Bio 202 Final Exam

Helpfulness: +1
Set Details Share
created 2 years ago by BShoots
331 views
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:
1

The most important mineralocorticoid regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is ________.
A) aldosterone
B) insulin
C) cortisol
D) glucagon

A. aldosterone

2

Which organ is responsible for synthesizing the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)?
A) the kidney
B) the heart
C) the skin
D) the spleen

B. the heart

3

Dave has discovered a new lipid-soluble hormone. Which of the following is true regarding this hormone?
A) receptor will be located on the plasma membrane
B) will be bound to a transport protein in the blood
C) will likely act through a second-messenger system
D) can be stored in secretory vesicles

B) will be bound to a transport protein in the blood

4

Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include ________.
A) hormone binding to intracellular receptors
B) possible activation of several different second-messenger systems
C) formation of a specific protein kinase that acts on a series of extracellular intermediates
D) cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase formation of an active second messenger

B) possible activation of several different second-messenger systems

5

One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?
A) protein synthesis
B) catabolic inhibition
C) humoral stimulation
D) carbohydrate oxidation

C) humoral stimulation

6

Eicosanoids do NOT include__________.
A) paracrines
B) prostaglandins
C) hydrocortisones
D) leukotrienes

C) hydrocortisones

7

The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.
A) altering gene expression in the nuclear DNA
B) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
C) synthesizing more than one hormone at a time
D) increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ

B) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

8

Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because ________.
A) the protein kinases are rapidly metabolized into functional amino acids
B) the receptors bind to several hormones at the same time
C) there are thousands of receptors on the cell membrane
D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes

D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes

9

Johanna is significantly shorter than normal for her age. Her doctor recommends treatment with a hormone before her growth plates ossify in her long bones. Which hormone is recommended?
A) cortisol
B) parathyroid hormone
C) growth hormone
D) thyroid stimulating hormone

C) growth hormone

10

Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?
A) polyphagia
B) polyuria
C) polydipsia
D) polycythemia

D) polycythemia

11

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.
A) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ
B) nothing?all hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific
C) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path
D) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ

D) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ

12

A man has been told that he is NOT synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.
A) The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the synthesis of FSH.
B) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
C) A hormone made in the anterior pituitary cannot influence fertility.
D) FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells; therefore it is not synthesized by males.

B) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.

13

The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is NOT a true endocrine gland because ________.
A) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location
B) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
C) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release
D) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional

B) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release

14

Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the ________.
A) pancreas
B) thyroid gland
C) thymus gland
D) adrenal medulla

C) thymus gland

15

Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________.
A) glucagon, because the structure of glucagon is similar to that of thyroid hormone
B) steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells
C) growth hormone, because the thyroid works synergistically with thyroid hormone
D) insulin, because insulin is a small peptide

B) steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells

16

If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood, you will find the red blood cells (erythrocytes) at the bottom of the tube and white blood cells atop them. This implies that ________.
A) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells
B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells
C) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells
D) red blood cells are larger than white blood cells

A) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells

17

Diabetes can cause a condition called nephrotic syndrome in which a person will suffer a loss of osmotic pressure with fluid from the plasma leaving blood vessels causing Edema (swelling). Which of the following is likely the cause of this condition?
A) a loss of hypoxia-inducible factor via the urine
B) an increase in EPO production by the kidneys
C) release of albumin protein into the urine
D) a loss of intrinsic factor from the plasma via the urine

C) release of albumin protein into the urine

18

A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________.
A) aplastic anemia
B) polycythemia
C) sickle-cell anemia
D) pernicious anemia

D) pernicious anemia

19

With a patient administered an injection of colony stimulating factor (CSF) you would expect to see ________.
A) decreased white blood cell count
B) decreased Red blood cell count
C) increased white blood cell count
D) increased Red blood cell count

C) increased white blood cell count

20

Which two factors below make rapid and substantial blood loss life threatening?
A) loss of immunity and loss of blood pressure
B) loss of immunity and loss of carbon dioxide carrying capacity
C) loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity
D) loss of clotting ability and loss of osmotic pressure

C) loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity

21

An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________.
A) receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
B) donate to all blood types in moderate amounts
C) donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O
D) receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O

A) receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen

22

All of the following conditions impair coagulation except ________.
A) severe hypocalcemia
B) vascular spasm
C) vitamin K deficiency
D) liver disease

