Windows Server Study Guide Flashcards


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1

Chapter 7 Study Guide

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2

1. When using the MBR method of partitioning, where is the MBR located?
a. In the first sector and track of the hard disk.
b. In the last sector and track of the hard disk.
c. It is distributed across the disk.
d. It is stored in NVRAM on the hard drive.

a. In the first sector and track of the hard disk.

3

2. When using the GPT method of partitioning disks, where is the partition information stored?
a. At the first sector and track of the hard disk.
b. In the last sector and track of the hard disk.
c. In each partition using main and backup tables.
d. In the boot partition.

c. In each partition using main and backup tables.

4

3. How many partitions can exist on a GPT disk in Windows Server 2016?
a. 26
b. 32
c. 64
d. 128

d. 128

5

4. Regarding the partition scheme on a disk using MBR, what statement is true?
a. An MBR disk partition can be set as primary or secondary.
b. A primary partition must be marked as active in order for the system to boot.
c. Extended partitions can be marked as active.
d. A system with multiple partitions will boot from the first partition.

b. A primary partition must be marked as active in order for the system to boot.

6

5. When using dynamic disks, what is the volume that contains the \Windows folder called?
a. The system volume
b. The essential volume
c. The boot volume
d. The logical volume

c. The boot volume

7

6. What statement regarding spanned volumes is NOT accurate?
a. A spanned volume is stored on 2 to 32 dynamic disks.
b. A spanned volume cannot be expanded once created.
c. Data is added to a spanned volume in a sequential manner.
d. Failure of a single disk in a spanned volume means the entire volume fails.

b. A spanned volume cannot be expanded once created.

8

7. When using a Windows Server 2016 striped volume, what is the size of the blocks that are striped across the members of the volume?
a. 8KB
b. 16KB
c. 32KB
d. 64KB

d. 64KB

9

8. In order to convert a basic disk to a dynamic disk, how much free space must be available on the disk?
a. 512K
b. 1MB
c. 10MB
d. 128MB

b. 1MB

10

9. What command can be run to perform a check of the C: drive and fix any errors found with the file system?
a. fsck C:\ -f
b. checkfs C:\
c. chkdsk /f C:\
d. fsverify --force C:\

c. chkdsk /f C:\

11

10. What chkdisk flag allows chkdsk to go directly to a corrupted spot identified by the Spot Verifier service?
a. /resume
b. /spotfix
c. /corrupted
d. /fixbad

b. /spotfix

12

11. What RAID level offers no redundancy features and is targeted towards performance?
a. RAID-0
b. RAID-2
c. RAID-5
d. RAID-6

a. RAID-0

13

12. Disk duplexing is the same as what type of disk redundancy?
a. Disk striping with parity
b. Disk leveling
c. Disk mirroring
d. Disk high-level striping

c. Disk mirroring

14

13. What is NOT a RAID level supported by Windows Server 2016?
a. RAID-0
b. RAID-1
c. RAID-2
d. RAID-5

c. RAID-2

15

14. What statement regarding the implementation of RAID on Windows Server 2016 is NOT accurate?
a. Boot and system files can be placed on RAID level 5, but not on RAID level 1.
b. RAID level 1 requires a minimum of two hard disks.
c. RAID level 5 requires more memory than RAID level 1.
d. RAID level 5 has much faster read access than RAID level 1.

a. Boot and system files can be placed on RAID level 5, but not on RAID level 1.

16

15. You are configuring a RAID-5 array with five disks, each disk is 3TB in size. What will be the total usable size of the RAID-5 volume?
a. 3 TB
b. 6 TB
c. 12 TB
d. 15 TB

c. 12 TB

17

16. What is NOT one of the advantages of using a hardware RAID over a software RAID?
a. Faster read and write response
b. Ability to place boot and system files on different RAID levels
c. Ability to hot swap a failed disk
d. Increased fault tolerance

d. Increased fault tolerance

18

17. What communications protocol and interface has been created for solid state drives to enable much faster data access and to reduce data latency?
a. Serial Advance Technology Attachment (SATA)
b. Non-volatile Memory Express (NVMe)
c. Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)
d. Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)

b. Non-volatile Memory Express (NVMe)

