Microbiology an Introduction: Exam 2 Micro MW Flashcards


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1

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a) Glycocalyx-- adherence
b) Pili-- reproduction
c) Cell wall-- toxin
d) Cell wall-- protection
e) Plasma membrane-- transport

e) Plasma membrane-- transport

2

Heredity material passes from parent to offspring during ______.
A. Reproduction

B. DNA

C. Chromosomes

D. Duplication of sperm

A. Reproduction

3

Who is considered the "Father of Genetics?"
A. Dimitri Mendeleev

B. Albert Einstein

C. Gregor Mendel

D. Alfred Wegener

C. Gregor Mendel

4

An organic nutrient essential to an organism’s metabolism that cannot be synthesized itself is termed a /an

A. Trace element

B. Micronutrient

C. Growth factor

D. Mineral

C. Growth factor

5

Which of the following statements about prokaryotic cells is generally false?
A) They lack membrane-bound nuclei.
B) They have a semirigid cell wall.
C) They reproduce by binary fission.
D) They are motile by means of flagella.
E) They possess 80S ribosomes.

E) They possess 80S ribosomes.

6

Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is false?
A) They have an extra outer layer composed of lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and phospholipids.
B) They are sensitive to penicillin.
C) They are toxic to humans.
D) Their Gram reaction is due to the outer membrane.
E) They protect the cell in a hypotonic environment.

B) They are sensitive to penicillin.

7

Which of the following structures is NOT found in prokaryotic cells?
A) Cilium
B) Axial filament
C) Flagellum
D) Pilus
E) Peritrichous flagella

A) Cilium

8

Which of the following statements about the glycocalyx is false?
A) It may be responsible for virulence.
B) It may be composed of polysaccharide.
C) It is used to adhere to surfaces.
D) It may be composed of polypeptide.
E) It protects from osmotic lysis.

E) It protects from osmotic lysis.

9

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell?
A) flagella
B) around organelles
C) the plasma membrane
D) ribosomes
E) the plasma membrane and around organelles

C) the plasma membrane

10

_______ are tiny, naked pieces of RNA that are significant plant pathogens.

A)Viroids B)Prions C)Hepatitis viruses D)Virons E)none of the above

A)Viroids

11

Gram-negative bacteria have what advantage over gram-positive bacteria?

A)Gram-negative bacteria are better able to survive environmental changes than are gram-positive bacteria.

B)Gram-negative bacteria are able to survive longer without water than can gram-positive bacteria.

C)Gram-negative bacteria can metabolize a wider variety of nutritional materials than can gram-positive bacteria.

D)Gram-negative bacteria are able to resist antibiotics that attack the cell wall while gram-positive bacteria are susceptible to these drugs.

E)Gram-negative bacteria have longer life cycles than do gram-positive bacteria.

D)Gram-negative bacteria are able to resist antibiotics that attack the cell wall while gram-positive bacteria are susceptible to these drugs.

12

Endospores function to

A)help the organism survive periods of drought.

B)transmit genetic information from one bacterium to another.

C)help the organism survive exposure to high temperatures.

D)all of the above

E)both a and c

E)both a and c

13

The end result of the viral lytic cycle is

A)lysis of the infected cell.

B)immunity of the host cell to further viral infection.

C)the release of new viruses.

D)both a and b

E)both a and c

E)both a and c

14

An acid fast stain allows you to see Gram-positive microorganisms that are resistant to gram stain.

A) True B) False

A) True

15

Game to help identify bacteria shapes. https://www.purposegames.com/game/identifying-bacteria-by-shape-and-arrangement-quiz

Game to help identify bacteria shapes. https://www.purposegames.com/game/identifying-bacteria-by-shape-and-arrangement-quiz

16

Which of the following describes the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane structure?

A)phospholipid monolayer with embedded proteins

B)phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins

C)phospholipid trilayer with embedded proteins

D)triglyceride bilayer with embedded proteins

E)triglyceride monolayer with embedded proteins

B)phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins

17

Cocci arranged in "grape-like" clusters are known as __ .

