Phlebotomy Certification

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Phlebotomy Handbook
Chapters 1-17
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1

The first step in controlling severe bleeding is to?

A)Apply pressure directly over the wound or venipuncture site

B) send for medical assistance

C) start cardiopulmonary resuscitation

D) make the individual lie down and apply pressure totge persons forehead

A.)Apply pressure directly over the wound venipuncture site

2

If a health care provider is in an area of the health care facility where a fire starts, she or he should?

A) attempt to extinguishthe fire, using the proper equipment

B) pull the lever in the fire alarm box

C) block the entrances so that others will not entr the fire area

D) close all doorsand windows before leaving tge area

B) pull the lever in the fire alarm box

3

If an electrical accident occurs involving electrical shock to an employee or a patient, the first thing that the health care provider should do is?

A) move the victim away from the electricity

B) start CPR

C) shut off the electrical power

D) place a blanket over the victim

C) shut off the electrical power

4

The abbreviation Race is used in?

A) mechanical emergencies

B) radiation emergencies

C) electrical emergencies

D) fire emergencies

D) fire emergencies

5

A dosimeter badge is required in health care facilities for

A) radiation safety

B) fire safety

C) electrical safety

D) mechanical safety

A) radiation safety

6

MSDS stands for

A) mean safety data sheet

B) mean standard deviation sheet

C) material standard deviation sheet

D) material safety data sheet

D) material safety data sheet

7

CPR stands for

A) cardiopulmonary resuscitation

B) cardiopulmonary recovery

C) cardiopulmonary rescue

D)cardiopulmonary return

A) cardiopulmonary resuscitation

8

Which of the following describes the term systole

A) blood tension

B) a heart murmur

C) relaxation of the heart

D) contraction of the heart

D) contraction of the heart

9

Which of the following describes the term diastole

A) blood tension

B) a heart murmur

C) contraction of the heart

D) relaxation of the heat

D) relaxation of the heart

10

Which of the following veins is most commonly used for venipuncture

A) femoral

B) great saphenous

C) median cubical

D) brachial

C) median cubital

11

Hemoglobin content is assessed in the laboratory by analyzing

A) megakaryocytes

C) erythrocytes

12

Which of the following is another name for leukocytes

A) white blood cells

B) platelets

C) sera

D) red blood cells

A) white blood cells

13

Which of the following is another name for erythrocytes

A) a red blood cells

B) sera

C) platelets

D) white blood cells

A) red blood cells

14

Which of the following is another name thrombocytes

A) red blood cells

B) white blood cells

C) sera

D) platelets

D) platelets

15

Which of the following is true of a serum specimen

A) is rich in carbon

B) contains anticoagulant additive

C) does not contain an anticoagulant additive

D) is highly oxygenated

C) does not contain an anticoagulant additive

16

Leukemia is a condition in which

A) clothing factors do not work property

B) WBCs are overproduced and do not function correctly

C) there is anemia due to excessive venipuncture

D) there is a weekend area of the blood vessel wal

B) WBCs are overproduced and do not function correctly

17

Hemophilia is an inherited condition in which

A) there is a weakened area ofthe blood vessel wall

B) clotting factors do not work properly

C) there is anemia due to excessive venipuncture

D) there is a weakend area of the blood vessel wall

B) clotting factors do not work properly

18

Iatrogenic anemia is a condition in which

A) clothing factors do not work properly

B) the anemia is due to excessive venipuncture

C) there is a weakend area of blood vessel wall

D) WBCs are overproduced and do not function correctly

B) the anemia is due to excessive venipuncture

19

Thrombocytopenia is a condition in which there is a

A) low platelet count

20

Polycythemia is a condition in which there is a

A) high WBC count

B) high BUN

C) high RBC count

D) low platelet count

C) high RBC count

21

An XX pair of chromosomes means that the fetus will be a

A) brown- haired child

B) baby girl

C) blue- eyed child

D) baby boy

B) baby girl

22

A test request for O and P refers to

A) an evaluation for parasites

B) chromosomes analysis

C) oxygen and pH

D) occult blood and pathogens

A) an evaluation for parasite

23

Which of the following controls skin pigmentation

A) melanin

B) glucose

C) hemoglobin

D) vitamin d

A) melanin

24

Which of the followingis designed to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganism from both recognize and unrecognized sources of infectionin health care facilities