19

18. In the Windows Backup window, what type of backup item option creates a binary image of the operating system and all files that can be used for a full restore?
a. System state
b. System reserved
c. Whole system
d. Bare metal recovery

d. Bare metal recovery

20

19. In the Windows Backup window, what information is covered by a backup including "system state" data?
a. Operating system and boot files, and extra components such as roles and features installed.
b. Operating system only.
c. Operating system and boot files only.
d. The Boot and Recovery volumes.

a. Operating system and boot files, and extra components such as roles and features installed.

21

20. What statement regarding the Windows Server Backup tool is NOT accurate?
a. The Windows Server Backup tool only backs up to NTFS and not FAT volumes.
b. The Windows Server Backup tool can't restore backups made from pre-Windows Server 2008 that use ntbackup.exe.
c. The Windows Server Backup tool can't perform a backup to an external drive.
d. The Windows Server Backup tool can't perform a backup to a tape.

c. The Windows Server Backup tool can't perform a backup to an external drive.

22

21. When using Windows Server 2016 Device Specific Module (DSM), what configuration model allows you to cycle through functional paths in order?
a. Failback
b. Dynamic Least Queue Depth
c. Weighted Path
d. Round Robin

d. Round Robin

23

22. When using GPT disk partitions, the size is limited only by the operating system, rather than any physical limit.
a. True
b. False

a. True

24

23. When using Windows Server 2016, you are limited to a maximum of 26 mounted drives.
a. True
b. False

b. False

25

24. Converting from a basic disk to a dynamic disk wipes all data from the disk's volumes.
a. True
b. False

b. False

26

25. Using a RAID array, regardless of the level, ensures that you no longer have to do backups.
a. True
b. False

b. False

27

Chapter 10 Study Guide

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28

1. What statement regarding the use of Group Policies is accurate?
a. Group Policies can only be set for a site or domain.
b. Group policy cannot be set for non-OU folder containers.
c. Group policy objects are local only.
d. When Group Policy is updated, old policies are cached.

b. Group policy cannot be set for non-OU folder containers.

29

2. What password security option ensures that a user must choose new passwords when a password change is required?
a. Maximum password age
b. Minimum password age
c. Passwords must meet complexity requirements
d. Enforce password history

d. Enforce password history

30

3. What version of Kerberos is utilized by Windows Server 2016?
a. Kerberos v3
b. Kerberos v4
c. Kerberos v5
d. Kerberos v6

c. Kerberos v5

31

4. What type of an attack is the account lockout feature specifically designed to prevent?
a. Man-in-the-middle attack
b. Brute force attack
c. Smurf attack
d. Phishing attack

b. Brute force attack

32

5. How long is a permanent ticket, or service ticket, good for?
a. The ticket is good for as long as the authenticated account exists.
b. The ticket is good for a maximum period of two weeks.
c. The ticket is good for the duration of the logon session.
d. The ticket is good until the targeted service the ticket authorizes access to times out the session.

c. The ticket is good for the duration of the logon session.

33

6. What encryption standard is utilized with Kerberos on Windows Server 2016 and Windows 10?
a. DES
b. 3DES
c. AES
d. Blowfish

c. AES

34

7. What authentication standard is utilized for Windows Server 2016 if Active Directory is not installed?
a. Kerberos
b. Windows NT LAN Manager version 1
c. Windows NT LAN Manager version 2
d. Windows Advanced Authentication Manager

c. Windows NT LAN Manager version 2

35

8. What Kerberos account policy can be configured to encourage users to sign out after a certain amount of time?
a. Enforce user logon restrictions
b. Maximum lifetime for user ticket
c. Maximum lifetime for service ticket
d. Maximum lifetime for user ticket renewal