A. streptococci

B. staphylococci

C. sarcinae

D. micrococci

B. staphylococci

18

Rod shaped bacteria are called

A)bacilli

B)streptococci

C)cocci

D)staphylobacilli

E)spirilla

A)bacilli

19

Gram-positive bacteria have an outer membrane that stains purple.

A)True

B)False

A)True

20

Gram-negative bacteria have what advantage over gram-positive bacteria?

A)Gram-negative bacteria are better able to survive environmental changes than are gram-positive bacteria.

B)Gram-negative bacteria are able to survive longer without water than can gram-positive bacteria.

C)Gram-negative bacteria can metabolize a wider variety of nutritional materials than can gram-positive bacteria.

D)Gram-negative bacteria are able to resist antibiotics that attack the cell wall while gram-positive bacteria are susceptible to these drugs.

E)Gram-negative bacteria have longer life cycles than do gram-positive bacteria.

D)Gram-negative bacteria are able to resist antibiotics that attack the cell wall while gram-positive bacteria are susceptible to these drugs.

21
card image

a. bacillus
b. coccus
c. spirillum

b. coccus

22
card image

a. capsule
b. endospore
c. flagella

a. capsule

23

Which of the following describes the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane structure?

A)phospholipid monolayer with embedded proteins

B)phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins

C)phospholipid trilayer with embedded proteins

D)triglyceride bilayer with embedded proteins

E)triglyceride monolayer with embedded proteins

B)phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins

24
card image

a. capsule
b. endospore
c. flagella

b. endospore

25

The two functions of bacterial appendages are
A. Attachment and protection
B. Attachment and motility
C. Motility and slime production
D. Energy reactions and synthesis
E. Protection and motility

B. Attachment and motility

26

Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called
A. Flagella
B. Cilia
C. Fimbriae
D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
E. Sex pili

D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)

27

The first prokaryotes appeared about ___ billion years ago.
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
E. 1

C. 3

28

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a prokaryote?
A. It's DNA is not encased in a membrane
B. It has a cell wall made of peptidoglycans or other distinct chemicals
C. It does not have membrane-bound organelles
D. Its DNA is wrapped around histones
E. All of these are characteristics of prokaryotes

D. Its DNA is wrapped around his tones

29

The basal body of a flagellum is anchored into the
A. Hook
B. Outer membrane
C. Cell wall
D. Peptidoglycan layer
E. Cell membrane

E. Cell membrane

30

The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is
A. Amphitrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Lophotrichous
D. Monotrichous
E. Peritrichous

E. Peritrichous

31

The term that refers to the presence of a tuft of flagella emerging from the same site is
A. Amphitrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Lophotrichous
D. Monotrichous
E. Peritrichous

C. Lophotrichous

32

The term that refers to flagella at both poles is
A. Amphitrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Lophotrichous
D. Monotrichous
E. Peritrichous

A. Amphitrichous

33

Chemo taxis refers to the ability to
A. Move in response to light
B. Move in response to a chemical
C. Not move in response to a chemical
D. Transport desired molecules into cell
E. None of the choices are correct

B. Move in response to a chemical

34

A nutrient binds to receptors near the basal body. This will result in
A. Clockwise rotation of flagella
B. Counter clockwise rotation of flagella
C. Inhibition of flagella rotation
D. Numerous tumbles
E. None of the choices are correct

B. Counter clockwise rotation of flagella

35

The prokaryotic flagellum has three parts in the order from cytoplasm to external environment
A. Filament, hook, basal body
B. Filament, basal body, hook
C. Basal body, hook, filament
D. Hook, basal body, filament
E. Basal body, filament, hook

C. Basal body, hook, filament

36

The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called
A. Flagella
B. Cilia
C. Fimbriae
D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
E. Sex pili

C. Fimbriae

37

Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Ribosomes - protein synthesis
B. Inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials
C. Plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism
D. Nucleoid - hereditary material
E. Cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution

C. Plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism

38

All bacterial cells have
A. One or more chromosomes
B. One or more fimbriae
C. The ability to produce endospores
D. Capsules
E. Flagella

A. One or more chromosomes

39

The most commonly encountered bacteria are roughly spherical. The microbiological term describing this shape is

A) coccus

B) bacillus

C) pleomorphic

A) coccus

40

Gram positive cells

A)have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.

