microbiology chapter 9 Flashcards


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1

1. Protists include

b. algae and protozoa.

2

2. Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic flagella because only eukaryotic flagella

e. contain microtubules.

3

3. Cilia are found in certain

a. protozoa.

4

4. Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of

c. fungi.

5

5. Cell walls are not found on typical cells of

a. protozoa.

6

6. The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the

b. nucleolus.

7

7. When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear
as a visible thread-like mass called the

e. chromatin.

8

8. Histones are

d. proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus.

9

9. The eukaryotic cell's glycocalyx is

a. mostly polysaccharide.

10

10. Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells?

e. All of the choices are correct.

11

11. The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the

e. endoplasmic reticulum.

12

12. An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify,
and package proteins for cell secretion is the

c. Golgi apparatus

13

13. Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration
are found?

a. mitochondria.

14

14. Organelles found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi are the

d. chloroplasts.

15

15. Protists with contractile vacuoles

b. use them to expel excess water from the cell.

16

16. The cytoskeleton

e. All of the choices are correct.

17

17. The size of a eukaryotic cell ribosome is

e. 80S.

18

18. Filamentous fungi are called

c. molds.

19

19. When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called

a. pseudohyphae.

20

20. Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are
called

a. dimorphic.

21

21. Fungal spores

e. are used as a means of reproduction.

22

22. Which of the following spores are produced within a sac?

b. sporangiospores

23

23. Which of the following spores are sexually produced?

e. zygospores

24

24. A mold is observed to have asexual conidia, sexual spores within a sac, and septate hyphae.
It is most likely classified in the

b. Ascomycota.

25

25. What do zygospores, ascospores, and basidiospores have in common?

c. They are sexual spores.

26

26. Which is not a characteristic of fungi?

b. photosynthetic

27

27. Blooms of certain dinoflagellates are associated with all of the following except

e. aflatoxin

28

28. Which is mismatched?

a. Pyrrophyta - euglenids

29

29. All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except

e. cell wall.

30

30. The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the

a. trophozoite.

31

31. The group of protozoa that have flagella are the

c. Mastigophora.

32

32. Which is mismatched?

d. Plasmodium - causes Chagas disease

33

33. All of the following are helminths except

c. trypanosomes.

34

34. Which of the following does not pertain to helminths?

a. in kingdom Protista

35

35. Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of

c. helminths.

36

36. Both fish and humans develop neurological symptoms and bloody skin lesions due to a
sudden "bloom" of this algae

b. Pfiesteria piscida

37

37. The stacks of thylakoids in a chloroplast are called

a. grana.

38

38. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of ___________.

e. lipids

39

39. Which of the following is the cause of malaria?

b. Plasmodium

40

40. Sources for human infection with worms are all of the following except

e. contaminated air.

41

41. All of the following are correct about helminthes except

a. they generally make only a few eggs per day.

42

42. The organelle involved in intracellular digestion of food particles is the

b. lysosomes.

43

43. The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental
temperature is called

c. dimorphism.

44

44. The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are

d. respiratory and cutaneous.

45

45. Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all

c. antifungal drugs.

46

46. All of the following are dimorphic, true fungal pathogens except

a. Candida.

47

47. The terms used for the four levels of fungal infection include the following except

b. bloodborne.

48

48. Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include

a. it grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano.

49

49. The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the

c. East and Midwest.

50

50. Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis?

e. never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract

51

51. All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis except

a. the pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano.

52

52. Blastomyces dermatitidis

a. causes Gilchrist disease and Chicago disease.

53

53. Paracoccidioides is

b. endemic to regions of Central and South America.

54

54. Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii?

d. causes superficial cutaneous infection

55

55. Mycetoma is

a. a subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor.

56

56. Dermatophytoses are

e. All of the choices are correct.

57

57. Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton

c. reservoirs are humans, animals, and soils.

58

58. Which is mismatched?

a. Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard

59

59. Transmission of tineas include

e. All of the choices are correct.

60

60. All of the following pertain to Candida albicans except

c. has a large capsule.

61

61. Candidiasis includes

e. All of the choices are correct.

62

62. Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics except

a. commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia

63

63. Cryptococcosis can include

e. All of the choices are correct.

64

64. Oral thrush is caused by

b. Candida albicans.

65

65. This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients:

d. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

66

66. Aspergillosis includes all the following except

a. there are no effective drugs to treat the infection.

67

67. Serious mycoses treated with amphotericin B include all the following except

c. Pneumocystis pneumonia.

68

68. Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost matter, allows growth and
transmission of

b. Aspergillus.

69

69. This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent
mycotoxin called aflatoxin:

e. Aspergillus flavis

70

70. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

e. All of the choices are correct.