b. Maximum lifetime for user ticket

36

9. What security feature created by Microsoft enables the ability to define security rights for documents, spreadsheets, e-mail, and other types of files created by applications, going beyond what is possible with ACLs and the Windows Firewall?
a. Windows Rights Assignment Service
b. Windows Secure Access Control
c. Rights Management Services
d. Permissions and Rights Assessment Service

c. Rights Management Services

37

10. What command provides the account using it with a new encryption key, meaning that previous keys associated with other accounts are no longer valid?
a. cipher /r
b. cipher /k
c. crypto-rekey /a
d. key-regen /f

b. cipher /k

38

11. You are utilizing BitLocker Drive Encryption, and are attempting to update Windows Server 2016. What must be done so that the update will be successful?
a. You must authenticate with an approved BitLocker administrative account.
b. You must provide the BitLocker drive password to make changes.
c. You must perform the update through the BitLocker Drive Encryption utility, and allow updates to be performed.
d. You must disable BitLocker Drive Encryption and then re-enable it after the update.

d. You must disable BitLocker Drive Encryption and then re-enable it after the update.

39

12. What happens when a Group Policy setting is defined in User Configuration and in Computer configuration?
a. Both policies are disabled until the conflict is resolved.
b. The User configuration items take precedence over the Computer configuration items.
c. The Computer configuration items take precedence over the User configuration items.
d. The Group Policy Management Editor prompts the Administrator to rectify the policy conflict before the policy can be saved.

c. The Computer configuration items take precedence over the User configuration items.

40

13. What does the "Enforce user logon restrictions" option do when configuring Kerberos?
a. It turns on Kerberos security.
b. It forces the application of user configuration options defined by Group Policy.
c. It forces a user to be subject to logon restrictions defined in the user's properties under Active Directory Users and Computers.
d. It enforces the account password configuration options defined in Group Policy during the login phase.

a. It turns on Kerberos security.

41

14. When using Rights Management Services security, documents are encrypted using an AES key and what other additional key?
a. DSA
b. RSA
c. ECDSA
d. ECRSA

b. RSA

42

15. If a computer is not equipped with a TPM chip, how can a computer make use of BitLocker Drive Encryption?
a. The computer will require the use of a smart card reader that can be used to authenticate the user.
b. The computer will require a password on a cold start up to ensure that the drive contents are accessed by authorized users.
c. The computer will utilize BitLocker encryption, but security will be provided at the software level as opposed to the hardware level.
d. The computer will require a USB flash drive that contains a personal identification number used to start the computer and secure the drive.

d. The computer will require a USB flash drive that contains a personal identification number used to start the computer and secure the drive.

43

16. When configuring Windows Firewall exceptions, what is NOT one of the items that can be added as an exception?
a. TCP and UDP ports
b. IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
c. Network interfaces
d. Users

d. Users

44

17. What Group Policy option can be used to force off users who have not logged off after hours, using logon hour controls?
a. Network security: Enforce logon hours
b. Network security: Force logoff when logon hours expire
c. Account policy: Disallow user sessions when logon hours expire
d. Account policy: Log off users when logon hours expire

b. Network security: Force logoff when logon hours expire

45

18. What UAC mode allows for a program to prompt for permissions and extensive access when required, while otherwise keeping administrator accounts in a standard user mode?
a. Pseudo-Admin Mode
b. Limited Admin Mode
c. Administrator Approval Mode
d. Restricted Access Mode

c. Administrator Approval Mode

46

19. What OU can be assigned Group Policy settings in Active Directory?
a. Builtin
b. Computers
c. Managers
d. Users

b. Computers

47

20. When considering GPO precedence between local GPO, default domain GPO, domain controller GPO, site GPO and OU GPOs, what GPOs are applied first?
a. OU GPOs
b. default domain GPOs
c. local GPOs
d. site GPOs

b. default domain GPOs

48

21. Why should event auditing policies be used sparingly?
a. Event auditing can provide an attacker with valuable information regarding the structure of a network's security policies.
b. Event auditing can fill the Security event log and consume considerable resources.
c. Event auditing can trigger access warning messages for users.
d. Event auditing can affect the access control list security for protected objects.

b. Event auditing can fill the Security event log and consume considerable resources.