B) vascular spasm

23

A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________.
A) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells
B) antibodies in the donor's plasma will attack and kill the recipient's healthy blood cells
C) clotting factors in the donor's blood will cause unwanted clots known as thrombus
D) white blood cells from the donor's blood cause inflammation

A) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells

24

A person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely suffering ________.
A) a bacterial infection
B) anemia
C) polycythemia
D) a viral infectionA) a bacterial infection

A) a bacterial infection

25

Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia?
A) prolonged exposure to cold
B) malaria
C) travel at high altitude
D) vigorous exercise

A) prolonged exposure to cold

26

Which of the following transports oxygen-rich blood?
A) pulmonary artery
B) superior vena cava
C) pulmonary vein
D) pulmonary trunk

C) pulmonary vein

27

The atrioventricular (AV) valves are closed ________.
A) when the ventricles are in diastole
B) by the movement of blood from atria to ventricles
C) while the atria are contracting
D) when the ventricles are in systole

D) when the ventricles are in systole

28

Which of the events below does NOT occur when the semilunar valves are open?
A) Ventricles are in diastole.
B) AV valves are closed.
C) Ventricles are in systole.
D) Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta.

A) Ventricles are in diastole.

29

During the period of ventricular filling ________.
A) blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open atrioventricular (AV) valves into the ventricles
B) the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves are open
C) the atria remain in diastole
D) pressure in the heart is at its peak

A) blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open atrioventricular (AV) valves into the ventricles

30

Norepinephrine acts on the heart by ________.
A) decreasing heart contractility
B) blocking the action of calcium
C) causing threshold to be reached more quickly
D) causing a decrease in stroke volume

C) causing threshold to be reached more quickly

31

Which of the following factors does NOT influence heart rate?
A) gender
B) body temperature
C) age
D) skin color

D) skin color

32

When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________.
A) noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls
B) tracing out where the auricles connect
C) locating the base
D) finding the papillary muscles

A) noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls

33

While auscultating heart sounds during a checkup, Andy's doctor hears a high-pitched sound during ventricular contraction. Which type of valve could cause this?
A) deficient pulmonary semilunar valve
B) stenotic aortic semilunar valve
C) incompetent tricuspid valve
D) insufficient mitral (bicuspid) valve

B) stenotic aortic semilunar valve

34

Which of the following receive(s) blood during ventricular systole?
A) pulmonary arteries only
B) pulmonary veins only
C) aorta only
D) both the aorta and pulmonary trunk

D) both the aorta and pulmonary trunk

35

Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure?
A) renal regulation
B) baroreceptor-initiated reflexes
C) chemoreceptor-initiated reflexes
D) neural controls

A) renal regulation

36

The pulse pressure is ________.
A) systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
B) systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure
C) diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure)
D) systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure

A) systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure

37

Which of the following is most likely to occur in the arteriovenous shuts present in the blood vessels of the finger tips and toes?
A) Colder temperatures will result in vasodilation in the arteriovenous shuts.
B) Warmer temperatures will result in vasoconstriction in the arteriovenous shuts.
C) Colder temperatures will result in vasoconstriction in the arteriovenous shuts.
D) Exercise will result in vasoconstriction in the arteriovenous shuts.

C) Colder temperatures will result in vasoconstriction in the arteriovenous shuts.

38

These capillaries may be lined with phagocytes that can extend their process into the plasma to catch "prey."
A) fenestrations
B) anastomoses
C) sinusoids
D) thoroughfare channels

C) sinusoids

39

Which of the following would not be expected from taking a diuretic drug?
A) increased urine output
B) lower plasma volume
C) decreased blood pressure
D) greater stress on the heart to provide adequate perfusion

D) greater stress on the heart to provide adequate perfusion

40

Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation?
A) liver
B) heart
C) lungs
D) kidney

C) lungs

41

Blood flow to the skin ________.
A) increases when environmental temperature rises
B) is controlled mainly by decreasing pH
C) increases when body temperature drops so that the skin does not freeze
D) is not an important source of nutrients and oxygen for skin cells

A) increases when environmental temperature rises

42

Which of the following is NOT a function of lymph nodes?
A) serve as antigen surveillance areas
B) produce lymphoid cells and house granular WBCs
C) act as lymph filters and activate the immune system
D) produce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid

D) produce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid

43

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________.
A) medullary cords
B) T lymphocytes
C) lymph nodes
D) plasma cells

D) plasma cells

44

Which of the following would NOT be classified as a lymphoid organ?
A) Peyer's patches of the intestine
B) pancreas
C) spleen
D) tonsils

B) pancreas

45

Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations EXCEPT the ________.
A) axillary region
B) inguinal region
C) lower extremities
D) cervical region

C) lower extremitie

46

Which lymphoid organ atrophies as we age?
A) thymus
B) appendix
C) spleen
D) tonsils

A) thymus

47

Select the correct statement about lymph transport.
A) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.
B) Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling.
C) Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits.
D) Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins.

A) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

48

Small secondary lymphoid organs, which cluster along lymphatic vessels, are termed ________.
A) lacteals
B) lymph follicles
C) lymphatics
D) lymph nodes

D) lymph nodes

49

Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?
A) prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue
B) sets the stage for repair processes
C) disposes of cellular debris and pathogens
D) replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

D) replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

50

Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?
A) reactivity with an antibody
B) inhibit production of antibodies
C) small molecules
D) contain many repeating chemical units

A) reactivity with an antibody

51

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________.
A) pinocytosis
B) B lymphocytes
C) T lymphocytes
D) natural killer cells

D) natural killer cells

52

Innate immune system defenses include ________.
A) phagocytosis
B) T cells
C) B cells
D) plasma cells

A) phagocytosis

53

Select the correct statement about antigens.
A) Only small antigens exhibit reactivity.
B) One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.
C) The largest type of antigen is called a hapten.
D) "Self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens.

B) One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

54

Clonal selection of B cells ________.
A) results in the formation of plasma cells
B) only occurs in the secondary immune response
C) cannot occur in the presence of antigens
D) occurs during fetal development

A) results in the formation of plasma cells

55

All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except one. Select the one answer that does not describe the classical pathway of complement activation.
A) It is an example of overlap between innate and adaptive immune function.
B) It requires that circulating antibodies are bound to antigens.
C) It activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to them.
D) Classical activation will result in enhanced inflammation, opsonization as well as formation of MAC proteins.

C) It activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to them.

56

Vaccines work by ________.
A) priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure
B) boosting innate immunity with cytokines
C) suppressing inflation to help speed healing
D) providing the necessary antibodies to fight infections

A) priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

57

Antibody functions include all of the following except ________.
A) binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms
B) targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysis
C) cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched
D) linking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution

C) cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched

58

Which of the following cells has the largest role and most widespread effect on immunity?
A) cytotoxic T cell
B) helper T cell
C) B cell
D) APC

B) helper T cell

59

Which of the following is not a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorders?
A) exposure of previously "hidden" self-antigens to the adaptive immune system during trauma
B) mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present
C) a second exposure to an allergen
D) cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens (haptens) bound with self-antigens

C) a second exposure to an allergen

60

Which of the following is NOT a form of lung cancer?
A) squamous cell carcinoma
B) adenocarcinoma
C) Kaposi's sarcoma
D) small cell carcinoma

C) Kaposi's sarcoma

61

Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.
A) pons and midbrain
B) midbrain and medulla
C) upper spinal cord and medulla
D) medulla and pons

D) medulla and pons

62

The main site of gas exchange is the ________.
A) alveolar sacs
B) alveoli
C) respiratory bronchiole
D) alveolar duct

B) alveoli

63

The solutes contained in saliva include ________.
A) mucin, lysozyme, electrolytes, salts, and minerals
B) electrolytes, digestive enzyme, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA
C) only proteases and amylase
D) only salts and mineralsB) electrolytes, digestive enzyme, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA

B) electrolytes, digestive enzyme, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA

64

Digestion and absorption of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged?
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) starches
D) lipids

D) lipids

65

Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.
A) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of worn-out RBCs.
B) Bile functions to emulsify fats.
C) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.
D) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestive secretion.

C) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.

