Chapter 18 - Microbiology BIOL 2420 Flashcards


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1

Which of the following is not normally used in a vaccine?

A) toxoids.

B) parts of bacterial cells.

C) live, attenuated viruses.

D) inactivated viruses.

E) antibodies.

E

2

Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus?

A) agglutination

B) hemagglutination

C) complement fixation

D) hemolysis

E) none of the above

E

3

If a patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin, this indicates all of the following except

A) The patient may have the disease.

B) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.

C) The patient may have been vaccinated.

D) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.

E) The patient was near someone who had the disease.

E

4

In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up. Tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer?

A) 6

B) 1:6

C) 64

D) 1:32

E) 32

C

5

All of the following are disadvantages of a live virus vaccine except

A) The live vaccine may revert to a more virulent form

B) Exogenous protein contaminants may be present

C) Antibody response is not as good as with inactivated viruses

D) Live viruses generally require refrigeration

E) None of the above

C

6

Antibodies for serological testing can be obtained from all of the following except

A) Vaccinated humans

B) Vaccinated animals

C) Monoclonal antibodies

D) Viral cultures

E) None of the above

D

7

A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n)

A) agglutination reaction.

B) complement fixation.

C) immunofluorescence.

D) neutralization reaction.

E) precipitation reaction.

E

8

A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n)

A) agglutination reaction.

B) complement fixation.

C) immunofluorescence.

D) neutralization reaction.

E) precipitation reaction.

A

9

A reaction using red blood cells as the indicator and hemolysis indicates an antigen -antibody reaction is called a(n)

A) agglutination reaction.

B) complement fixation.

C) immunofluorescence.

D) neutralization reaction.

E) precipitation reaction

B

10

An indirect version of which test using antihuman globulin may be used to detect patient's antibodies against Treponema pallidum?

A) agglutination reaction.

B) complement fixation.

C) immunofluorescence.

D) neutralization reaction.

E) precipitation reaction

C

11

Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n)

A) TC cell response.

B) immune complex.

C) dendritic cell proliferation.

D) antibody response against these bacterial toxins.

E) antibody response against gram-positive bacteria.

D

12

What type of vaccine os Streptococcus pygenes capsule?

A) Conjugated vaccine

B) Subunit vaccine

C) Nucleic acid vaccine

D) Attenuated whole-agent vaccine

E) Toxoid vaccine

B

13

What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?

A) conjugated vaccine

B) subunit vaccine

C) nucleic acid vaccine

D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine

E) toxoid vaccine

C

14

Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n)

A) conjugated vaccine.

B) subunit vaccine.

C) nucleic acid vaccine.

D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.

E) toxoid vaccine.

B

15

What type of vaccine is the live, weakened measles virus?

A) conjugated vaccine

B) subunit vaccine

C) nucleic acid vaccine

D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine

E) toxoid vaccine

D

16

A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient's serum is the

A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.

B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.

C) direct agglutination test.

D) direct ELISA test.

E) hemagglutination-inhibition test.

B

17

A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient's throat swab is the

A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.

B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.

C) hemagglutination test.

D) hemagglutination-inhibition test.

E) indirect ELISA test.

A

18

A test used to detect anti-Rickettsiaantibodies in a patient's serum is the

A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.

B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.

C) None of the above.

B

19

Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's urine using anti-HCG and latex spheres?

A) direct agglutination reaction

B) indirect agglutination reaction

C) immunofluorescence

D) neutralization reaction

E) precipitation reaction

B

20

Which of the following is a test to determine a patient's blood type by mixing the patient's red blood cells with antisera?

A) direct agglutination reaction

B) passive agglutination reaction

C) immunofluorescence

D) neutralization reaction

E) precipitation reaction

A

21

Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient's saliva?

A) direct agglutination reaction

B) passive agglutination reaction

C) immunofluorescence

D) neutralization reaction

E) precipitation reaction

E

22

A patient's serum, Rickettsia, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep red blood cell antibodies are mixed in a test tube. What happens if the patient has epidemic typhus?

A) Bacteria fluoresce.

B) Hemagglutination occurs.

C) Hemagglutination-inhibition occurs.

D) Hemolysis occurs.

E) None of t he above.

E

23

A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n)

A) conjugated vaccine.

B) subunit vaccine.

C) nucleic acid vaccine.

D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

E) toxoid vaccine.

B

24

Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)

A) conjugated vaccine.

B) subunit vaccine.

C) nucleic acid vaccine.