A) standard precautions

B) protective environment

C) droplet precautions

D) reverse isolation

A) standard precautions

25

Which of the organized overseers the investigation and control of various disease, especially those that are cummunicable

A) CLIA

B) THE JOINT COMMISSION

C) JCAHO

D)CDC

d) CDC

26

Which of the following is an agency of U.S. Department of labor that requires employers to provide measure that will protect workers exposed to biological hazards

A) the joint commission

B)CLIA

C) OSHA

D) CLSI

C) OSHA

27

If an accident such as a needlestick occurs, the injured health care worker should immediately:

A) contact his or her immediate supervisor
B) fill out the necessary health care forms
C) cleanse the area with isopropyl alcohol and apply an adhesive bandage
D) take the needle back to the clinical laboratory for verification of the accident

C) cleanse the area with isopropyl alcohol and apply an adhesive bandage

28

About how many patients acquire a nosocomial infection annually?

A) 1 to 1.5 million
B) 1.75 to 3 million
C) 4 to 5.5 million
D) 6 to 7.2 million

B) 1.75 to 3 million

29

Which of the following is a commonly identified pathogenic agent that affects the skin?

A) Shigella sp.
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Vibrio cholerae
D) Herpes virus

D) Herpes virus

30

Which of the following would require contact precautions?

A) scarlet fever
B) tuberculosis
C) rubella
D)herpes simplex

D)herpes simplex

31

Which of the following would require airborne precautions?

A) tuberculosis
B) scabies
C) rubella
D) hepatitis A

A) tuberculosis

32

Which of the following is a commonly identified causative agent of nosocomial infections in the nursery unit?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Haemophilus vaginalis
C) Shigella
D) Vibrio cholerae

A) Escherichia coli

33

Reverse isolation is commonly used for patients who have:

A) Vibrio cholerae
B) immunodeficiency disorders
C) hepatitis A
D) whooping cough

B) immunodeficiency disorders

34

Antiseptics for skin include:

A) hypochlorite solution
B) formaldehyde
C) iodine
D) ethylene oxi

C) iodine

35

Which of the following chemicals should be used to disinfect tourniquets and items contaminated with blood?

A) 70 percent isopropyl
B) 1:10 dilution of chlorine bleach
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) iodophors

B) 1:10 dilution of chlorine bleach

36

In health care facilities, which of the following is a typical fomite?

A) laboratory coat
B) 70% isopropyl alcohol
C) phlebotomy trey
D) iodine for blood culture collection

C) phlebotomy trey

37

Which of the following is the most important procedure in the prevention of disease transmission in health care institutions?

A) use of appropriate waste disposal practices
B) use of personal protective equipment
C) handwashing
D) reporting personal illnesses to supervisor

C) handwashing

38

22) Which of the following is a vector in transmitting infectious diseases?

A) age
B) mites
C) rabies
D) Salmonella

B) mites

39

A health care-acquired infection occurs when:

A) a source is detected
B) the chain of infection is complete
C) a means of transmission is maintained by disinfectants
D) a susceptible host remains stable

B) the chain of infection is complete

40

Disinfectants are:

A) quaternary ammonium compounds
B) chemicals that are used to remove or kill pathogenic microorganisms
C) used frequently on skin for removal of microorganisms

D) chemicals that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms but do not necessarily kill them

B) chemicals that are used to remove or kill pathogenic microorganisms

41

Prior to performing a venipuncture, why is it important to get information about whether or not the patient has eaten recently?

A) Laboratory tests can be affected by the ingestion of food and drink.
B) Meals tend to calm a patient down.
C) After eating, patients usually have enlarged veins.
D) To help evaluate on which side to perform the venipuncture.

A) Laboratory tests can be affected by the ingestion of food and drink.

42

Name one step that should not be in the handwashing procedure:

A) lathering with soap and water
B) scrubbing between the fingers
C) washing around the wrist area
D) turning off the water faucet with hands

D) turning off the water faucet with hands

43

Arteries differ from veins in which of the following ways?

A) thicker vessel walls with a pulsating feel
B) bluer in color
C) smaller in diameter
D) tend to be lipemica

A) thicker vessel walls with a pulsating feel

44

If arm veins cannot be used for a venipuncture, the preferred alternative veins lie in the:

A) ankles or feet
B) anterior surface of the hand or wrist
C) dorsal side of the hand or wrist
D) earlobe

C) dorsal side of the hand or wrist

45

During a typical venipuncture, the needle should be inserted at what angle to the skin?