49

22. What would be the reason to utilize the Windows NT LAN Manager version 2 (NTLMv2) over Kerberos?
a. NTLMv2 provides advanced encryption through AES.
b. NTLMv2 can be used in conjunction with Read-Only Domain Controllers.
c. NTLMv2 provides compatibility with all versions of Windows, including legacy systems.
d. NTLMv2 provides a performance benefit over Kerberos.

c. NTLMv2 provides compatibility with all versions of Windows, including legacy systems.

50

23. What is the smallest Active Directory container or object with which a GPO can be linked?
a. An organizational unit
b. A user
c. A group
d. A computer

a. An organizational unit

51

24. What flag used in conjunction with cipher will invoke the recovery agent key so that a server administrator can set up a recovery policy?
a. cipher /e
b. cipher /r
c. cipher /n
d. cipher /u

b. cipher /r

52

25. BitLocker Drive Encryption prevents an attacker from bypassing access control list file and folder protections on a stolen hard drive.
a. True
b. False

a. True

53

26. Group Policies can be used to prevent a user from being able to access the Control Panel or specific Control Panel options.
a. True
b. False

a. True

54

27. A computer that is not equipped with a TPM chip cannot use the BitLocker Drive Encryption feature.
a. True
b. False

b. False

55

28. The sc query windefend command can be used to determine the status of Windows Defender.
a. True
b. False

a. True

56

Chapter 11 Study Guide

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57

1. What is NOT one of the four main categories that are monitored by Resource Monitor?
a. CPU
b. Firewall
c. Disk
d. Memory

b. Firewall

58

2. You are troubleshooting a server and have found that that the processor usage is frequently over 85%, even when under normal loads. What should be done to rectify the problem?
a. The system's priority should be switched from Programs to Services.
b. The processor should be upgraded.
c. The memory available in the system should be increased.
d. The critical processes on the server should be set to realtime priority.

b. The processor should be upgraded.

59

3. What critical service supports shared objects, logon services, print services, and remote procedure calls?
a. Remote Procedure Call
b. Workstation
c. Print spooler
d. Server

d. Server

60

4. When creating a dump file from an application or process, where is the dump file placed?
a. \Temp\dumpfolder#\programprocessname.DMP
b. \Windows\System32\dumpfolder#\programprocessname.DMP
c. \Users\ADMINISTRATOR\AppData\Local\Temp\dumpfolder#\programprocessname.DMP
d. \Users\ADMINISTRATOR\dumpfolder#\programprocessname.DMP

c. \Users\ADMINISTRATOR\AppData\Local\Temp\dumpfolder#\programprocessname.DMP

61

5. What is the role of the svchost.exe process on a running system?
a. It is the Session Manager Subsystem and a vital service for a server.
b. It is a vital process for running .dll files that provide a foundation for Windows operating systems.
c. It is a critical process for graphics and graphic commands.
d. It is the process that implements logon and security policies.

b. It is a vital process for running .dll files that provide a foundation for Windows operating systems.

62

6. How is the priority at which a process runs normally set?
a. The process priority is dynamic and is adjusted by the system depending on the needs of the process.
b. The process priority is normally set in the program code of the application. If not specified, it is run at normal priority.
c. The process priority is always determined by the system, and is always set to normal.
d. The process priority is always set to normal, unless the administrator intervenes.

b. The process priority is normally set in the program code of the application. If not specified, it is run at normal priority.

63

7. What term is used to describe the number of bytes of memory a process has designated for use and that are promised to a designated portion of the page file?
a. Committed memory
b. Provisioned memory
c. Promised memory
d. Dedicated memory

a. Committed memory

64

8. What does the % Privileged Time counter represent?
a. It is the amount of time privileged processes have utilized a disk.
b. It is the amount of time a privileged user has been logged in.
c. It is the amount of time spent by the CPU for system activities in privileged mode.
d. It is the amount of time privileged processes are using memory resources.

c. It is the amount of time spent by the CPU for system activities in privileged mode.

