Csako test 3 part 2 Flashcards


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1

Which of the following statements about the transition from ocean to land by plants is most likely to be accurate?

a) Rising sea levels favored individuals that were able to survive ever-drier conditions.

b) The high light levels of terrestrial systems favored individuals that contained flexible photosynthetic enzyme systems.

c) The transition to land occurred within a few generations.

d) The transition to land was likely gradual, with plants evolving traits that let them survive ever-drier conditions.

d

2

Apical meristems ________.

a) occur only in roots of plants

b) occur in both roots and shoots of plants

c) allow plants to move from one place to another

d) occur only in shoots of plants

b

3

Which of the following statements about stomata is accurate?

a) Stomata are not important in algae because they do not need CO2.

b) Stomata are important in terrestrial plants because they allow CO2 to diffuse into the plant.

c) Stomata, when closed, allow CO2 to diffuse into plants.

d) Stomata are important in terrestrial plants because they allow the roots to absorb water and nutrients from the soil.

b

4

The presence of vascular tissue allowed plants to ________.

a) absorb nutrients from the soil and form a symbiosis with fungi

b) transport nutrients and water from below-ground tissues to above-ground tissues and grow taller

c) transport nutrients and water from below-ground tissues and use them to protect developing embryos

d) release toxins into the soil that reduced competition with other plants by poisoning nearby plants

b

5

In mosses gametes are produced by _____; in ferns gametes are produced by _____.

a) mitosis ... meiosis

b) binary fission ... mitosis

c) meiosis ... meiosis

d) mitosis ... mitosis

e) meiosis ... mitosis

d

6

Where do fern antheridia develop?

a) on the tip of the sporophyte

b) on the underside of the sporophyte

c) on the tip of the gametophyte

d) on the underside of the gametophyte

e) on the tip of the haploid protonema

d

7

The conspicuous part of a fern plant is a _____.

a) diploid sorus

b) diploid sporophyte

c) haploid sporophyte

d) diploid gametophyte

e) haploid gametophyte

b

8

What evolutionary development allowed plants to grow tall? See Concept 29.3 (Page 626) View Available Hint(s)

a) the waxy cuticle

b) lignified vascular tissue

c) leaves

d) rhizoids

e) sporophylls

b

9

The evolution of a vascular system in plants allowed which of the following to occur?

a) increased height, improved competition for water, and increased spore dispersal distances

b) increased height, improved competition for light, and increased spore dispersal distances

c) decreased height, improved competition for water, and decreased spore dispersal distances

d) decreased height, improved competition for light, and decreased spore dispersal distances

b

10

In plants, which of the following are produced by meiosis?

a) diploid spores

b) haploid sporophytes

c) haploid spores

d) diploid gametes

e) haploid gametes

c

11

Which of the following characteristics of plants is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae?

a) sexual reproduction

b) cellulose in cell walls

c) chlorophyll b

d) formation of a cell plate during cytokinesis

e) alternation of multicellular generations

e

12

Which of these facts provides the best support for the hypothesis that plants evolved from green algae?

a) Plants and green algae are photosynthetic.

b) Plants and green algae have chloroplasts.

c) The chloroplasts of plants and green algae all have both chlorophyll a and b.

c

13

Select the correct statement about plant life cycles.

a) Meiosis in plant life cycles is a sexual process, producing gametes.

b) Over evolutionary time, the sporophyte has replaced the gametophyte in plant life cycles.

c) At some point in the life cycle of all plants, the sporophyte is dependent on its gametophyte parent.

c

14

Select the correct statement contrasting gametophytes and sporophytes.

a) Sporophytes are vascular, whereas gametophytes are nonvascular.

b) Sporophytes are diploid, whereas gametophytes are haploid.

c) Sporophytes are larger than gametophytes.

b

15

What is the process by which a trait present in an ancestral organism is modified by natural selection over time in descendants of that ancestor?

a) descent with modification

b) analogy

c) convergent evolution

d) homology

a

16

In plants, the ________ produces haploid gametes (eggs and sperm) by mitosis, whereas the ________ produces haploid spores by meiosis.

a) gametophyte; sporophyte

b) zygote; embryo

c) embryo; zygotes

d) porophyte; gametophyte

a

17

When you look at a pine or maple tree, the plant you see is a _____. See Concept 30.1 (Page 635) View Available Hint(s)

a) diploid gametophyte

b) haploid gametophyte

c) diploid sporophyte

d) triploid endosperm

e)haploid sporophyte

c

18

The adaptation that made possible the colonization of dry land environments by seed plants is most likely the result of the evolution of _____. See Concept 30.1 (Page 636) View Available Hint(s)

a)pollen

b) sporophylls

c) heterospory

d) cones

e) ovules

a

19

Which of the following is a major trend in land plant evolution?