71

71. Ergotism is caused by

d. ingesting alkaloids from Claviceps purpurea on rye plants.

72

72. Menthol and camphor (VicksTM) are effective treatments against

b. ringworm.

73

73. All of the following are fungal allergies except

d. thrush.

74

74. Which of the following is incorrect about Sporotrichosis?

a. It is also known as Valley fever.

75

75. The primary portal of entry for fungal infections is

c. the respiratory tract.

76

76. Which antifungal drug inhibits cell division of the fungus?

e. griseofulvin

77

77. Which of the following are likely to predispose patients to fungal infections?

e. All of the choices are correct.

78

78. Alternative names for Blastomyces dermatitidis include

a. Gilchrist's disease.

79

79. Acanthamoeba differs from Naegleria fowleri in that only Acanthamoeba

b. enters typically through broken skin or the conjunctiva.

80

80. Entamoeba histolytica is acquired by

e. All of the choices are correct.

81

81. Amebiasis is a disease of the

c. intestines and often the liver.

82

82. Human asymptomic carriers are common in

b. amebiasis and trichomoniasis.

83

83. Diseases transmitted by vectors include

d. trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis.

84

84. The large intestines of pigs are the primary reservoir of the pathogen that causes

a. balantidiasis.

85

85. Which of the following is acquired when amoebas are forced into human nasal passages
during swimming?

a. Naegleria fowleri

86

86. Which of the following has four pairs of flagella?

d. Giardia lamblia

87

87. Which of the following is an apicomplexan parasite?

b. Toxoplasma gondii

88

88. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?

b. trichomoniasis

89

89. Which of the following causes serious congenital disease from transplacental transmission?

a. Toxoplasmosis

90

90. All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except

c. Babesiosis.

91

91. Amebiasis symptoms include

a. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss.

92

92. The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are

d. chills, fever, and sweating.

93

93. Trichomonas vaginalis

e. All of the choices are correct.

94

94. Giardiasis involves

c. symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea.

95

95. African sleeping sickness is caused by

b. Trypanosoma brucei.

96

96. Chagas disease involves transmission of the pathogen by the

a. reduviid, "kissing," bug.

97

97. Transmission of the pathogen of leishmaniasis is by the

d. phlebotomine (sand) fly.

98

98. The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the

b. tsetse fly.

99

99. Which is incorrect about malaria?

a. merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells

100

100. The parasitic disease, caused by an apicomplexan that involves infected cats in its life cycle
is

d. toxoplasmosis.

101

101. Which was the first disease found to be due to a protozoan that is introduced to humans by
the bite of a hard body tick?

c. babesiosis

102

102. Outbreaks of this apicomplexan disease have been associated with fecal-contaminated
imported raspberries, and also fresh greens and drinking water

b. cyclosporiasis

103

103. Toxoplasmosis includes all the following except

e. intrauterine infectious are generally mild with very little damage to fetal tissues

104

104. Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include

a. headache, sweating, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea.

105

105. Parasitic helminthes have the following characteristics except

c. have developmental forms that include cysts

106

106. Which is mismatched?

a. Whipworm - trematode

107

107. Ascaris lumbricoides

e. All of the choices are correct.

108

108. Enterobius vermicularis is

c. an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites.

109

109. Hookworms

e. All of the choices are correct.

110

110. Strongyloides stercoralis

d. immunosuppressed patients can die from disseminated disease.

111

111. Trichinosis includes all the following except

e. All of the choices are correct.

112

112. Elephantiasis includes all the following except

b. helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors.

113

113. River blindness is

b. a disease in which worms can invade the eyes.

114

114. Schistosomiasis involves

e. All of the choices are correct.

115

115. Fasciola hepatica is a

c. liver fluke.

116

116. All of the following pertain to tapeworms except

e. one proglottid segment will have either female or male reproductive organs.

117

117. Which is mismatched?

d. Echinococcus granulosus - poultry

118

118. All of the following will kill Giardia except

d. chlorine in typical drinking water.

119

119. Which of the following is not an effective way to minimize human contact with parasitic
helminths?

e. These are all effective ways.

120

120. Which is not correct about trichinosis?

c. Only a few cases occur each year in the U.S.

121

121. Which parasite is carried by Cyclops, an arthropod commonly found in still water?

b. Dracunculus medinesis

122

122. Pregnant women should never change cat litter due to the risk of contracting

a. toxoplasmosis.

123

123. Which is not correct about kala azar?

b. Chemotherapy with chloroquine is usually effective.

124

124. The usual definitive host for Echinococcus granulosus is

d. dogs.

125

The larval forms of certain Taenia species, which typically infest muscles of mammalian

c. cysticerci.

126

126. Trichinella spiralis is a/an _________ that invades the __________.

a. roundworm, intestine