66

Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by ________.
A) somatic neurons in the spinal cord
B) the rubrospinal tracts
C) the reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts
D) the vagus nerve and enteric plexus

D) the vagus nerve and enteric plexus

67

Which of the following is NOT a function of low-density-lipoproteins (LDLs)?
A) assist in the storage of cholesterol when supply exceeds demand
B) make cholesterol available to tissue cells for membrane formation
C) transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver
D) make cholesterol available to tissue cells for hormone synthesis

C) transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver

68

Which of the following food groups are considered good sources of complete proteins?
A) corn, cottonseed oil, soy oil, and wheat germ
B) eggs, milk, yogurt, meat, and fish
C) lima beans, kidney beans, nuts, and cereals
D) egg yolk, fish roe, and grains

B) eggs, milk, yogurt, meat, and fish

69

Many factors influence basal metabolic rate (BMR). What is the most critical factor?
A) an individual's body weight
B) the way an individual metabolizes fat
C) the way skeletal muscles break down glycogen
D) the ratio of surface area to volume (weight) of the body

D) the ratio of surface area to volume (weight) of the body

70

A recent health screening revealed a low-density-lipoprotein (LDL) level over 130. Which of the following should be prescribed?
A) statins
B) iron
C) glucagon
D) insulin

A) statins

71

Which of the choices below is NOT a mechanism of heat production?
A) sweating
B) shivering
C) vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels
D) enhanced thyroxine release

A) sweating

72

The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as ________.
A) gluconeogenesis
B) lipolysis
C) fat utilization
D) lipogenesis

B) lipolysis

73

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the intrinsic and extrinsic controls of the kidney?
A) Intrinsic controls raise blood pressure while extrinsic controls lower blood pressure.
B) Extrinsic and intrinsic controls work in nearly opposite ways.
C) Extrinsic controls have the greatest effect on systemic blood pressure while intrinsic control have a greater effect on GFR.
D) Extrinsic controls will reduce blood plasma volume while intrinsic controls will increase blood plasma volumes.

C) Extrinsic controls have the greatest effect on systemic blood pressure while intrinsic control have a greater effect on GFR.

74

Select the correct statement about the ureters.
A) Ureters contain sphincters at the entrance to the bladder to prevent the backflow of urine.
B) The ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract.
C) The epithelium is stratified squamous like the skin, which allows a great deal of stretch.
D) The ureter is innervated by parasympathetic nerve endings only.

B) The ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract

75

Which of the hormones below is responsible for facultative water reabsorption?
A) thyroxine
B) atrial natriuretic peptide
C) aldosterone
D) ADH

D) ADH

76

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________.
A) increase in the production of ADH
B) decrease in the concentration of the blood plasma
C) increase in the production of aldosterone
D) decrease in the production of ADH

A) increase in the production of ADH

77

Most electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.
A) in the distal convoluted tubule
B) not limited by a transport maximum
C) hormonally controlled in distal tubule segments
D) accomplished after the nephron loop is reached

C) hormonally controlled in distal tubule segments

78

Cells and transport proteins are physically prevented from passing through the filtration membrane. This has the following effect on filtration.
A) increased osmotic pressure in the filtrate the draws plasma through the membrane
B) neutral change in osmotic pressure with no effect on filtration
C) increasing osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries that reduces the amount of filtration
D) decreased osmotic pressure in the filtrate that increases the amount of filtration

C) increasing osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries that reduces the amount of filtration

79

Which of the following hormones is important in the regulation of sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid?
A) aldosterone
B) erythropoietin
C) renin
D) antidiuretic hormone

A) aldosterone

80

One of the major physiological factors that triggers thirst is ________.
A) drinking caffeinated beverages
B) a rise in plasma osmolality
C) a dry mouth from high temperatures
D) becoming overly agitated

B) a rise in plasma osmolality

81

The maintenance of the proper pH of the body fluids may be the result of ________.
A) the control of respiratory ventilation
B) the active secretion of OH- into the filtrate by the kidney tubule cells
C) the operation of the various buffer systems in the stomach
D) control of the acids produced in the stomach

A) the control of respiratory ventilation

82

Insufficient parathyroid hormone production in the body could result in ________.
A) muscle weakness
B) muscle twitching
C) kidney stones
D) cardiac arrhythmia

B) muscle twitching

83

The movement of fluids between cellular compartments ________.
A) requires active transport
B) always involves filtration
C) is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces
D) requires ATP for the transport to take place

C) is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces

84

) Which of the following is NOT a method for regulating the hydrogen ion concentration in blood?
A) respiratory changes
B) renal mechanisms
C) chemical buffers
D) diet

D) diet

85

Which of the following is NOT a trigger for juxtaglomerular granular cells to release renin?
A) decreased filtrate NaCl concentration
B) sympathetic stimulation
C) increased extracellular fluid water levels
D) decreased stretch of the granular cells of the afferent arterioles

C) increased extracellular fluid water levels

86

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ________.
A) increases urine production
B) secretion is inhibited by alcohol
C) promotes dehydration
D) is produced by the anterior pituitary