a) the trend toward a sporophyte-dominated life cycle

b) the trend toward larger gametophytes

c) the trend toward smaller size

d) the trend toward a gametophyte-dominated life cycle

a

20

In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics is unique to the seed-producing plants?

a) megaphylls

b) sporopollenin

c) lignin present in cell walls

d) pollen

d

21

In seed plants, which of the following is part of a pollen grain and has a function most like that of the seed coat?

a)sporophyll

b) sporangium

c) sporopollenin

d) stigma

c

22

In terms of alternation of generations, the internal parts of the pollen grains of seed-producing plants are most similar to a _____.

a) moss sporophyte

b) fern sporophyte

c) fern gametophyte bearing only antheridia

d) moss gametophyte bearing both male and female gametangia

c

23

The advantages of seeds, compared to spores, include ________.

a) providing nutrition for animals

b) containing a nutrient store for a developing sporophyte

c) relying on animals for pollination

d) using wind as a dispersal agent

b

24

Which of the following sex and generation combinations directly produces the pollen tube of angiosperms?

a) female gametophyte

b) male sporophyte

c) male gametophyte

d) female sporophyte

c

25

One day, you go outside and see that the cars on the street are covered in a yellow "dust." Which of the following statements can be correctly applied to this "dust"?

a) The dust is pine pollen and is so abundant because the pines are wind-pollinated.

b) The dust is the seed production of ferns and is so abundant because the seeds are tiny and take very little energy to produce.

c) The dust is the spore production of ferns and is so abundant because the spores are wind-dispersed.

d) The dust is the seed production of pines and is so abundant because the seeds are tiny and take very little energy to produce.

a

26

Which of these is unique to flowering plants?

a) pollen production

b) double fertilization

c) haploid gametophytes

d) a dominant sporophyte generation

e) an embryo surrounded by nutritive tissue

b

27

The male gametophytes of flowering plants are also referred to as _____.

a) pollen grains

b) megaspores

c) male sporophytes

d) endosperm

e) embryo sacs

a

28

In flowering plants the integuments of the ovule develop into a(n) _____.

a) cotyledon

b) endosperm

c) seed coat

d) sporophyte

e) fruit

c

29

A carpel is composed of _____.

a) zygote, anther, and endosperm

b) ovule, megasporocyte, and anther

c) ovary, ovule, and anther

d) petal, sepal, and stamen

e) stigma, style, and ovary

e

30

A stamen consists of _____.

a) ovary and sepal

b) stigma and style

c) anther and filament

d) stigma and filament

e) stigma and anther

c

31

In angiosperms, pollination is the transfer of pollen grain to the _____ of a flower on the same plant or another plant of the same species.

a) stigma

b) ovary

c) ovulate cone

d) anther

e) style

a

32

Angiosperms are different from all other plants because only they have _____. See Concept 30.3 (Page 642) View Available Hint(s)

a) flowers

b) a vascular system

c) seeds

d) a sporophyte phase

e) a life cycle that involves alternation of generationsSubmit

a

33

The Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50 meters tall, a source of high-quality lumber, and a favorite nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits, each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others inside the fruit, which moisture can then enter and allow the remaining seeds to germinate.

Orchid bees are to Brazil nut trees as ________ are to pine trees.

a) rain droplets

b) squirrels

c) breezes

d) seed-eating birds

c

34

Many mammals have skins and mucous membranes that are sensitive to phenolic secretions of plants like poison oak (Rhus). These secondary compounds are primarily adaptations that _____.

a) foster seed dispersal

b) decrease competition

c) favor pollination

d) inhibit herbivory

d

35

The Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50 meters tall, a source of high-quality lumber, and a favorite nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits, each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others inside the fruit, which moisture can then enter and allow the remaining seeds to germinate.