B)have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.

C)have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.

D)have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet.

B)have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.

41

The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called
A. Flagella
B. Cilia
C. Fimbriae
D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
E. Sex pili

E. Sex pili

42

Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized?
A. Slime layer
B. Fimbriae
C. Cell membrane
D. Capsule
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

43

Which order below reflects the correct procedure for Gram staining?
A. Alcohol/acetone-Crystal violet-Safranin-Iodine
B. Crystal violet-Alcohol/acetone-Iodine-Safranin
C. Crystal violet-Iodine-Alcohol/acetone-Safranin
D. Iodine-Safranin-Crystal violet-Alcohol/acetone
E. Alcohol/acetone-Safranin-Crystal violet-Iodine

C. Crystal violet-Iodine-Alcohol/acetone-Safranin

44

The cell _____ can be composed of three layers: the membrane, the cell wall and the outer
membrane.
A. Glycocalyx
B. Envelope
C. Pathogenic package
D. Slime coat
E. None of the choices are correct

B. Envelope

45

Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial
A. Cell walls
B. Cell membranes
C. Capsules
D. Slime layers
E. Inclusions

A. Cell walls

46

The function of bacterial endospores is
A. Convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants
B. Reproduction and growth
C. Protection of genetic material during harsh conditions
D. Storage of excess cell materials
E. Sites for photosynthesis

C. Protection of genetic material during harsh conditions

47

Which is the hardiest of all life form and can withstand extreme heat , which is NOT a meant of reproductions?

A) sporulation

B) conversion

C) dimorphism

D) binary fission

A) sporulation

48

Gram-negative cells contain a thin peptidoglycan wall and cell envelope.

True or False

True

49

Peptidoglycan is unique to bacteria.

True or False

True

50

The periplasmic space is between the cell membrane and cell wall.

True or False

True

51

Porin proteins have which function?

A) Regulate molecules entering and leaving cell

B) Repel water

C) Absorb shock

D) Act as receptor for antigens

A) Regulate molecules entering and leaving cell

52

L-forms arise from mutations in what type of genes?

A) RNA

B) membrane forming genes

C) cell wall forming genes

D) cytoplasm forming genes

C) cell wall forming genes

53

True or False

Pleomorphic bacteria are those, which shows variable shape and size in a response to changing environmental conditions.

True or False

True

54

True or False

Archaea do not have the typical peptidoglycan structure found in bacterial cell walls.
True False

True

55

True or False

The first cells on earth were probably archaea.

True

56

True or False

Prokaryotes include bacteria and viruses.

False

57

True or False

Flagella move in a whip-like motion.

False

58

True or False

True pili used for conjugation are only found on gram negative bacteria.

True

59

True or False

The slime layer gives bacteria a greater pathogenicity as compared to the capsule.

False

60

True or False

The cell envelope of gram positive bacteria has two layers: a thick cell wall and the cell membrane.

True

61

True or False

The internal structure of eukaryotic cilia and flagella are the same.

True

62

True or False

Gram negative bacteria do not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls.

False

63

True or False

Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate and cause an
infectious disease.

True

64

What is this the correct order of the eukaryotic cell layers?
1)Cell membrane
2)Glycocalyx
3)Cell wall

2

3

1

65

Which of the following is NOT a distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
a) They usually have a single, circular chromosome
b) They lack membrane-enclosed organelles
c) They have cell walls containing peptidoglycan
d) Their DNA is not associated with histones
e) They lack a plasma membrane

e) They lack a plasma membrane

66

Which one of the following steps occurs during the multiplication of animal viruses, but not during the multiplication of bacteriophages?
a) assembly
b) biosynthesis
c) penetration
d) uncoating

d) uncoating

67

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a) Glycocalyx-- adherence
b) Pili-- reproduction
c) Cell wall-- toxin
d) Cell wall-- protection
e) Plasma membrane-- transport

e) Plasma membrane-- transport

68

You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can assume this cell has...
a) Ribosomes
b) Mitochondria
c) An endoplasmic reticulum
d) A golgi complex
e) All of the above