B) secretion is inhibited by alcohol

87

Aldosterone ________.
A) production is greatly influenced by ACTH
B) presence increases potassium concentration in the blood
C) is secreted by the posterior pituitary
D) functions to increase sodium reabsorption

D) functions to increase sodium reabsorption

88

Which of the following is NOT a category of endocrine gland stimulus?
A) enzymatic
B) hormonal
C) neural
D) humoral

A) enzymatic

89

Which of the following is NOT a steroid-based hormone?
A) epinephrine
B) estrogen
C) cortisol
D) aldosterone

A) epinephrine

90

Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.
A) activating the hypothalamic release of regulating hormones
B) entering the cell and activating mitochondrial DNA
C) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
D) binding cell receptors and initiating cAMP activity

C) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene

91

Oxytocin ________.
A) exerts its most important effects during menstruation
B) controls milk production
C) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
D) is an anterior pituitary secretion

C) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism

92

Which of the following would you expect to have the least effect on hematocrit percentage?
A) injection with erythropoietin (EPO)
B) living at higher altitude
C) dehydration
D) prolonged or excessive fever

D) prolonged or excessive fever

93

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
A) liver
B) pancreas
C) brain
D) kidney

D) kidney

94

People that have a single allele (gene copy) for sickle cell anemia are typically not sick from the disease and are said to be carriers of sickle cell trait. These people will more often live in the malaria belt of sub-Saharan Africa. The most likely explanation for this is ________.
A) sickle cell trait is passed on to the biting mosquitoes as malaria
B) the tropical climate attracts people with sickle cell trait
C) people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria
D) malaria is a cause of sickle cell trait

C) people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria

95

Loss of fibrinogen within the plasma would most likely cause which of the following?
A) loss of blood clotting
B) edema (swelling)
C) pallor (pale skin)
D) fever with pain

A) loss of blood clotting

96

Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding ________.
A) rate of erythrocyte formation
B) clotting ability of the blood
C) rate of platelet formation
D) WBC ability to defend the body against disease

A) rate of erythrocyte formation

97

When does the period of atrial repolarization occur?
A) during the P wave
B) ventricular contraction
C) ventricular depolarization
D) during the T wave

B) ventricular contraction

98

Damage to the ________ causes heart block.
A) sinoatrial (SA) node
B) atrioventricular (AV) node
C) atrioventricular (AV) valves
D) atrioventricular (AV) bundle

B) atrioventricular (AV) node

99

Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ________.
A) right ventricle
B) left atrium
C) left ventricle
D) right atrium

B) left atrium

100

Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.
A) Cardiac muscle cells are innervated by sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic nerve fibers so that the nervous system can increase heart rate.
B) The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.
C) The refractory period in skeletal muscle is much longer than that in cardiac muscle.
D) The influx of potassium ions from extracellular sources is the initiating event in cardiac muscle contraction.

B) The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.

101

Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?
A) closure of the heart valves
B) opening of the heart valves
C) excitation of the sinoatrial (SA) node
D) friction of blood against the chamber walls

A) closure of the heart valves

102

Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?
A) 110/60
B) 140/90
C) 170/96
D) 120/80

C) 170/96

103

Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?
A) Blood flow to the kidneys increases.
B) The skin will be cold and clammy.
C) Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood.
D) Blood will be diverted to the digestive organs.

C) Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood.

104

Reduction in the concentration of albumin in blood plasma would alter capillary exchange by ________.
A) increasing hydrostatic pressure and edema will occur
B) increasing hydrostatic pressure and blood volume, blood pressure increases
C) decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and edema will occur
D) decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and blood volume, blood pressure increases

C) decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and edema will occur

105

A person suddenly gaining significant amounts of adipose tissue can expect all of the following physiological changes except one. Which of the following is least likely to occur with a sudden and significant gain in adipose tissue?
A) lower heart rate and reduced blood flow
B) higher peripheral resistance and higher blood pressure
C) increased risk of developing atherosclerosis
D) increased angiogenesis and higher peripheral resistance

A) lower heart rate and reduced blood flow

106

Due to the branching of arteries the type of arteries that would be most numerous would be ________.
A) pulmonary arteries
B) elastic arteries
C) muscular arteries
D) arterioles

D) arterioles

107

Flow of lymph through a lymph node is slowed due to ________.
A) the viscous nature of lymph
B) the presence of lymphocytes and macrophages
C) fewer efferent vessels draining it compared to many afferent vessels feeding it
D) mini-valves

