EMT Final Exam Flashcards
1. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:
A) individual EMT.
B) State Bureau of EMS.
C) EMS training officer.
D) EMS medical director.
2. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the:
A) shift supervisor.
B) medical director.
C) EMS administrator.
D) field training officer.
3. Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:
A) have large rounded lenses.
B) are not secured with a strap.
C) offer little or no side protection.
D) do not have shatterproof lenses.
4. What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years?
A) acute stress reaction
B) cumulative stress reaction
C) posttraumatic stress reaction
D) critical incident stress reaction
5. To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should always:
A) transport patients to the hospital of their choice.
B) provide competent care that meets current standards.
C) use universal precautions with every patient encounter.
D) utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient.
6. Which of the following general statements regarding consent is MOST correct?
A) A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.
B) Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment.
C) Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member.
D) All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.
7. What type of consent is involved when a 39 - year - old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital?
8. Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by:
A) maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.
B) using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands.
C) positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient.
D) withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital.
9. A 4 - year - old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should:
A) consider asking the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.
B) give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability.
C) reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about.
D) attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety.
10. The patient care report (PCR) ensures:
A) research data.
B) legal protection.
C) quality assurance.
D) continuity of care.
11. Which of the following is a function of the upper airway?
A) relaxes bronchiole smooth muscle
B) exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide
C) creates sound from vocal cord vibration
D) warms and humidifies inhaled air
12. The diaphragm is a unique muscle because it:
A) is the exclusive muscle of breathing.
B) does not receive impulses from the brain.
C) is both a voluntary and involuntary muscle.
D) does not have striations like skeletal muscle.
13. How does respiration differ from ventilation?
A) Ventilation occurs when air is forced into the lungs, whereas respiration occurs when air is drawn or sucked into the lungs.
B) Respiration occurs when the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, whereas ventilation occurs when those same muscles relax.
C) Respiration occurs when oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body, whereas ventilation occurs when carbon dioxide is removed.
D) Respiration is the process of gas exchange , whereas ventilation is the simple movement of air between the lungs and the environment.
14. Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?
A) The ribcage of an infant is less flexible than an adult's.
B) An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's.
C) The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult's.
D) An infant's head accounts for less body weight than an adult's.
15. The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
A) 3 and 4 months.
B) 6 and 8 months.
C) 7 and 14 months.
D) 9 and 18 months.
16. The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
A) 18 and 22 years.
B) 19 and 25 years.
C) 21 and 30 years.
D) 25 and 35 years.
17. The term “pharmacology” is MOST accurately defined as:
A) the study of drugs that are produced illegally.
B) the study of how medications affect the brain.
C) the study of drugs and their actions on the body.
D) the study of drug excretion from the human body.
18. Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption?
19. Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:
A) reduces the associated chest pain.
B) dissolves the coronary artery clot.
C) causes direct coronary vasodilation.
D) prevents the aggregation of platelets.
20. Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?
A) A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma.
B) The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.
C) The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI.
D) A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability.
21. The goal of the primary assessment is to:
A) determine if the patient's problem is medical or trauma.
B) identify patients that require transport to a trauma center.
C) determine the need to perform a head - to - toe assessment.
D) identify and rapidly treat all life - threatening conditions.
22. A patient's short - term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding:
A) time and place.
B) date and event.
C) event and person.
D) person and place.
23. Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
A) The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.
B) Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
C) The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.
D) Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has a low carbon dioxide content.
24. Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as:
A) low venous oxygen levels.
B) a decrease in arterial oxygen levels.
C) an increase in carbon dioxide in the blood.
D) inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.
25. An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between:
A) 8 and 15 breaths/min.
B) 10 and 18 breaths/min.
C) 12 and 20 breaths/min.
D) 16 and 24 breaths/min.
26. Distributive shock occurs when:
A) an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function.
B) severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster.
C) temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain.
D) widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
27. Neurogenic shock occurs when:
A) failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
B) the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.