a) Ribosomes

69

The antibiotic amphothericin B disrupts plasma membranes by combining with sterols; it will affect all of the following cells except…
a) Animal cells
b) Gram (-) bacterial cells
c) Fungal cells
d) Mycoplasma cells
e) Plant cells

b) Gram (-) bacterial cells

70

An example of an systemic mycosis is when…
a) Blastomyces infects the lungs
b) Sporothrix creates ulcerative lesions
c) Microsporum infects the fingernails
d) Trichosporon infects the hair shafts

a) Blastomyces infects the lungs

71

By what means are helminthic parasites transmitted to humans?
a) Phagocytosis
b) Endocytosis
c) Ingestion
d) Active transport

c) Ingestion

72

Which of the following eukaryotes has a thick, rigid cell wall?
a) fungi and algae
b) Protozoa
c) Helminths
d) Bacteria

a) fungi and algae

73

Which of the following are non-motile parasites with special organelles for penetrating host tissue?
a) Apicomplexa
b) Ciliates
c) Dinoflagellates
d) Microsporidia

a) Apicomplexa

74

Helminths refer to _______ and arthropods refer to animal vectors of diseases
a) Animals
b) Insects
c) Snakes
d) Worms

d) Worms

75

Quiz Questions

What is the similarity between algae and protozoa?

both contain mitochondria

76

What are the characteristics of protozoa?

singled-celled, lack tissues and are animal-like because they are heterotrophic & motile eat by engulfing other microbes

77

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) nematodes — complete digestive tract
B) cestodes — segmented body made of proglottids
C) trematodes — flukes
D) nematodes — many are free-living
E) cestodes — all are free-living

E) cestodes — all are free-living

78

Which of the following is NOT a distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
a) They usually have a single, circular chromosome
b) They lack membrane-enclosed organelles
c) They have cell walls containing peptidoglycan
d) Their DNA is not associated with histones
e) They lack a plasma membrane

e) They lack a plasma membrane

79

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a) Glycocalyx-- adherence
b) Pili-- reproduction
c) Cell wall-- toxin
d) Cell wall-- protection
e) Plasma membrane-- transport

b) Plasma membrane-- transport

80

Which of the following statements about algae is false?
A) They produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water.
B) They use light as their energy source.
C) They use CO2 as their carbon source.
D) All are unicellular.
E) Some are capable of sexual reproduction

D) All are unicellular.

81

Which of the following statements about protozoa is false?
A) All are eukaryotic.
B) All have complex cells.
C) They are classified by their method of locomotion.
D) All are unicellular.
E) They have rigid cell walls.

E) They have rigid cell walls.

82

Which of the following statements about helminths is false?
A) They are heterotrophic.
B) They are multicellular animals.
C) Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal.
D) All are parasites.
E) They have eukaryotic cells.

D) All are parasites.

83

Which of the following statements about archaea is false?
A) They are prokaryotes.
B) They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
C) Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles.
D) They evolved before bacteria.
E) Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.

D) They evolved before bacteria.

84

True or False

The prokaryotic cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions.

True

85

True or False

The term diplococcus refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells.

False

86

True or False

The prokaryote cell membrane is made of the same materials as the eukaryote cell membrane.

True

87

True or False

Boiling water (100°C) can normally destroy endospores.

False

88

True or False

Bacteria in the genus Mycoplasma and bacteria called L-forms lack cell walls.

True

89

Chapter 9

Chapter 9

90

1) What is the use of microbe cells, and cellular compounds to make a product?
a) biotechnology
b) bioremediation
c) biogenetics
d) bioengineering

a) Biotechnology

91

2) What is NOT a practical property of DNA?
a) intrinsic properties of DNA hold true even in a test tube
b) Need to avoid accidental release into the environment
c) DNA - heated from 90C to 95C the two strands separate. The nucleotides can be identified, replicated, or transcribed
d) Slowly cooling the DNA allows complementary nucleotides to hydrogen bond and the DNA will regain double-stranded form

b) Need to avoid accidental release into the environment

92

The size of the restriction fragments produced by a restriction endonuclease depends on what?