Entrepreneurs attempted, but failed, to harvest nuts from plantations grown in Southeast Asia. Attempts to grow Brazil nut trees in South American plantations also failed. In both cases, the trees grew vigorously, produced healthy flowers in profusion, but set no fruit. Consequently, what is the likely source of the problem?

a) failure to produce pollen

b) failure to produce fertile ovules

c) poor sporophyte viability

d) pollination failure

d

36

In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes within each nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each of the following onion tissues. How many chromosomes should be in a tube cell nucleus?

a) 8

b) 16

c)24

d) 32

a

37

In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes within each nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each of the following onion tissues. How many chromosomes should be in a generative cell nucleus?

a) 8

b) 16

c)24

d) 32

a

38

In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes within each nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each of the following onion tissues. How many chromosomes should be in the nucleus of an egg within the embryo sac prior to fertilization?

a) 8

b) 16

c) 24

d) 32

a

39

In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes within each nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each of the following onion tissues. How many chromosomes should be in an embryo nucleus after fertilization?

a) 8

b) 16

c) 24

d) 32

b

40

In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes within each nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each of the following onion tissues. How many chromosomes should be in a megasporangium nucleus?

a) 8

b) 16

c) 24

d) 32

b

41

The Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50 meters tall, a source of high-quality lumber, and a favorite nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits, each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others inside the fruit, which moisture can then enter and allow the remaining seeds to germinate.

Animals that consume Brazil nuts derive nutrition mostly from tissue whose nuclei have how many chromosomes?

a) 34

b) 51

c) 17

d) 68

b

42

Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms?

a) free-living gametophytes

b) double internal fertilization

c) carpels that contain microsporangia

d) ovules that are not contained within ovaries

b

43

The generative cell of male angiosperm gametophytes is haploid. This cell divides to produce two haploid sperm cells. What type of cell division does the generative cell undergo to produce these sperm cells?

a) mitosis

b) meiosis

c) binary fission

d) meiosis without subsequent cytokinesis

a

44

Stamens, sepals, petals, carpels, and pinecone scales are all _____.

a) female reproductive parts

b) capable of photosynthesis

c) found on flowers

d) modified leaves

d

45

Robbie and Saurab are pre-med and pre-pharmacy students, respectively. They complain to their biology professor that they should not have to study plants because plants have little relevance to their chosen professions. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to what physicians and pharmacists need to know about plants?

a) Land plants often provide food for pollinators.

b) Crop plants often produce more seeds than their wild relatives.

c) Land plants produce poisons and medicines.

d) Crop plants can often interbreed with their wild relatives.

c

46

Where in an angiosperm would you find a megasporangium?

a) in the style of a flower

b) packed into pollen sacs within the anthers found on a stamen

c) enclosed in the stigma of a flower

d) within an ovule contained within an ovary of a flower

e) inside the tip of a pollen tube

d

47

With respect to angiosperms, which of the following is incorrectly paired with its chromosome count?

a) megaspore-2n

b) zygote-2n

c) sperm-n

d) egg-n

e) microspore-n

a

48

What are the products of meiosis in the life cycle of a seed plant?

a) Megaspores or microspores

b) Male or female gametophytes

c) Sperm or eggs

a

49

Which of the following statements about decomposers is false?

a) They play a key role in chemical recycling.

b) They are autotrophs.

c) They include prokaryotic and eukaryotic species.

d) They break down waste products, leaf litter, and the bodies of dead organisms.

b

50

In asexual reproduction,

a) one parent passes copies of all of its genes to its offspring after crossing over occurs.

b) one parent passes copies of all of its genes to its offspring without the fusion of gametes.

c) each parent passes copies of all of its genes to its offspring, causing the offspring to differ genetically from each other.

d) each offspring has some cells derived by mitosis in the parent and other cells derived by meiosis in the parent.

b

51

Suppose two species live in close contact with each other. One species benefits by eating the tissues of the other, and the other is harmed (by having its tissues consumed). The ecological interaction between these species is an example of

a) symbiosis and commensalism.

b) symbiosis and mutualism.

c) mutualism and parasitism.

d) parasitism and symbiosis.

d

52

Which of the following is a difference between plants and fungi? See Concept 31.1 (Page 653) View Available Hint(s)

a) Plants produce spores.

b) Plants have diploid and haploid phases, and fungi have only haploid stages.

c) Fungi have cell walls.

d) Fungi are heterotrophic, and plants are autotrophic.

e) Fungi are strictly asexual, and plants undergo sexual reproduction.

d

53

Fungi obtain nutrients through _____. See Concept 31.1 (Page 653) View Available Hint(s)

a)photosynthesis

b)chemosynthesis

c) endocytosis

d) absorption

e) ingestion

d

54

The body of most fungi consists of threadlike _____, which form a network called a _____. See Concept 31.1 (Page 653) View Available Hint(s)

a) mycelia ... dikaryon

b) hyphae ... mycelium

c) mycelia ... hypha

d) sporangia ... dikaryon

e) hyphae ... chytrid

b

55

What do fungi and arthropods have in common?

a) The haploid state is dominant in both groups.

b) Both groups use chitin for support.

c) Both groups are predominantly autotrophs that produce their own food.

d) Both groups have cell walls.