C) there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.
D) massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.
28. Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?
A) severe vomiting
B) liver laceration
C) excessive sweating
D) repeated diarrhea
29. You and you r partner arrive at the side of a 60 - year - old woman who suddenly collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should:
A) begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available.
B) immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm.
C) begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2.
D) apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR.
30. Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
A) in patients who are intubated.
B) if you ventilate a patient too fast.
C) when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
D) when the airway is completely obstructed.
31. In MOST cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
A) a drug overdose.
B) respiratory arrest.
C) severe chest trauma.
D) a cardiac dysrhythmia.
32. Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:
A) shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
B) a complete cessation of respiratory effort.
C) a marked increase in the exhalation phase.
D) labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.
33. In a healthy individual, the brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of:
A) increased oxygen levels.
B) decreased oxygen levels.
C) increased carbon dioxide levels.
D) decreased carbon dioxide levels.
34. Asthma is caused by a response of the:
A) immune system.
B) endocrine system.
C) respiratory system.
D) cardiovascular system.
35. The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the __________, which originate(s) from the __________.
A) coronary sinus, vena cava
B) aorta, inferior vena cava
C) vena cava, coronary veins
D) coronary arteries, aorta
36. Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to a buildup of fatty deposits is called:
A) angina pectoris.
C) acute ischemia.
37. Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include:
A) excess stress.
C) family history.
D) lack of exercise.
38. The three major parts of the brain are the:
A) cerebellum, medulla, and occiput.
B) brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord.
C) midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord.
D) cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.
39. The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:
A) severe stress.
C) heavy exertion.
D) diabetes mellitus.
40. Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure?
A) hyperventilation and hypersalivation
B) a rapidly improving level of consciousness
C) confusion and fatigue
D) a gradually decreasing level of consciousness
41. Continuing education in EMS serves to:
A) prove research and statistical findings in prehospital care.
B) maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.
C) enforce mandatory attendance to agency - specific training.
D) provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.
42. In the presence of ileus, the only way the stomach can empty itself is by:
C) muscular contraction.
D) spontaneous rupture.
43. Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:
A) lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
B) sit in a semi - Fowler position with their knees slightly bent.
C) lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position.
D) sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.
44. Patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything to eat or drink because:
A) it will create referred pain and obscure the diagnosis.
B) food will rapidly travel through the digestive system.
C) substances in the stomach increase the risk of aspiration.
D) digestion prevents accurate auscultation of bowel sounds.
45. Type 1 diabetes:
A) is typically treated with medications such as metformin (Glucophage).
B) is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body.
C) typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age.
D) is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 1 20 mg/dL.
46. Ketone production is the result of:
A) acidosis when blood glucose levels are low.
B) blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL.
C) fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable.
D) rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane.
47. Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is:
A) attempting to eliminate acids from the blood.
B) trying to generate energy by breathing deeply.
C) severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO 2 .
D) compensating for decreased blood glucose levels.
48. Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction?
A) an exaggerated immune system response to any substance
B) destruction of the immune system by an external substance
C) a release of erythrocytes in response to a foreign substance
D) a direct negative effect on the body by an external substance
49. The two MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are:
A) wheezing and widespread urticaria.
B) watery eyes and localized itching.
C) expiratory stridor and tachycardia.
D) hypertension and swollen hands.
50. The stinger from a honeybee should be:
A) left in place and covered.
B) scraped away from the skin.
C) squeezed with tweezers and removed.
D) irrigated with copious amounts of water.
51. The term “behavioral crisis” is MOST accurately defined as:
A) a sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member.
B) any reaction that interferes with activities of daily living or is deemed unacceptable by others.
C) a situation in which a patient demonstrates bizarre behavior and becomes a risk to other people.
D) a period of severe depression that lasts longer than 2 weeks and cannot be controlled with medications.
52. When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should:
A) consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior.