A) 30 degrees or less
B) 45 degrees
C) 60 degrees
D) 90 degrees

A) 30 degrees or less

46

During the venipuncture procedure, what should the phlebotomist do after the needle is inserted and blood begins to flow?

A) release the tourniquet
B) withdraw the needle
C) release the adapter
D) adjust the hub of the needle

A) release the tourniquet

47

Which of the following information is essential for labeling a patient's specimen?

A) the patient's name and identification number, date of collection, room number, and the phlebotomist's initials
B) the patient's name and identification number, date of collection, time of collection
C) the patient's name and identification number, date and time of collection, the phlebotomist's
initials
D) the patient's name and identification number, date of collection, the physician's name

B) the patient's name and identification number, date of collection, time of collection

48

Steps in the identification process should include:

A) checking the verbal identification with a room number
B) a three-way match with verbal, ID bracelet, and requisition information
C) a two-way match with the ID bracelet and the verbal confirmation
D) a four-way match with the doctor, verbal ID, ID bracelet, and bed number

B) a three-way match with verbal, ID bracelet, and requisition information

49

If a venipuncture procedure is almost completed and suddenly you see hints of a hematoma beginning to form, what should you do?

A) finish collecting the tubes as quickly as possible
B) reinflate the blood pressure cuff to slow bleeding
C) remove the tube and try another one
D) discontinue the procedure and apply pressure with gauze

D) discontinue the procedure and apply pressure with gauze

50

Which specimen collection tube is commonly used for hematology tests?

A) EDTA
B) heparin
C) sodium citrat
D) serum tube with clot activator

C) sodium citrat

51

Adding too much blood to a sodium citrate tube can cause:

A) shorter clotting time
B) elevated hemoglobin
C) elevated glucose value
D) WBCs to clumpa

A) shorter clotting time

52

When collecting a blood specimen with the butterfly method and PT and PTT tests are the only tests ordered, what is the correct procedure?

A) use a single serum tube with clot activator
B) collect a sodium citrate tube first, then EDTA
C) use a discard tube, then collect a sodium citrate tube
D) collect a single blue-topped tube

C) use a discard tube, then collect a sodium citrate tube

53

Specimens may be rejected for a variety of reasons, most of which can be prevented by experienced, professional phlebotomists. Identify one reason for specimen rejection that relates to unnecessary, but excessive, mixing of the specimen.

A) Specimen is lipemic.
B) Specimen is hemolyzed.
C) Specimen is arterialized.
D) Specimen is icteric.

B) Specimen is hemolyzed.

54

If the tourniquet is applied to the arm for longer than 2 minutes, which of the following analytes will most likely become falsely elevated?

A) potassium
B) blood urea nitrogen
C) uric acid
D) bilirubin

A) potassium

55

When blood is to be collected for a glucose tolerance test, the patient should fast for:

A) 3-5 hours
B) 6-8 hours
C) 8-12 hours
D) 12-14 hours

C) 8-12 hours

56

Which of the following analytes is significantly increased in the blood with changes in position?

A) cortisol
B) calcium
C) glucose
D) testosterone

C) glucose

57

An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the intercellular spaces of the body that is localized or diffused is referred to as:

A) hemoconcentration
B) atherosclerosis
C) hemolysis
D) edema

A) hemoconcentration

58

Upon entering Ms. Newhouse's hospital room, the phlebotomist introduced herself and explained she was going to collect blood for laboratory tests requested by the physician. The patient became very anxious and said she was frightened of needles; then she started sweating from being frightened of the procedure. This patient's emotional stress could lead to a decrease in which of the following?

A) white blood cell count
B) serum iron level
C) albumin
D) glucose

B) serum iron level

59

Which of the following would most likely not be an explanation for turbid serum?