b

56

Fungi have an extremely high surface-to-volume ratio. What is the advantage of this characteristic to an organism that gets most of its nutrition through absorption?

a) The high ratio allows for more material to be acquired from the surroundings and transported through the cell membrane.

b) This high ratio means that fungi have a thick, fleshy structure that allows the fungi to store more of the food it absorbs.

c) This high ratio creates more room inside the cells for additional organelles involved in absorption.

d) The lower volume prevents the cells from drying out too quickly, which can interfere with absorption.

a

57

If all fungi in an environment that perform decomposition were to suddenly die, then which group of organisms should benefit most, due to the fact that their fungal competitors have been removed?

a) grasses

b) flowering plants

c) prokaryotes

d) protists

c

58

When a mycelium infiltrates an unexploited source of dead organic matter, what are most likely to appear within the food source soon thereafter?

a) fungal enzymes

b) larger bacterial populations

c) fungal haustoria

d) increased oxygen levels

a

59

A fungal spore germinates, giving rise to a mycelium that grows outward into the soil surrounding the site where the spore originally landed. Which of the following accounts for the fungal movement, as described here?

a) cytoplasmic streaming in hyphae

b) breezes distributing spores

c) karyogamy

d) mycelial flagella

a

60

The adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is primarily related to _____.

a) an extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive nutrition

b) the ability to form haustoria and parasitize other organisms

c) the potential to inhabit almost all terrestrial habitats

d) the increased probability of contact between different mating types

a

61

Some fungal species live in plants and can kill herbivores that feed on the plant. What type of relationship does this fungus have with its host?

a) mutualistic

b) commensal

c) parasitic

d) predatory

a

62

Some nematode worms suck plant juices from the roots of plants and are economically important agricultural pests. Some fungi are usually decomposers of plant material, but some trap and kill nematodes at times. Arthrobotrys traps and kills nematodes, especially when they lack nitrogen sources. These two facts suggest that farmers could find Arthrobotrys an important tool in combating nematode infestations. Which of the following research questions would make a good starting point for developing such a defense against plant-sucking nematodes?

a) What is the evolutionarily oldest method of trapping nematodes?

b) What mechanisms do nematodes have that could allow them to escape from Arthrobotrys?

c) Does nitrogen fertilization of crops affect the likelihood that Arthrobotrys will trap and kill nematodes?

d) Do nitrogen-fixing bacteria provide nitrogen to the fungi?

c

63

Why are mycorrhizal fungi superior to plants at acquiring mineral nutrition from the soil?

a) Hyphae are 100 to 1,000 times larger than plant roots.

b) Fungi secrete extracellular enzymes that can break down large molecules.

c) Mycelia are able to grow in the direction of food.

d) Hyphae have a smaller surface area-to-volume ratio than do the hairs on a plant root.Submit

b

64

The diploid phase of the life cycle is shortest in which of the following? See Concept 31.2 (Page 655) View Available Hint(s)

a) gymnosperm

b) angiosperm

c) fern

d) moss

e) fungus

e

65

What sexual processes in fungi generate genetic variation? See Concept 31.2 (Page 656) View Available Hint(s)

a) diploidy and the heterokaryotic condition

b) haustoria and karyogamy

c) karyogamy and meiosis

d) plasmogamy and meiosis

e) budding and meiosis

c

66

Deuteromycetes _____.

a) include the imperfect fungi that lack hyphae

b) are the group of fungi that have, at present, no known sexual stage

c) represent the phylum in which all the fungal components of lichens are classified

d) are the group that includes molds, yeasts, and lichens

b

67

Plasmogamy can directly result in which of the following?

a) heterokaryotic cells or dikaryotic cells

b) heterokaryotic cells or cells with two diploid nuclei

c) dikaryotic cells or cells with two diploid nuclei

d) cells with a single haploid nucleus or dikaryotic cells

a

68

In most fungi, karyogamy does not immediately follow plasmogamy, which consequently _____.

a) results in multiple diploid nuclei per cell

b) means that sexual reproduction can occur in specialized structures

c) results in heterokaryotic or dikaryotic cells

d) allows fungi to reproduce asexually most of the time

c

69

The multicellular condition of animals and fungi seems to have arisen _____.

a) due to common ancestry

b) by inheritance of acquired traits

c) by serial endosymbioses

d) by convergent evolution

d

70

Fungi produce _____ spores.

a)dikaryotic

b)heterokaryotic

c) haploid

d) diploid

e) triploid

c

71

Karyogamy produces a _____.

a) diploid zygote

b) haploid zygote

c) spores

d) mycelium

e) hypha

a

72

Which of these contains two haploid nuclei?