B) avoid asking questions about suicide because this may give the patient ideas.
C) check his or her blood glucose level only if he or she has a history of diabetes.
D) carefully document his or her perception of what is causing the patient's behavior.
53. The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:
A) take vital signs.
B) restrain the patient.
C) ensure your safety.
D) obtain proper consent.
54. As a woman approaches menopause:
A) her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity.
B) she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels.
C) she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding.
D) her risk of developing PID lowers significantly.
55. Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be:
A) given the option of being treated by a female EMT.
B) encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes.
C) thoroughly assessed, even if no signs of injury exist.
D) asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator.
56. When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to:
A) determine the underlying cause of her problem.
B) ask questions related to her gynecologic history.
C) maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.
D) keep assessment and treatment to a minimum.
57. Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as the:
A) effective transfer of oxygen from the venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls.
B) ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure.
C) effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic wast e products from the body's cells.
D) circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs.
58. Hypovolemic shock occurs when:
A) the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced.
B) the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.
C) the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.
D) at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost.
59. Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by:
A) elevating the injured extremity.
B) packing the wound with gauze.
C) compressing a pressure point.
D) applying local direct pressure.
60. A closed soft - tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n):
D) crush injury.
61. In addition to external bleeding, the MOST significant risk that an open soft - tissue injury exposes a patient to is:
C) nerve damage.
D) vessel damage.
62. An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n):
63. The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is:
A) damage to the eyes.
B) airway compromise.
C) cervical spine injury.
D) mandibular immobility.
64. A 40 - year - old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should:
A) scrape the splinter away with moist, sterile gauze.
B) cover his rig ht eye and flush the left eye with saline.
C) cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital.
D) remove the object with a cotton - tipped applicator.
65. The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the:
A) cerebellum and brain.
B) brain and spinal cord.
C) cerebrum and meninges.
D) meninges and spinal cord.
66. The _________ is the best - protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems.
A) brain stem
C) spinal cord
D) cerebral cortex
67. The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the:
A) thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral.
B) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
C) coccygeal, sacral, lumbar , thoracic, and cervical.
D) cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar.
68. An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as:
A) bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
B) bleeding between the dura mater and brain.
C) venous lacerations that occur within the brain.
D) an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.
69. Pneumothorax is defined as:
A) accumulation of air between the lungs.
B) blood collection within the lung tissue.
C) accumulation of air in the pleural space.
D) blood collection within the pleural space.
70. An open pneumothorax occurs when:
A) a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung.
B) air enters the pleural space from outside the body.
C) extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture.
D) air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung.
71. A flail chest occurs when:
A) a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.
B) more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest.
C) multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage.
D) a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase.
72. Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called:
73. A 2 2 - year - old male was punched in the abdomen several times. You find him lying on his left side with his knees drawn up. He is conscious and alert and complains of increased pain and nausea when he tries to straighten his legs. His blood pressure is 142/82 m m Hg, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. In addition to administering high - flow oxygen, you should:
A) apply full spinal motion restriction precautions.
B) keep him on his side but gently straighten his legs.
C) place him supine but allow him to keep his knees bent.
D) transport him in the position in which you found him.
74. Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct?
A) Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant.
B) The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
C) The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss.
D) Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration.
75. When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT should:
A) assess proximal circulation.
B) compare it to the uninjured leg.
C) carefully move it to elicit crepitus.
D) ask the patient to move the injured leg.
76. In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless:
A) the patient is in severe pain.
B) the patient is clinically unstable.
C) deformity and swelling are present.
D) transport time is less than 15 minutes.
77. Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below:
A) 98°F (37°C).
B) 95°F (35°C).
C) 90°F (32°C).
D) 88°F (31°C).
78. Rough handling of a hypothermic patient with a pulse may cause:
A) profound bradycardia.
B) ventricular fibrillation.
C) ventricular tachycardia.
D) pulseless electrical activity.