A) elevated glucose
B) elevated triglyceride levels
C) elevated cholesterol levels
D) bacterial contamination

A) elevated glucose

60

When hemoglobin is released from RBCs and serum becomes tinged as pink or red, this condition is referred to as:

A) hyperlipidemia
B) hemolysis
C) hemoconcentration
D) hemophilia

B) hemolysis

61

If a patient begins to have a seizure during venipuncture, the phlebotomist should immediately:

A) place the patient on the floor
B) run for a physician
C) release the tourniquet
D) hold pressure on the blood collection site

C) release the tourniquet

62

Hemolysis in collected blood can cause a falsely decreased value for:

A) hemoglobin
B) phosphorus
C) ammonia
D) total protein

A) hemoglobin

63

The EDTA blood collection tube must not be underfilled, since it has been shown to lead to:

A) high lithium levels
B) low hematocrit levels
C) low sodium levels
D) high blood cell counts

B) low hematocrit levels

64

What additive destroys the enzymes in the blood when the gray-topped tube is used to collect blood?

A) sodium citrate
B) sodium fluoride
C) sodium heparin
D) lithium heparin

B) sodium fluoride

65

Which of the following laboratory test results are affected most if the patient is not fasting?

A) cortisol
B) prothrombin time
C) glucose
D) AST

C) glucose

66

SPS tubes are used in the collection of:

A) clinical chemistry specimens
B) microbiology specimens
C) microscopy specimens
D) clinical immunology specimens

B) microbiology specimens

67

which of the following additives found in a royal blue topped blood collection tube

A) sodium citrate

B) ammonium heparin

C) lithium heparin

D)clot activator

D)clot activator

68

The yellow-topped blood collection tube has which of the following additives?

A) EDTA
B) sodium polyanethol sulfonate
C) trisodium citrate
D) lithium heparin

B) sodium polyanethol sulfonate

69

The safety butterfly blood collection system is frequently used with a needle gauge size of:

A) 21
B) 19
C) 18
D) 16

A) 21

70

For newborns, the penetration depth of safety lancets for blood collection must be:

A) 3.0 mm or less
B) 2.6 mm or less
C) 2.2 mm or less
D) 2.0 mm or less

D) 2.0 mm or less

71

Which of the following needle gauges has the smallest diameter?

A) 19
B) 20
C) 21
D) 23

D) 23

72

A blood cell count requires whole blood to be collected in a:

A) lavender-topped tube
B) gray-topped tube
C) green-topped tube
D) yellow-topped tube

A) lavender-topped tube

73

Which of the following tests usually requires blood collected in a tan-topped blood collection tube?

A) cortisol
B) CBC
C) lead
D) CK

C) lead

74

Which of the following is a commonly used intravenous device that is sometimes used in the collection of blood from patients who are difficult to collect blood by conventional methods?

A) BMP LeukoChek
B) BD Microtainer
C) butterfly needle
D) Seraket

C) butterfly needle

75

The color coding for needles indicates the:

A) length
B) gauge
C) manufacturer
D) anticoagulant

B) gauge

76

Which of the following anticoagulants is found in a green-topped blood collection tube?

A) EDTA
B) sodium heparin
C) sodium citrate
D) potassium oxalate

B) sodium heparin

77

Which of the following is an anticoagulant used in blood donations?

A) sodium citrate
B) citrate-phosphate-dextrose
C) ethylene-diamine tetra-acetic acid
D) lithium iodoacetate

B) citrate-phosphate-dextrose

78

The gold-topped blood collection tube should be gently inverted how many times after blood is collected?

A) 5 times
B) 8 times
C) 10 times
D) 12 times

A) 5 times

79

Which of the following blood collection tubes is most appropriate for the sterile blood collection of trace elements and nutritional studies?

A) gold-topped tube
B) royal blue-topped tube
C) purple-topped tube
D) yellow-topped tube

B) royal blue-topped tube

80

Which of the following blood collection tubes is most appropriate for the collection of blood for a DIFF?

A) royal blue-topped tube
B) purple-topped tube
C) gold-topped tube
D) light blue-topped tube

B) purple-topped tube

81

How many times should the lavender-topped blood collection tube be inverted after blood collection?

A) 5 times
B) 8 times
C) 10 times
D) 12 times

B) 8 times

82

Which of the following additives is not in a gray-topped blood collection tube?

A) sodium fluoride
B) sodium citrate
C) potassium oxalate
D) EDTA

B) sodium citrate

83

Which of the following blood collection tubes is most appropriate for blood bank collections?