a) the heterokaryotic stage of the fungal life cycle

b) zygotespore-producing structures

c) mycelium

d) hypha

d

73

Cup fungi are in the phylum _____.

a) Zygomycota

b) Chytridomycota
c) Ascomycota
d) Chordata
e) Basidiomycota

c

74

Fungi form mutualistic relationships with plants and animals. Which of the following is an example of such a relationship? See Concept 31.5 (Page 665)
View Available Hint(s)

a) Fungi help break down wood in the guts of termites.
b) Fungi can help increase drought tolerance in plants
c) Fungi help break down plant material in the guts of grazing mammals.
d) Endophytes in leaves produce toxins that deter herbivores.
e) All of the above.

e

75

Which of the following best describes the physical relationship of the partners involved in lichens?

a) Photosynthetic cells are surrounded by fungal hyphae.
b) Lichen cells are enclosed within fungal cells.
c) Fungi grow on rocks and trees and are covered by algae.
d) Fungal cells are enclosed within algal cells.

a

76

All fungi share which of the following characteristics?

a) heterotrophic
b) pathogenic
c) flagellated
d) act as decomposers
e) symbiotic

a

77

In a phylogenetic tree, a lineage that diverges from all other members of its group early in the evolutionary history of the group is described as

a) the most recent common ancestor.
b) the oldest evolutionary lineage
c) the root of the tree.
d) a basal taxon.

d

78

A mutualism is an ecological relationship between two species

a) that live in close contact with each other.
b) that both benefit from the relationship.
c) in which one species benefits and the other is not harmed or helped in any significant way.
d) in which the smaller species lives within the cells or body of the larger species (the host).

b

79

Which of the following is (are) unique to animals?

a) the structural carbohydrate, chitin
b) nervous system signal conduction and muscular movement
c) heterotrophy
d) flagellated gametes

b

80

The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult, whereas the larvae of other insects look completely different from adults, eat different foods, and may live in different habitats. Which of the following is most directly involved in the evolution of these variations in metamorphosis?

a) the evolution of meiosis
b) changes in the homeobox genes controlling early development
c) the origin of a brain
d) artificial selection of sexually immature forms of insects

b

81

Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. What distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that most animals derive their nutrition by ________.

a) consuming living, rather than dead, prey
b) preying on animals
c) using enzymes to digest their food
d) ingesting materials

d

82

What do animals ranging from corals to monkeys have in common?

a) some type of body symmetry
b) presence of Hox genes
c) number of embryonic tissue layers
d) a mouth and an anus

b

83

All animals can trace their lineage to a common ancestor that lived in the _____. See Concept 32.2 (Page 673)
View Available Hint(s)

a) Pliocene
b) Jurassic
c) Cenozoic
d) Devonian
e) Neoproterozoic era

e

84

The earliest ancestors of about half of all extant animal phyla can be traced back to the _____ explosion. See Concept 32.2 (Page 675)
View Available Hint(s)

a) Devonian

b) Jurassic
c) Pleistocene
d) Cambrian
e) Carboniferous

d

85

The last common ancestor of all animals was probably a _____.

a) multicellular algae
b) multicellular fungus
c) unicellular chytrid
d) flagellated protist

d

86

Which of the following genetic processes may be most helpful in accounting for the Cambrian explosion?

a) random segregation
b) chromosomal condensation
c) gene duplication
d) binary fission

c

87

Which of the following is radially symmetrical? See Concept 32.3 (Page 677)
View Available Hint(s)

a) a submarine sandwich
b) a dog
c) a doughnut
d) a spoon
e) an automobile

c

88

Gastrulation is the process that directly forms the _____. See Concept 32.3 (Page 679)
View Available Hint(s)

a) primary germ layers
b) organs
c) muscles
d) blastula
e) central nervous system

a

89

During embryological development, the anus forms before the mouth in _____. See Concept 32.3 (Page 679)
View Available Hint(s)

a) arthropods
b) earthworms
c) slugs
d) flatworms
e) humans

e

90

Which of the following animals does NOT have a body cavity? See Concept 32.3 (Page 678)
View Available Hint(s)

a) flatworm
b) clam
c) nematode
d) earthworm
e) mouse

a

91

Which tissue type or organ is not correctly matched with its germ layer tissue?

a) nervous: mesoderm
b) muscular: mesoderm
c) skin: ectoderm
d) stomach: endoderm

a

92

While looking at some seawater through your microscope, you spot the egg of an unknown animal. Which of the following tests could you use to determine whether the developing organism is a protostome or a deuterostome? See whether the embryo _____.

