chapters 11 and 12 Flashcards


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1

Microbiological contaminants are best described as

unwanted microbes present on or in a substance.

2

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following, except:

hydrogen peroxide.

3

Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?

bacterial endospores

4

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is:

sterilization.

5

The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is:

sanitization.

6

The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is:

disinfection.

7

The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is:

antisepsis

8

Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is:

degermation.

9

Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility?

sporicide

10

Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?

cells in a culture die at a constant rate

11

Sterilization is achieved by:

steam autoclave.

12

Dry heat:

is less efficient than moist heat.

13

Endospores can be killed by:

A. dry heat at 170° C for 2 hours.

B. incineration.

C. glutaldehyde for 3 or more hours.

D. ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours.

All of the choices are correct.

14

The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are:

121° C at 15 psi for 15 minutes.

15

Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by:

pasteurization.

16

Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?

A.ground beef and other meat and poultry

B. human tissues such as heart valves and skin

C. operating room air

D. surgical gloves

All of the choices are correct.

17

HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from:

air

18

Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?

Tincture of iodine

19

All of the following are phenols or phenolics, except:

Chloramines.

20

. The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are:

vegetative bacteria and fungi.

21

All of the following pertain to hypochlorites, except:

found in iodophors.

22

Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic?

aqueous glutaraldehyde

23

Iodophors include:

Betadine.

24

The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings and is used increasingly for hand scrubbing, neonatal washes, wound degerming, and prepping surgical skin sites is:

Chlorhexidine.

25

Alcohols:

A. denature proteins when in a 50–95% solution.

B. are used to disinfect items by soaking.

C. are skin degerming agents.

D. at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids.

All of the choices are correct.

26

Which is mismatched?

A. Sodium hypochlorite - chlorine

B. Iodophor - iodine

C. Benzalkonium chloride - quaternary ammonium compound

D. Merthiolate - silver E. Formalin - formaldehyde

D. Merthiolate - silver E. Formalin - formaldehyde

27

All of the following are correct about iodophors, except:

this formulation allows a quick release of free iodine.

28

The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is:

ethylene oxide.

29

The chemical agent that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is:

Hydrogen peroxide.

30

All the following are correct about detergents, except:

they are active in the presence of organic matter.

31

Ethylene oxide is:

sporicidal.

32

Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced?

. chloramines

33

Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses?

hydrogen peroxide

34

Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant?

glutaraldehyde

35

All of the following are correct about food irradiation, except:

the World Health Organization does not endorse this process.

36

All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except:

it makes the food less nutritious.

37

All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization, except:

lyophilization.

38

Historically, which of the following was instilled into the eyes of newborn infants to prevent gonococcal infections?

silver nitrate

39

Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?

Pseudomonas

40

All of the following are correct about the autoclave, except:

it is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances.

41

Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation?

Alcohol

42

Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation to inanimate surfaces only removes or kills vegetative bacteria. The term that best describes this action is:

Disinfection

43

Which of these metals have antimicrobial properties associated with them?

Silver&Gold

44

Commercial products containing which types of chemicals are more effective at killing microorganisms?

bacteriocidal

45

Bacteriocidal agents are sterilants.

FALSE

46

Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells.

FALSE

47

The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of disinfectants.

TRUE

48

When a control agent targets the metabolic processes of microbial cells, active younger cells typically die more rapidly than older cells.

TRUE

49

A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing could be considered dead.

FALSE

50

Most microbial contaminants of food are killed at freezing temperatures.

FALSE

51

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called

. antibiotics.

52

Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed

broad-spectrum drugs.

53

Antibiotics are derived from all the following except

Staphylococcus.

54

Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include

A.readily delivered to the site of infection.

B. high toxicity against microbial cells.

C. do not cause serious side effects in humans.

D. remains active in body tissues and fluids.

E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

55

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause

superinfections.

56

Penicillins and cephalosporins

block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

57

Sulfonamides

are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

58

Aminoglycosides

attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

59

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have

a beta-lactam ring.

60

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is

clavulanic acid.

61

All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except

they are synthetic drugs.

62

Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?

gentamici

63

Gram negative bacilli are often treated with

aminoglycosides.

64

This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis

isoniazid.

65

Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?

trimethroprim

66

Which of these drugs is useful in treating infections by methicillin-resistant S. aureus and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus?

linezolid

67

All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except

are nephrotoxic.

68

Antimicrobics that are macrolides

include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin.

69

The drug that can cause aplastic anemia, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is

chloramphenicol.

70

The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is

clindamycin

71

The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is

amphotericin

72

The drug used for several protozoan infections is

metronidazole.

73

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections.

fungal

74

There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because these organisms

are so similar to human cells that selective drug toxicity is difficult to achieve.

75

Which of the following is not a mode of action of an antiviral?

bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

76

An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that

blocks DNA replication.

77

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat

HIV.

78

Acyclovir is used to treat

shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes.

79

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include

A.bacterial chromosomal mutations.

B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.

C. prevention of drug entry into the cell.

D. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets.

All of the choices are correct.

80

The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause

prevention of drug entry into the cell.

81

Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except

development of resistance to the drug.

82

A superinfection results from

decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species.

83

Drug susceptibility testing

determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics.

84

A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?

minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

85

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the

therapeutic index (TI).

86

Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed

narrow-spectrum drugs.

87

A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves

using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater.

88

Which of the following will influence a physician's decision to prescribe an antimicrobial?

A. patient age

B. pregnancy

C. liver function

D. alcohol use

All of the choices are correct.

89

All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except

a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic.

90

All of the following are correct about allergic reactions to drugs except

allergic reactions generally will occur the first time a person takes the drug.

91

Which bacteria does Levaquin target?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Haemophilus influenzae

C. Moraxella catarrhalis

D. Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

All of the choices are correct

92

All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except

they prevent assembly and release of the virus.

93

When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection.

FALSE

94

A semisynthetic antibiotic is a drug which is chemically modified in the laboratory after being isolated from natural sources.

TRUE

95

Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections.

FALSE

96

The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobic required to inhibit the growth of the microbe.

TRUE

97

Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.

FALSE

98

An antimicrobic with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index.

FALSE

99

The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface.

TRUE

100

Levaquin, a fluoroquinolone, kills viruses.

FALSE