A) pink-topped tube
B) gold-topped tube
C) light blue-topped tube
D) royal blue-topped tube

A) pink-topped tube

84

Failure to act or perform duties according to the standard of care for phlebotomy is:

A) a battery
B) negligence
C) criminal action
D) slander

B) negligence

85

In legal cases, "what a reasonably prudent person would do under similar circumstances" refers to:

A) informed consent
B) implied consent
C) standard of care
D) bioethics

C) standard of care

86

When a phlebotomist gives aid during an emergency, he or she is usually protected through:

A) rightful action consent
B) CLIA
C) FDA
D) implied consent

D) implied consent

87

The federal law enacted that regulates the quality and accuracy of laboratory testing (including phlebotomy procedures) by creating a uniform set of provisions governing all clinical laboratories is referred to as:

A) HCFA
B) CLIA
C) FDA
D) The Joint Commission

B) CLIA

88

Which of the following agencies administers CLIA?

A) FDA
B) CMS
C) CPS
D) EPA

B) CMS

89

Which of the following branches of government writes laws that are called statutes?

A) judicial branch
B) U.S. Supreme Court
C) executive branch
D) legislative branch

D) legislative branch

90

CLIA is enforced by the:

A) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
B) Centers for Disease and Prevention Control
C) Health Care Financing Administration
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

A) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

91

Which federal law states that a laboratory with moderately complex or highly complex testing must have written policies and procedures for specimen collection and labeling?

A) FDA
B) CLIA
C) EPA
D) OSHA

B) CLIA

92

Which of the following has recognized rights for patients in health care organizations through "The Patient Care Partnership"?

A) CLIA
B) AHA
C) CDC
D) OSHA

B) AHA

93

Under which of the following concepts are the supervisors and directors of laboratories held liable for the negligent actions of their employees?

A) misrepresentation
B) res ipsa loquitur
C) respondeat superior
D) malice

C) respondeat superior

94

Which of the following is the best example of setting the standard of care for blood collection?

A) Southwest Regional Phlebotomists' Association
B) Texas Association for Clinical Laboratory Sciences
C) California Clinical Laboratory Association
D) The Joint Commission

D) The Joint Commission

95

Professional negligence in blood collection is the same as:

A) malice
B) malpractice
C) informed consent

B) malpractice

96

A patient's medical record can best be described as:

A) a legal document that provides a chronological log of care
B) a legal document that is available only to the patient's physician
C) the procedure for a selected care plan
D) public information that may be disclosed during a financial inquiry

A) a legal document that provides a chronological log of care

97

The Joint Commission is a(n):

A) proficiency testing agency
B) accrediting agency for health care facilities
C) agency that administers certifications
D) governmental agency that administers Medicare

C) agency that administers certifications

98

Which of the following terms refers to the speed and urgency of one's voice?

A) STAT
B) tone
C) pace
D) volume

C) pace

99

Which of the following terms refers to the intonation or pitch of one's voice?

A) STAT
B) tone
C) pace
D) volume

B) tone

100

What does the abbreviation ADA stand for?

A) American Diabetic Association
B) Association for Drug Assays
C) Association for Diagnostic Antibiotics
D) Americans with Disabilities Act

D) Americans with Disabilities Act

101

The space or distance between people during an interaction is called:

A) range of motion
B) area of definition
C) zone of comfort
D) safety zone

C) zone of comfort

102

What are "delta checks"?

A) competency checklists
B) manual recording system for laboratory results
C) QC that allows for detection of significant changes in laboratory results
D) QA methodology that allows for the monitoring of mislabeled specimens

C) QC that allows for detection of significant changes in laboratory results

103

The term Phlebotomy is derived fom Greek words that mean

a. droplet, vein
b. vein, cut
c. blood, droplet
d. red, blood

b. vein, cut

104

The terms venesection/venisection are synonymous with which of the following?

a. topside of vein
b. blood vein
c. phlebotomy
d. venous circulation

c. phlebotomy

105

Acute care refers to which type of hospital care?

a. nursing home
b. long-term
c. hospice
d. short-term

d. short-term

106

which agency oversees the categorization of laboratory tests according to the level of complexity and the risk involved for the patient if errors are made

A) the joint commission

B) CLIA

C) CDC

D) ISO

B) CLIA

107

which of the following is the medical specialty that pertains to the diagnosis and treatment of skin disoders?

a. dermatology
b. pathology
c. immunology
d. otolaryngology

a. dermatology

108

Which of the following specialties would relate to diagnosis and treatment of cancer?