a) develops an archenteron
b) develops germ layers
c) develops a blastopore
d) exhibits spiral cleavage or radial cleavage

d

93

In examining an unknown animal species during its embryonic development, how can you be sure what you are looking at is a protostome and not a deuterostome?

a) The animal is clearly bilaterally symmetrical.
b) The animal is triploblastic.
c) There is evidence of cephalization.
d) You see a mouth, but not an anus.

d

94

If you think of the earthworm body plan as a drinking straw within a pipe, where would you expect to find most of the tissues that developed from endoderm?

a) forming the outside of the pipe
b) lining the straw
c) forming the outside of the straw
d) lining the space between the pipe and the straw

b

95

What do all deuterostomes have in common?

a) Adults are bilaterally symmetrical.
b) All have a spinal column.
c) Embryos have pharyngeal pouches that may or may not form gill slits.
d) The pore (blastopore) formed during gastrulation becomes the anus.

d

96

A student encounters an animal embryo at the eight-cell stage. The four smaller cells that comprise 1 hemisphere of the embryo seem to be rotated 45° and to lie in the grooves between larger, underlying cells. This embryo may potentially develop into a(n) ________.

a) sea urchin
b) sea star
c) turtle
d) earthworm

d

97

An organism that exhibits a head with sensory equipment and a brain probably also ________.

a) has a coelom
b) is diploblastic
c) is bilaterally symmetrical
d) is segmented

c

98

The most ancient branch point in animal phylogeny is the characteristic of having _____.

a) diploblastic or triploblastic embryos
b) radial or bilateral symmetry
c) a body cavity or no body cavity
d) true tissues or no tissues

d

99

The distinction between sponges and other animal phyla is based mainly on the absence versus the presence of

a) a complete digestive tract.
b) tissues.
c) a body cavity.
d) mesoderm.

b

100

Select the correct statement(s) about animal body plans.

a) All triploblastic animals possess a coelom.

b) Development in all animals is determined by the unique family of Hox genes (or other similar homeobox genes).

c) In both protostomes and deuterostomes, the blastopore develops into the mouth.

b

101

What is the key difference between a coelom and a pseudocoelom?

a) Only a coelom is fully lined with mesoderm tissue.
b) Pseudocoeloms arose early in animal evolution and evolved into coeloms.
c) A coelom is a true body cavity, whereas a pseudocoelom is a false coelom that is not fully functional.

a

102

Which feature of deuterostome development explains the formation of identical human twins?

a) In deuterostomes, the blastopore becomes the anus.
b) Deuterostomes have indeterminate development.
c) Deuterostomes have radial cleavage.

b

103

A pseudocoelomate refers to an animal with a

a) functional body cavity lined by tissues derived only from mesoderm.
b) functional body cavity lined by tissues derived from mesoderm and endoderm.
c) functional body cavity lined by tissues derived only from endoderm.
d) body cavity that does not function properly.

b

104

What evidence suggests that vertebrates are more closely related to echinoderms than are any other invertebrate phyla?

a) Shared DNA sequences
b) Shared patterns of development
c) Shared morphology

a

105

Why do fleshy fruits often have seeds with very tough seed coats?
View Available Hint(s)

a) So the seeds can be dispersed by propulsion
b) So the seeds can extend the distance they travel by catching breezes
c) So the seeds can survive the mechanical forces and conditions in an animal's gut
d) So the seeds can adhere to passing animals

c

106

What characterizes the fruit of seeds that are dispersed by the wind?
View Available Hint(s)

a) They contain a large amount of sugar.
b) They are very fleshy.
c) They have structures to extend the distance they travel on the wind.
d) They are large.

c

107

True or false? Fruits provide food to the developing plant.
View Available Hint(s)

a) True
b) False

b

108

Which part of a flower develops into the seed?
View Available Hint(s)

a) Carpel
b) Endosperm cell
c) Pericarp
d) Ovule

d

109

Which term describes the portion of a peach that can be eaten by humans?
View Available Hint(s)

a) Endosperm
b) Zygote
c) Seed coat
d) Pericarp

d

110

True or false? The endosperm tissue that nourishes the developing plant has the same nutritional characteristics regardless of the plant species.
View Available Hint(s)

a) True
b) False

b

111

Which part of a plant attracts pollinators?
View Available Hint(s)

a) Petals
b) Stamen
c) Carpel
d) Sepal

a

112

Which process involves the transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma?
View Available Hint(s)

a) Germination
b) Pollination
c) Fertilization
d) Gametogenesis

b

113

True or false? The endosperm in a seed develops into the embryo.
View Available Hint(s)