79. The leading cause of maternal death during the first trimester of pregnancy is:
A) massive brain damage secondary to a prolonged seizure.
B) unrecognized or untreated supine hypotensive syndrome.
C) internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
D) blunt trauma to the abdomen during a motor vehicle crash.
80. Placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as:
A) delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby.
B) premature placental separation from the uterine wall.
C) abnormal development and functioning of the placenta.
D) development of the placenta over the cervical opening.
81. The presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates:
A) an expected finding in full - term infants.
B) that the baby's airway may be obstructed.
C) that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature.
D) that full newborn resuscitation will be needed.
82. The first month of life after birth is referred to as the:
A) neonatal period.
B) toddler period.
C) start of infancy.
D) premature phase.
83. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn should not exceed ______ breaths/min.
84. The components of the PAT are:
A) appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation.
B) mental status, heart rate, and systolic blood pressure.
C) skin condition, respiratory rate, and level of alertness.
D) activity, respiratory quality, and level of consciousness.
85. The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is:
B) altered mental status.
D) heart disease.
86. A “silent” heart attack occurs when:
A) sweating is the only presentation.
B) the usual chest pain is not present.
C) a sudden dysrhythmia causes death.
D) the patient minimizes the chest pain.
87. Osteoporosis is MOST accurately defined as:
A) increased flexibility of bone mass.
B) decreased bone marrow production.
C) a decrease in bone mass and density.
D) an abnormality near the growth plate.
88. Patients with autism:
A) have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps.
B) prefer to maintain eye contact with whomever is talking with them.
C) often speak with speech patterns that alternate in tone and speed.
D) use and understand nonverbal means of communicating messages.
89. You respond to a residence for a 9 - year - old female with Down syndrome who is sick. When you arrive at the scene and assess the patient, you determine that she is unresponsive and has gurg ling respirations. You should:
A) insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin assisting her ventilations with a bag - mask device.
B) open her airway with the jaw - thrust maneuver and assess the rate and depth of her breathing.
C) immediately apply high - flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and then assess her pulse rate.
D) open her airway with a manual maneuver, suction her oropharynx, and insert a simple airway adjunct.
90. The FIRST rule of safe lifting is to:
A) always lift with your palms facing down.
B) spread your legs approximately 20 apart.
C) keep your back in a slightly curved position.
D) keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
91. General guidelines for carrying a patient on a stretcher include:
A) maintaining slight flexion of your back.
B) leaning back from your waist when lifting.
C) slightly twisting your body when carrying.
D) constant communication with your partners.
92. Which of the following items would MOST likely require special protocols in order to be carried on the ambulance?
B) pediatric nonrebreathing masks
C) automated external defibrillator (AED)
D) devices for restraining a patient
93. The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to:
A) warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.
B) facilitate a route for the media to access the scene.
C) prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene.
D) get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible.
94. Extrication is MOST accurately defined as:
A) using heavy equipment to access a patient.
B) dismantling an automobile to remove a victim.
C) removal from a dangerous situation or position.
D) immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.
95. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should:
A) begin triage to determine injury severity.
B) call medical control for further direction.
C) immediately request additional resources.
D) request law enforcement for traffic control.
96. _____________ is defined as the ability to reach the patient.
97. As a triage supervisor, you:
A) must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area.
B) must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.
C) are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients.
D) should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities.
98. When victims involved in a mass - casualty incident are moved to the treatment area:
A) definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made.
B) secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered.
C) they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries.
D) all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed.
99. A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as:
A) a device or agent used to destroy a specific area or region within a given geographic location.
B) any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage.
C) a nuclear or chemical weapon that can be launched from one country to another country.
D) any device used for the express purpose of creating carnage in an effort to make a particular point.
100. Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or WMD incident is MOST important because:
A) bystanders may destroy the evidence.
B) weather conditions may change quickly.
C) a secondary explosive device may detonate.
D) terrorists are often at the scene after an attack.