65

9. What processor oriented counter should be used to determine the percentage of time for threads to process?
a. % Privileged Time
b. % Processor Time
c. % User Time
d. % Thread Time

b. % Processor Time

66

10. What physical disk oriented performance counter should be used to determine the number of requests waiting to be processed by a disk?
a. Avg. Disk Transfer Wait Period
b. % Disk Time
c. Current Waiting Jobs
d. Current Disk Queue Length

d. Current Disk Queue Length

67

11. What is needed for an SNMP management system to be able to poll and receive data from an SNMP agent?
a. An allowed entry in an SNMP ACL.
b. A valid username and password
c. A community name
d. The SNMP Agent's SNMP ID.

c. A community name

68

12. What is NOT one of the available priorities that can be assigned to a process?
a. Above normal
b. Realtime
c. Critical
d. Low

c. Critical

69

13. What does the Processor Queue Length counter measure?
a. It measures the number of processes actively running across the system.
b. It measures the number of execution threads waiting for access to a CPU.
c. It measures the number of instructions being processed at any given moment by the CPU.
d. It measures the number of jobs the processor is waiting to handle due to contention for other resources.

b. It measures the number of execution threads waiting for access to a CPU.

70

14. On Windows, what enables SNMP applications to access SNMP data?
a. The Windows Management Instrumentation Software Development Kit
b. The Windows Network Services Software Development Kit
c. The SNMP network manager
d. The SNMP network agent

a. The Windows Management Instrumentation Software Development Kit

71

15. What process represents the Windows kernel and system process on a running Windows 2016 Server installation?
a. System
b. kernel.exe
c. lsass.exe
d. NtKrnl

a. System

72

16. When viewing memory information within Task Manager, what section represents the memory that holds the operating system kernel and device drivers that cannot be paged out?
a. Protected Memory
b. Non-paged pool
c. Committed Memory
d. Paged pool

b. Non-paged pool

73

17. When does a page fault occur on a running system?
a. A page fault occurs whenever memory pages are called by a program or process from the paging file on disk.
b. A page fault occurs when a program is unable to access a paged file.
c. A page fault occurs whenever memory pages encounter an error and cannot be utilized.
d. A page fault occurs when an attempt to page information from memory to the paging file is unsuccessful.

a. A page fault occurs whenever memory pages are called by a program or process from the paging file on disk.

74

18. After configuring SNMP traps for a system, you discover that traps are not being sent out. What is most likely the issue?
a. The management system is not set up to receive traps.
b. The management system has the wrong community configured.
c. The SNMP account password is incorrect.
d. The SNMP Trap service has not been started.

d. The SNMP Trap service has not been started.

75

19. The templates used by the Data Collector Sets tool are stored using what data format on the local computer?
a. XML
b. YAML
c. Markup
d. HTML

a. XML

76

20. What does a trace report in the Data Collector Sets tool contain?
a. It contains all counter activity for a given interval.
b. It contains all instances triggered by a counter.
c. It contains all instances.
d. It contains only instances when traced events occur.

d. It contains only instances when traced events occur.

77

21. What Windows Server 2016 service is used to keep information about the networks the server connects to and communicates network information to applications on the server?
a. Network List Service
b. Computer Browser
c. Server
d. Netlogon

a. Network List Service

78

22. What Windows Server 2016 service is used to keep a listing of computers and domain resources to be accessed?
a. Network List Service
b. Server
c. Computer Browser
d. Active Directory Domain Services

c. Computer Browser

79

23. The best way to get a feel for a server's performance is to establish a baseline and then frequently monitor server performance, comparing the data collected with that in the baseline.
a. True
b. False

a. True

80

24. The Realtime priority is the standard priority assigned to a running process.
a. True
b. False

b. False

81

25. Windows Server 2016 is the first Windows server operating system to include a full-fledged SNMP network management system application.
a. True
b. False

b. False

82

26. The WinDBG Microsoft utility can be used to process dump files created by processes.
a. True
b. False

a. True