a) True
b) False

b

114

Which term describes the male gametophytes of flowering plants?
View Available Hint(s)

a) Micropyle
b) Megaspores
c) Pollen grains
d) Microsporocytes

c

115

Which structure formed by the male gametophyte allows sperm to reach the ovary of a flowering plant?
View Available Hint(s)

a) Pollen tube
b) Stigma
c) Anther
d) Micropyle

a

116

How is fertilization in flowering plants different from fertilization in other plant groups?
View Available Hint(s)

a) One sperm nucleus fuses with the egg to form a diploid zygote.
b) One sperm nucleus fuses with the egg to form a diploid zygote, whereas the other sperm nucleus fuses with a polar nucleus to form a diploid cell that forms a nutrient-rich tissue.
c) Two sperm nuclei fuse with a polar nucleus to form a diploid zygote.
d) One sperm nucleus fuses with the egg to form a diploid zygote, whereas the other sperm nucleus fuses with two polar nuclei to form a cell that develops into endosperm.

d

117

Which of the following statements about seed formation in a flowering plant is true?
View Available Hint(s)

a) Hypocotyls are the seed leaves of the embryonic plant.
b) The terminal cell formed from mitosis of the zygote divides to form a row of single cells that eventually forms the embryo.
c) The basal cell formed from mitosis of the zygote divides to form a globular mass that is the route for nutrient transfer to the developing embryo.
d) The swellings that develop into cotyledons are located at the end of the embryo on top of the row of single cells.

d

118

What is endosperm?

a) the leaves that are a part of the embryo
b) the male portion of a flowering plant
c) tissue that develops into a protective seed coat surrounding the embryo
d) the female portion of a flowering plant
e) via cotyledons, a source of food for the embryo

e

119

The pointer is indicating a diploid cell that develops into the _____.

a) embryo
b) seed coats
c) carpel
d) ovule
e) endosperm

a

120

Fruits evolved primarily as structures specialized to _____.

a) protect seeds
b) protect pollen
c) provide a source of food to the plant's embryo
d) provide food for humans
e) disperse seeds

e

121

Meiosis will produce microspores in the _____. See Concept 38.1 (Page 824)
View Available Hint(s)

a) anther
b) petal
c) ovary
d) sepal
e) receptacle

a

122

In angiosperms, each pollen grain produces two sperm. What do these sperm do? See Concept 38.1 (Page 824)
View Available Hint(s)

a) One fertilizes an egg, and the other is kept in reserve.
b) Each one fertilizes a separate egg cell.
c) One fertilizes an egg, and the other fertilizes the fruit.
d) Both sperm fertilize a single egg cell.
e) One fertilizes an egg, and the other combines with two polar nuclei, which develop into stored food cells (endosperm).

e

123

Arrange the following structures from largest to smallest, assuming that they belong to two generations of the same angiosperm.
1. ovary
2. ovule
3. egg
4. carpel
5. embryo sac

a) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
b) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
c) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
d) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

d

124

Retaining the zygote on the living gametophyte of land plants _____.

a) evolved concurrently with pollen
b) helps in dispersal of the zygote
c) protects the zygote from herbivores
d) allows it to be nourished by the parent plant

d

125

Double fertilization means that _____.

a) one sperm is needed to fertilize the egg, and a second sperm is needed to fertilize the polar nuclei
b) every sperm has two nuclei
c) flowers must be pollinated twice to yield fruits and seeds
d) the egg of the embryo sac is diploid

a

126

Suppose that 100 pollen grains land on a stigma, and 50 mature seeds are formed in the fruit. What does this indicate about the pollination process and success?

a) 50% success: 100 pollen grains grew to 50 ovules, and double fertilization occurred.
b) 50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs, and 50 sperm fused with 50 polar nuclei.
c) 50% success: Evidently, only 50 sperm pollinated 50 anthers.
d) 50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs, and 50 sperm fused with 100 polar nuclei.

d

127

The vast number and variety of flower species is probably related to various kinds of _____.

a) climatic conditions
b) pollinators
c) herbivores
d) seed dispersal agents

b

128

The egg of a plant has a haploid chromosome number of 12 (n = 12). What is true about the number of chromosomes in the cells of other tissues of this plant?

a) The leaves and stems have 12 chromosomes.
b) The sperm has 6 chromosomes.
c) The endosperm has 36 chromosomes.
d) The zygote has 12 chromosomes.

c

129

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic feature of the Chordata? See Concept 34.1 (Page 717)
View Available Hint(s)

a)a muscular, post-anal tail
b) a hollow dorsal nerve cord
c) pharyngeal slits or clefts
d) vertebrae
e) notochord

d

130

Which of the following is a characteristic of all chordates at some point during their life cycle?