C) fewer efferent vessels draining it compared to many afferent vessels feeding it

108

What is a bubo?
A) an infected lymph node
B) a wall in a lymph node
C) a lobe of the spleen
D) an infected Peyer's patch

A) an infected lymph node

109

Peyer's patches are found in the distal portion of the ________.
A) esophagus
B) large intestine
C) small intestine
D) stomach

C) small intestine

110

Which of the following does NOT contain a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?
A) thymus
B) tonsil
C) appendix
D) Peyer's patch

A) thymus

111

Which statement is true about T cells?
A) Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.
B) Once activated, they cannot secrete cytokines.
C) They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells.
D) They will develop into cytotoxic T cells if antigen is complexed with class II MHC proteins.

A) Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.

112

What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?
A) activates the inflammatory process
B) activates the complement mechanism
C) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
D) protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria

C) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses

113

Choose the best description of an antigen.
A) a chemical that enhances or modifies immune response
B) a particle (typically a foreign protein) that triggers inflammation
C) part or a piece of a disease or pathogen
D) a particle that triggers the adaptive immunity

D) a particle that triggers the adaptive immunity

114

) Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency.
A) Hodgkin's disease is a hereditary immunodeficiency found in children.
B) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) disease is an acquired condition.
C) The causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that recognizes CD4 proteins.
D) The most common form of immunodeficiency is graft-versus-host (GVH) disease.

C) The causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that recognizes CD4 proteins

115

Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood.
A) A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal.
B) Increased BPG levels in the red blood cells enhance oxygen-carrying capacity.
C) During conditions of acidosis, hemoglobin is able to carry oxygen more efficiently.
D) During normal activity, a molecule of hemoglobin returning to the lungs carries one molecule of O2.

A) A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal

116

Hepatocytes do not ________.
A) detoxify toxic chemicals
B) process nutrients
C) store fat-soluble vitamins
D) produce digestive enzymes

D) produce digestive enzymes

117

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________.
A) in the oral cavity
B) in the glandular tissue that surround the organ lumen
C) in the walls of the tract organs
D) in the pons and medulla

C) in the walls of the tract organs

118

ipogenesis occurs when ________.
A) excess proteins are transported through the cell membrane
B) there is a shortage of fatty acids
C) glucose levels drop slightly
D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high

D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high

119

Which of the following is NOT an important function of the liver?
A) synthesis of bile salts
B) synthesis of vitamin K
C) protein metabolism
D) carbohydrate and lipid metabolism

C) protein metabolism

120

When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly ________.
A) ammonia
B) acetyl CoA
C) urea
D) ketone bodies

C) urea

121

If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean?
A) Most of the glucose is filtered out of the blood and is not reabsorbed in the convoluted tubules.
B) The clearance value of glucose is relatively high in a healthy adult.
C) The glucose molecule is too large to be filtered out of the blood.
D) Normally all the glucose is reabsorbed.

D) Normally all the glucose is reabsorbed

122

As a result of stress the anterior pituitary releases ________, which stimulates release of hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and begin breaking down fats.
A) growth hormone
B) thyroid stimulating hormone
C) ADH
D) ACTH

D) ACTH

123

Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because ________.
A) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
B) the hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm as a unit
C) peptide hormones are converted by cell membranes enzymes into second messengers
D) hormones alter cellular operations through direct stimulation of a gene

A) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers

124

Hemolytic disease of the newborn will not be possible in which of the following situations listed below?
A) if the father is Rh+
B) if the child is type O positive
C) if the father is Rh-
D) if the child is Rh+

C) if the father is Rh

125

Which of the following plasma components is most likely to rise in concentration during an acute infection?
A) albumin
B) platelets
C) gamma globulins
D) fibrinogen

C) gamma globulins

126

Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ________.
A) no change in blood pressure but a change in respiration
B) a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
C) a rise in blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
D) no change in blood pressure but a slower heart rate

B) a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

127

If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________.
A) an inadequate supply of lactic acid
B) a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways
C) a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for energy production
D) decreased delivery of oxygen

D) decreased delivery of oxygen

128

The term ductus venosus refers to ________.
A) a special fetal vessel that allows umbilical blood to bypass the liver
B) damage to the valves in the veins, leading to varicose veins
C) a fetal shunt that bypasses the lungs
D) a condition of the aged in which the arteries lose elasticity