D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

E) toxoid vaccine.

E

25

Haemophilus influenzae b capsular polysaccharide with a protein is a(n)

A) conjugated vaccine.

B) subunit vaccine.

C) nucleic acid vaccine.

D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

E) toxoid vaccine.

A

26
card image

In Table 18.1, who probably has the disease?

A) Patients A and B

B) Patients B and C

C) Patients A and C

D) Patients C and D

E) Patients A and D

A

27
card image

In Table 18.1, who is most likely protected from the disease?

A) Patient A

B) Patient B

C) Patient C

D) Patient D

E) All of the above

D

28
card image

In Table 18.1, who showed seroconversion during these observations?

A) Patient A

B) Patient B

C) Patient C

D) Patient D

E) All of the above

A

29

In a direct ELISA test, what are you looking for in the patient?

A) Antibodies

B) Antigen

C) Either antigen or antibodies

D) None of the above

B

30

Which of the following tests is not correctly matched to its positive reaction?

A) Hemagglutination - clumping of red blood cells

B) Complement fixation - no hemolysis

C) Neutralization - no tissue/animal death

D) ELISA - enzyme-substrate reaction

E) None of the above

E

31

To detect botulinum toxin in food, suspect food is injected into two guinea pigs. The guinea pig that was vaccinated against botulism survives, while the one that was not vaccinated dies. This is an example of

A) Agglutination

B) Neutralization

C) Hemagglutination

D) Fluorescent antibodies

E) ELISA

B

32

The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth step?

A) A B cell is activated to produce antibodies.

B) Culture the hybridoma in a selective medium.

C) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.

D) Isolate antibody-producing B cells.

E) Vaccinate a mouse.

C

33

Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. This antiviral drug is a(n)

A) toxoid.

B) monoclonal antibody.

C) vaccine.

D) immunosuppressive.

E) nucleoside analog.

B

34

Live weakened polio virus can be used directly in a(n)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.

C) conjugated vaccine.

D) subunit vaccine.

E) toxoid vaccine.

B

35

Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.

C) conjugated vaccine.

D) subunit vaccine.

E) toxoid vaccine.

C

36

Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.

C) conjugated vaccine.

D) subunit vaccine.

E) toxoid vaccine.

A

37

Hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.

C) conjugated vaccine.

D) subunit vaccine.

E) toxoid vaccine.

D

38

What is the third step in a direct ELISA test?

A) Substrate for the enzyme

B) Antigen

C) Antihuman immune serum

D) Antibodies against the antigen

C

39

Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?

A) substrate for the enzyme

B) antigen

C) antihuman immune serum

D) antibodies against the antigen

B

40

Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies?

A) agglutination

B) complement fixation

C) neutralization

D) indirect ELISA

E) direct fluorescent-antibody

D

41

Which of the following uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies?

A) agglutination

B) complement fixation

C) precipitation

D) flow cytometry

E) neutralization

D

42

Which of the following uses red blood cells as the indicator?

A) Agglutination

B) Complement fixation

C) Precipitation

D) Flow cytometry

E) Neutralization

B

43

In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose the fungal disease histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a precipitate forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well.

What is in the second well?

A) antibodies

B) a fungal antigen

C) fungal cells

D) mycelia

E) red blood cells

B

44

In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a line forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well.

The immunodiffusion test described is

A) an agglutination reaction

B) a precipitation reaction

C) a complement-fixation test

D) an indirect ELISA test

E) a direct test

B

45

The circumsporozite antigen of Plasmodium can be used for all of the following except to

A) Vaccinate healthy people

B) Cure infected people

C) Produce monoclonal antibodies

D) Decrease recurring infections

E) All of the above

B

46

Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses.

True/False

True

47

In a vaccine preparation, the term "attenuated" means that the agent does NOT replicate.

True/False

False

48

An injection of "naked" DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine.

True/False

False

49

Adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used as additives in vaccines to enhance immune responses.

True/False

True

50

Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions.

True/False

True

51

A positive complement-fixation test is indicated by the lysis of the sheep red blood cells added in the indicator phase of the test.

True/False

False

52

The home pregnancy test kit is an example of a direct ELISA.

True/False

True

53

Western blotting uses antibodies to detect specific proteins in a mixture of proteins.

True/False

True

54

A highly specific diagnostic test will be unlikely to indicate a positive result if a specimen being tested is a true negative.

True/False

True

55

Agglutination tests use particulate antigens while precipitation tests use soluble antigens.

True/False

True