a) jaws
b) post-anal tail
c) four-chambered heart
d) vertebrae

b

131

The earliest known mineralized structures in vertebrates are associated with _____.

a) locomotion
b) defense
c) respiration
d) feeding

d

132

Jaws evolved _____. See Concept 34.3 (Page 724)
View Available Hint(s)

a) from the bony armor of ostracoderms
b) by modification of middle ear bones
c) by modification of the skeletal rods that previously supported the anterior pharyngeal gill slits
D) from the rasping tongue
e) from arthropod jaws

c

133

Listed below are four adaptations of terrestrial vertebrates. Which is a characteristic only of truly terrestrial animals with no need to return to water at any stage of the life cycle? See Concept 34.5 (Page 732)
View Available Hint(s)

a) tetrapod locomotion
b) hearts with more than two chambers
c) lungs
d) amniotic eggs
E) All of these are essential for a completely terrestrial existence.

d

134

What is believed to be the most significant result of the evolution of the amniotic egg?

a) Embryos are protected from predators.
b) Newborns are much less dependent on their parents.
c) Tetrapods are no longer tied to the water for reproduction.
d) Tetrapods can now function with just lungs.

c

135

Which structure of the amniotic egg most closely surrounds the embryo?

a) the allantois
b) the chorion
c) the yolk sac
d) the amnion

d

136

Which of the following characteristics evolved independently in mammals and birds?

A)amniotic eggs
B) endothermy
C)bone
d) jaws

b

137

The evolution of similar insulating skin coverings such as fur, hair, and feathers in mammals and birds is a result of _____.

a) shared ancestry
b) evolutionary divergence
c) convergent evolution
d) homology

c

138

Mammals and birds eat more often than reptiles. Which of the following traits shared by mammals and birds best explains this habit?

a) ectothermy
b) terrestrial habitat
c) amniotic egg
d) endothermy

d

139

Which of these are amniotes?

a) amphibians
b) turtles
c) fishes
d) lungfish

b

140

Which of the following are the only extant animals that descended directly from dinosaurs?

a) birds
b) crocodiles
c) lizards
d) tuataras

a

141

Primate evolution and behavior, such as hunting skills, have been directed in part by the development of depth perception. What anatomical change made depth perception possible?

a) location of the eyes at the front of the head
b) diurnal activity
c) a larger brain
d) the formation of compound eyes

a

142

What group of mammals have (a) embryos that spend more time feeding through the placenta than the mother's nipples, (b) young that feed on milk, and (c) a prolonged period of maternal care after leaving the placenta?

a) Monotremata
b) Eutheria
c) Marsupiala
d) Lagomorpha

b

143

Which of the following statements about the geographic distribution of marsupials is accurate?

a) they occur only in Australia and New Guinea
b) they occur only in Africa
c) they occur on all continents except Antarctica
d) they occur in Australia and the Americas

d

144

Except for modern ethnic groups in ______, the majority of humans appear to have traces of Neanderthal DNA in their genome.

a) Asia
b) Europe
c) Africa
d) America

c

145

Research confirms that Neanderthal DNA makes up about ____ of the modern human genome.

a) 1%
b) 4%
c) 10%
D) 25%

b

146

DNA was isolated from Neanderthal ____ and sequenced so that it could be compared to modern human DNA.

a) teeth
b) a combination of teeth, bone, and soft tissue
c) soft tissue
d) bone fragments

d

147

Mating is believed to have taken place between modern humans and Neanderthals in ____ about 70,000 years ago.

a) Africa
b) the Middle East
c) Europe
d)Asia

b

148

The Neanderthal DNA discovered in Homo sapiens is best explained by ____.

a) gene flow
b) a mutation
c) polyploidy
d) genetic drift

a

149

Humans are _______.

a) Australopithecus
b) Homo erectus
c) Ardipithecus
d) Homo sapiens
e) Homo habilis

d

150

On the back of your skull you can feel a small bump, below which is an opening where the spinal cord enters the skull. The location of this opening toward the bottom of the skull is significant in evolutionary biology for what reason?

a) This change was necessary for the increase in size from prosimian forms to anthropoid forms.
b) It provided greater protection for the spinal cord.
c) It allowed for the hominin brain to grow much larger than other primates.
d) It occurred as a result of the change to a bipedal stance.

d

151

In what respect do hominins differ from all other anthropoids?

a) eyes on the front of the face
b) bipedal posture
c) lack of a tail
d) opposable thumbs

b