A) a special fetal vessel that allows umbilical blood to bypass the liver

129

Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?
A) tunica adventitia
B) tunica media
C) tunica intima
D) tunica externa

B) tunica media

130

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.
A) less permeable than blood capillaries
B) as permeable as blood capillaries
C) completely impermeable
D) more permeable than blood capillaries

D) more permeable than blood capillaries

131

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?
A) phagocytes
B) cilia
C) gastric juice
D) keratin

A) phagocytes

132

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?
A) molecular weight and size of the gas molecule
B) partial pressure gradient
C) the temperature
D) solubility in water

B) partial pressure gradient

133

The function of goblet cells is to ________.
A) secrete buffers in order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral
B) absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use
C) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion
D) provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the digestive tract in food

C) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

134

The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ________.
A) fat
B) acetyl CoA
C) glucose
D) protein

C) glucose

135

If the Tm for a particular amino acid is 120 mg/100 ml and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 230 mg/100 ml, the amino acid will ________.
A) be completely reabsorbed by the tubule cells
B) be actively secreted into the filtrate
C) appear in the urine
D) be completely reabsorbed by secondary active transport

C) appear in the urine

136

An illness causes Doug to experience severe diarrhea and an accompanying loss of bicarbonate-rich secretions. How can this metabolic acidosis be compensated?
A) increased respiratory rate and depth
B) increased renin secretion
C) enhanced sodium ion loss in urine
D) hypoventilation

A) increased respiratory rate and depth

137

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________.
A) sensitivity increase
B) a stressor reaction
C) cellular affinity
D) up-regulation

D) up-regulation

138

If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets (the Buffy coat) is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. This difference reflects the fact that ________.
A) platelets are larger than red blood cells
B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells
C) platelets are larger than white blood cells
D) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

D) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

139

Select the correct statement about the heart valves.
A) The mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.
B) Aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart.
C) The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction.
D) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle

C) The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction

140

A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except ________.
A) increased work of the left ventricle
B) decreased size of the heart muscle
C) increased damage to blood vessel endothelium
D) increased incidence of coronary artery disease

B) decreased size of the heart muscle

141

Which of the following is NOT a normal component of lymph?
A) red blood cells
B) ions
C) water
D) plasma proteins

A) red blood cells

142

Select the best description of the negative selection process of lymphocyte maturation.
A) removal of lymphocytes that fail to recognize "self" cells
B) teaching a lymphocyte to recognize "self" from foreign antigens
C) removal of lymphocytes that react with "self" cells
D) allowing the survival of lymphocytes that cannot bind to MHC proteins

C) removal of lymphocytes that react with "self" cells

143

Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?
A) alveolar ducts
B) alveolar sacs
C) alveoli
D) respiratory bronchioles

C) alveoli

144

Paneth cells ________.
A) secrete hormones
B) secrete enzymes that kill bacteria
C) secrete digestive enzymes
D) secrete bicarbonate ions

B) secrete enzymes that kill bacteria

145

Which of the following is a normal consequence of the activation of the heat-promoting center?
A) vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels
B) sympathetic sweat gland activation
C) increase in ADH production
D) release of epinephrine

D) release of epinephrine

146

What is the best explanation for the microvilli on the apical surface of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?
A) They increase the surface area and allow for a greater volume of filtrate components to be reabsorbed.
B) They increase the amount of surface area that comes in contact with the blood's plasma to help activly excrete toxins.
C) They hold on to enzymes that cleanse the filtrate before reabsorption.
D) Their movements propel the filtrate through the tubules.

A) They increase the surface area and allow for a greater volume of filtrate components to be reabsorbed.

147

Which of the following describes the distribution of sodium and potassium between cells and body fluids?
A) little of either in the cells, but large amounts of each in the body fluids
B) equal amounts of each ion in the cells and body fluids
C) K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids
D) Na+ mainly in the cells, K+ in the body fluids

C) K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids

148

Which of the following is NOT a type of hormone interaction?
A) synergism
B) feedback
C) permissiveness
D) antagonism

B) feedback

149

Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?
A) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
B) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive.
C) Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells.
D) His blood lacks Rh factor.

A) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.

150

During contraction of heart muscle cells ________.
A) some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores
B) all of the calcium required for contraction comes from storage in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) the action potential is prevented from spreading from cell to cell by gap junctions
D) calcium is prevented from entering cardiac fibers that have been stimulated

A) some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores