60 beats per minute
C. 70-80 beats per minute
D. 90-99 beats per minute

C. 70-80 beats per minute

-An adult's pulse rate under normal conditions would be 70 beats per minute; higher when active or under stress

190

The hematopoietic system includes which of the following?
A. Bone marrow
B. Spinal cord
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Epidermis

A. Bone marrow

-The hematopoietic system includes bone marrow, circulating blood, lymph nodes, and spleen.

191

Pneumonia is described by which of the following?
A. An acute inflammation of the lung
B. Air in the lungs
C. Lung congestion
D. Collapsed lung

A. An acute inflammation of the lung

-An acute inflammation (-itis) of the lungs describes pneumonia, which is caused primarily by bacteria, viruses, and chemical irritants

192

In opening a wrapped sterile package, how should the first outer corner of the wrap be opened?
A. Towards you
B. To the side
C. Away from you
D. With sterile gloves

C. Away from you

-The first wrap should be opened away from you so you won't have to reach over the sterile area to open the other three corners.

193

Digital imaging systems with high detective quantum efficiency (DQE) can produce _______ quality images at ______ patient doses.
A. lower, lower
B. higher, higher
C. higher, lower
D. lower, higher

C. higher, lower

-The better the system can detect the radiation, the better the image at a lower dose to the patient

194

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the scaphoid bone in the wrist?
A. PA - ulnar deviation
B. Radial flexion
C. Lateral
D. Tangential carpal canal

A. PA - ulnar deviation

-The scaphoid is near the radius. PA - ulnar deviation (moving the hand toward the ulna) opens the joints between the adjacent carpal bones

195

A zygapophyseal joint is an articulation between which two vertebral structures?
A. Pedicle and pars interarticularis
B. Lamina and transverse process
C. Inferior and superior articular processes
D. Body and vertebral foramen

C. Inferior and superior articular processes

-The cervical zygapophyseal joints are best demonstrated in a lateral position, the thoracic zygapophyseal joints are best demonstrated in a
70 degree oblique position and the lumbar zygapophyseal joints are best demonstrated in a 45 degree oblique position.

196

During which time period is the fetus most susceptible to the effects of radiation?
A. First trimester
B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester
D. Fourth trimester

A. First trimester

-According to the Law of Bergone and Tribondeau, the younger the tissues and organs are the more radiosensitive they are. Therefore, elective radiologic examinations should not be conducted during the first trimester

197

Which of the following anatomical structures is (are) demonstrated in a 45 degree oblique view of the cervical spine?
1. Pedicles
2. Zygapophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral foramina
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

C. 1 & 3 only

-The zygapophyseal joints will be best demonstrated in the lateral position of the cervical spine

198

How many phalanges are there in each foot?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 14
D. 24

C. 14

-Phalanges are the small bones that make up the digits (toes) of the foot. There are two phalanges in the 1st digit and three phalanges in the
2nd - 5th digits for a total of fourteen.

199

Which of the following is correct for an AP projection of the upper airway?
A. The acanthiomeatal line is perpendicular to the image receptor
B. The glabellomeatal line is perpendicular to the image receptor
C. The CR enters at the level of C2
D. The midsagittal plane is parallel to the image receptor

A. The acanthiomeatal line is perpendicular to the image receptor

-The chin must be raised to get an unobstructed view of the upper airway.

200

The allowable radiation dosage that is assumed to result in an average nominal lifetime risk is known as what?
A. Whole body dose
B. Equivalent dose limits
C. Genetically significant dose
D. Maximum permissible dose

B. Equivalent dose limits

-Even though any radiation exposure is considered potentially harmful, anyone receiving less than the equivalent dose limits is considered to be in a safe environment.