a. dermatology
b. oncology
c. orthopedics
d. infectious diseases

b. oncology

109

Assessing a patient for a suitable vein to perform a venipuncture procedure is an example of which phase of laboratory testing?

a. preexamination/preanalytical
b. examination/analytical
c. postexamination/postanalytical
d. notification/reporting

a. preexamination/preanalytical

110

Centrifugation of a blood specimen is an example of which phase of laboratory testing?

a. preexamination/preanalytical
b. examination/analytical
c. postexamination/postanalytical
d. notification/reporting

a. preexamination/preanalytical

111

Performing a laboratory assay on a patient's blood specimen is an example of which phase of laboratory testing?

a. preexamination/preanalytical
b. examination/analytical
c. postexamination/postanalytical
d. notification/reporting

b. examination/analytical

112

In which of the circumstances below is the phlebotomist likely to collaborate with the pharmacy?

a. when the patient is overly angry or agitated
b. when a patient requests a painkiller
c. when asked to collect specimens for drug monitoring
d. when looking for a suitable vein for the venipuncture procedure

c. when asked to collect specimens for drug monitoring

113

Which of the following aspects would do the most to promote a professional appearance in a patient care setting?

a. good posture and personal hygiene
b. quality control monitors
c. documentation procedures
d. use of a strong assertive voicea

a. good posture and personal hygiene

114

Which of the following is a test of moderate complexity

A) mononucleosis test

B) occult blood detection

C) urine pregnancy test

D) blood chemistries

D) blood chemistries

115

Among health care organizations, which of the following is a typical long-term facility?

a. nursing home
b. emergency care center
c. health and fitness club
d. county hospital

a. nursing home

116

Licensure typically refers to

a. providing up-to-date income tax records
b. maintaining all immunizations up to date
c. passing a state-required examination and/or continuing education
d. joining a professional organization

c. passing a state-required examination and/or continuing education

117

The term "right to know" refers to

a. keeping the patient's condition confidential while outside the health care organization
b. the patient's right to information about his procedures and who is performing them
c. accountability of the phlebotomist to know details of every clinical test
d. allowing employers to know personal details of each employee

b. the patient's right to information about his procedures and who is performing them

118

Which of the following is an important work-related characteristic that is helpful for phlebotomists?

a. a keen sense of direction
b. enjoying working with small objects
c. being very athletic
d. involvement in community activities

b. enjoying working with small objects

119

Which of the following is acceptable attire for a phlebotomist?

a. dangling earrings
b. necklace tucked inside a collar
c. fragrances and perfumes
d. long, polished fingernails

b. necklace tucked inside a collar

120

An XY pair of chromosomes means that the fetus will be a:

A) baby boy
B) baby girl
C) brown-haired child
D) fraternal twin

A) baby boy

121

The ________ hand should be used for a fingerstick, if possible.

nondominant

122

When performing a fingerstick, the puncture should be oriented ________ to or across the fingerprint ridges.

perpendicular

123

The most reliable labeling method for avoiding transcription errors in specimen collection is:

A) handwritten labels at the patient's bedside
B) bar-coded computerized labels
C) addressograph labels
D) none of the above

B) bar-coded computerized labels

124

The TAT refers to:

A) the time it takes for laboratory test results to be completed
B) the patient's temperature at 10:00 A.M.
C) transfusion-associated testing
D) delays due to transportation of a specimen

A) the time it takes for laboratory test results to be completed

125

Which of the following is a possible occurrence if a blood specimen tube for hematology tests is filled correctly but mixed too long or too vigorously?

A) Hemolysis will occur.
B) Hemoconcentration will occur.
C) Tiny clots will form in the specimen.
D) The specimen will be lipemic.

A) Hemolysis will occur.

126

Glycolytic action refers to:

A) hemolysis
B) hemostasis
C) breakdown of glucose
D) breakdown of hemoglobin

C) breakdown of glucose

127

Cooling a blood specimen causes:

A) slowing of metabolic processes
B) hemolysis
C) hemoconcentration
D) hemostasis

A) slowing of metabolic processes

128

Assays that require a chilled specimen include:

A) glucose, cholesterol, and prostatic-specific antigen
B) gastrin, ammonia, catecholamine, and lactic acid
C) tests for electrolytes
D) all hematology tests

B) gastrin, ammonia, catecholamine, and lactic acid

129

To chill a blood specimen as it is transported, the health care worker should use:

A) tepid water
B) a small freezer unit
C) icy water or commercial ice pack
D) blocks of ice

C) icy water or commercial ice pack

130

Specimens that require protection from light include those for:

A) CBC, diff, and platelet counts
B) PT and PTTs
C) bilirubin and vitamin B12
D) hormone analyses

C) bilirubin and vitamin B12

131

When designing a report form for laboratory results, what key elements would not be included?

A) patient and physician identification
B) date and time of collection
C) reference ranges
D) physician's home address and phone number

D) physician's home address and phone number

132

For specimens that require centrifugation, serum or plasma should be removed from the cells within what period of time?

A) 5 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 3 hours
D) 2 hours

D) 2 hours

133

How long does it usually take for a serum specimen (without additives) to form a clot?

A) 5-10 minutes
B) 15-20 minutes
C) 20-25 minutes
D) 30-60 minutes

D) 30-60 minutes

134

For children older than ________ year, a fingerstick is appropriate for blood collection.

1

135

If an incision for a heelstick goes deeper than ________ mm in a newborn, it can lead to osteomyelitis.

2.0 mm

136

________ blood is the specimen of choice for blood gas testing.

arterial

137

In the hospital, it is best to perform a blood collection procedure on a child in a ________ room.

treatment

138

Bedside testing is also referred to as ________, or point-of-care testing.

POCT

139

Diabetes mellitus is a disease in which the ________ cannot produce enough insulin.

pancreas

140

The abbreviation Na+ stands for ________.

sodium

141

PT stands for ________.

prothrombin time

142

Blood cultures are often collected from patients who have fevers of __________________ origin.

Unkown

143

The purpose of the ____________ is to test the efficiency of the body's insulin - releasing mechanism and glucose - disposing system.

GTT

144

ABG'S stands for

Arterial blood gases

145

A __________ is a artificial shunt in which the vein and artery have been fused through surgery.

Fistula

146

The _____ test is used as the gold standard in the diagnostic of cystic fibrosis

Sweat chloride

147

The term used for intoxicated driving is _______

DWI

148

A term used to mean after death is ________.

postmortem

149

________ is the same in all cells of the body.

DNA

150

________ should not be used to cleanse a venipuncture site if collecting blood for BAC.

isopropanol

151

5) A device used to test the breath of a suspected drunk driver is a ________.

breathalyzer

152

9) A decedent is a person who is ________, expired, or dead.

deceased

153

All hospitalized patients should have a ________ identification number.

unique

154

Every blood specimen should be treated as if it were hazardous or ________

infectious

155

The lavender-topped blood collection tube contains the additive ________.

EDTA

156

The brown- topped blood collection tube is used for ________ determinations

Lead

157

Sodium ________ is contained in green-topped blood collection tubes.

heparin

158

The ________ number indicates the diameter of the needle.

gauge

159

The most common butterfly needle sizes are 21- and ________ gauge.

23

160

The ________ provides a barrier to slow down venous flow for use in venipuncture.

tourniquet

161

Disposable, sterile ________ that are retractable are used to avoid bloodborne pathogen exposure.

lancets

162

For infants, a depth of less than ________ mm on heelsticks is recommended to avoid penetrating bone

2

163

Venous blood flow in the arm is from the wrist to the shoulder or __________.

Elbow

164

Arteries have (thicker or thinner) vessel walls than veins.

Thicker

165

What substance in RBCs is responsible for oxygen transport?

Hemoglobin

166

Lactic acid is produced in the _________.

Muscles

167

The "master gland" is the ________ gland

Pituitary

168

GTT stands for

Glucose tolerance test

169

Blood cell formation is called

Hematopoesis

170

a patient with an active TB infection is placed in a hospital room with _______ air pressure

negative

171

The ________ of transmission for the pathogen to pass directly from the source to the host is part of the chain of infection.

mode

172

For the chain of infection to occur, a ________ must be present.

pathogen

173

________ infections occur when the chain of infection is complete.

nosocomial

174

a computer keyboard is considered a _______ in health care facilities

fomite

175

standard precautions have been designed through the ______ to decrease the risk of transmission to microorganisms

CDC

176

_______ precautions reduce the spread of infections from agents such as rubeola

Airborne

177

Chemical compounds that are used to remove or kill pathogenic microorganisms are called ________.

disinfectants

178

Syncope is another term for

Fainting

179

When RBCs are lysed, hemoglobin is released and this results in ________.

hemolysis

180

Plasma cholesterol will be falsely ________ if the tourniquet pressure is too tight or prolonged

elevated

181

Veins ________ when blood is withdrawn too quickly or forcefully during venipuncture.

collapse

182

When a patient has "difficult" veins, what strategies, if any, can be used to improve the likelihood of a successful puncture?

A) slight rotation of the patient's arm to a different position
B) palpating the entire antecubital area to trace vein path
C) warming the site
D) all of the above

D) all of the above

183

If arm veins cannot be used for a venipuncture, the preferred alternative veins lie in the:

A) ankles or feet
B) anterior surface of the hand or wrist
C) dorsal side of the hand or wrist
D) earlobe

C) dorsal side of the hand or wrist

184

Where should the tourniquet be placed on the patient during the venipuncture procedure?

A) 1 inch above the venipuncture site
B) over the venipuncture site
C) 3 inches above the venipuncture site
D) 3 inches below the venipuncture site

C) 3 inches above the venipuncture site

185

During a typical venipuncture, the needle should be inserted at what angle to the skin?

A) 30 degrees or less
B) 45 degrees
C) 60 degrees
D) 90 degrees

A) 30 degrees or less

186

During the venipuncture procedure, what should the phlebotomist do after the needle is inserted and blood begins to flow?

A) release the tourniquet
B) withdraw the needle
C) release the adapter
D) adjust the hub of the needle

A) release the tourniquet

187

When the evacuated tube method is used for venipuncture, select the correct order of collection for the following tubes: blood culture tubes, coagulation tube, and hematology tube. Choose the order of tubes by their color of closures.

A) light blue, lavender, yellow blood culture tubes
B) lavender, light blue, yellow blood culture tubes
C) yellow, blue, lavender blood culture tubes
D) light blue, yellow, lavender blood culture tubes

C) yellow, blue, lavender blood culture tubes

188

The term STAT refers to:

A) abstaining from food over a period of time
B) using timed blood collections for specific specimens
C) using the early-morning specimens for laboratory testing
D) immediate and urgent specimen collection

D) immediate and urgent specimen collection

189

Steps in the identification process should include:

A) checking the verbal identification with a room number
B) a three-way match with verbal, ID bracelet, and requisition information
C) a two-way match with the ID bracelet and the verbal confirmation
D) a four-way match with the doctor, verbal ID, ID bracelet, and bed number

C) a two-way match with the ID bracelet and the verbal confirmation

190

) If a patient is frail and has a tendency to faint, what equipment, if any, would be helpful in the specimen collection process?

A) a glass of juice
B) an oxygen mask
C) a recliner
D) a commercial warming device

C) a recliner

191

) If a patient has a bruise in the antecubital area of his right arm (his nondominant arm), what alternate site should be considered?

A) slight rotation of the patient's right arm to a different position
B) the edge of the antecubital area of the right arm
C) the antecubital area of the left arm
D) forget alternate sites and do a fingerstick on the right hand

C) the antecubital area of the left arm

192

One reason for hematoma formation during venipuncture is that the:

A) medial cubital vein is used
B) needle is parallel to the vein
C) needle is partially inserted in the vein
D) needle is too smal

D) needle is too small

193

How many more times should a phlebotomist try to perform a venipuncture on a patient if he has failed once already?

A) once
B) twice
C) three times
D) four times

A) once

194

Which specimen collection tube is commonly used for hematology tests?

A) EDTA
B) heparin
C) sodium citrate

A) EDTA

195

Which specimen collection tube is commonly used for hemostasis tests?

A) EDTA
B) heparin
C) sodium citrate

C) sodium citrate

196

Adding too much blood to a sodium citrate tube can cause:

A) shorter clotting time
B) elevated hemoglobin
C) elevated glucose value
D) WBCs to clump

A) shorter clotting time

197

When collecting a blood specimen with the butterfly method and PT and PTT tests are the only tests ordered, what is the correct procedure?

A) use a single serum tube with clot activator
B) collect a sodium citrate tube first, then EDTA
C) use a discard tube, then collect a sodium citrate tube
D) collect a single blue-topped tube

C) use a discard tube, then collect a sodium citrate tube