ANSWER: the frequency of the recognition sites and the distances between them, which are usually 4 to 6 bp and palindromes

93

DNA is denatured at
A. 37 C
B. 42 C
C. 60 C
D. 90 C
E. 100 C

D. 90 C

94

Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called
A. Codons
B. Palindromes
C. Introns
D. Exons
E. Genes

B. Palindromes

95

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called
A. palindromes.
B. reverse transcriptases.
C. restriction endonucleases.
D. ligases.
E. DNA polymerases.

C. restriction endonucleases.

Information

These enzymes are found in bacteria and archaea and provide a defense mechanism against invading viruses.

96

Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves
A. Larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells
B. DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole
C. DNA fragments are stained to see them
D. An electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

97

In recombinant DNA technique, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or
chromosomes?
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase II
C. DNA helicase
D. DNA ligase
E. Primase

D. DNA ligase

98

Geneticists can make complimentary DNA copies of messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA by using
A. palindromes.
B. reverse transcriptases.
C. restriction endonucleases.
D. ligases.
E. DNA polymerases.

B. reverse transcriptases.

99

The enzyme ____ _____ is a preformed protein carried in by HIV responsible for converting its RNA genome DNA.

reverse transcriptase

100

6) Which of the following best describes reverse transcriptase?
a) RNA > cDNA
b) DNA > cDNA
c) cDNA > RNA
d) RNA > mRNA

a) RNA > cDNA

101

Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves
A. Larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells
B. DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole
C. DNA fragments are stained to see them
D. An electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

102

7) cDNA can be made from ALL BUT WHICH?
a) mRNA
b) tRNA
c) rRNA
d) RNA
e) All the above are correct.
f) None of the above is the correct answer

d) RNA

103

8) Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments according to
a) Electricity
b) Light
c) Size
d) Chemical makeup

b) Light

104

9) A dye often used to visualize DNA fragments and compare for genetic similarities after agarose gel electrophoresis is
a) Safranin
b) Ethidium Bromide
c) Bromothymol blue
d) Iodine

c) Bromothymol blue

105

What is being compared during DNA hybridization studies of two bacteria?

A) rate of DNA replication

B) mechanism of RNA synthesis from DNA

C) ratio of nitrogenous base to all other bases

D) similarity of base sequences

E) nature of the 16S RNA component

D) similarity of base sequences

106

Two different nucleic acids can _____ by uniting at their complementary sites.
A. Hybridize
B. Covalently bond
C. Form a peptide bond
D. Ligate
E. None of the choices are correct

A. Hybridize

107

Which of the following is NOT based on nucleic-acid hybridization?
A) DNA chip
B) FISH
C) PCR
D) Southern blotting
E) Western blotting

D) Southern blotting

108

The Southern blot method analyzes
A. DNA to DNA
B. RNA to DNA
C. RNA to RNA
D. DNA to RNA
E. mRNA to proteins

A. DNA to DNA

109

The technique that utilizes probes to detect specific DNA sequences is known as what?

A)Southern blot

B)Northern blot

C)Western blot

D)Eastern blot

E)Northwestern blot

A)Southern blot

110

The Southern Blot technique detects
A. DNA.
B. RNA.
C. proteins.
D. recombinant DNA.
E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes.

A. DNA

111

When determining the sequence of nucleotides in an unknown sample of DNA, which method is used to
sequence the DNA?
A. PCR
B. Cloning
C. The Sanger Method
D. Southern blot hybridization
E. Microarray analysi

C. The Sanger Method

112

The function of the dideoxy (dd) nucleotides that are used in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing is to
A. Denature DNA into single strands
B. Serve as primers
C. Be a fluorescent tag
D. Incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation

D. Incorporate into newly replicated

113

What is TRUE about Sanger Technique?
a) Most common sequencing technique
b) Test strands are denatured to serve as a template to synthesize complementary strands
c) A method to amplify DNA
d) All are true
e) ONLY A and B are true

e) ONLY A and B are true

114

The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.
A. Genes
B. Codons
C. Base pairs
D. Proteins
E. Triplets

C. Base pairs

115

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by
A. Polymerase chain reaction
B. DNA sequencing
C. Gene probes
D. Southern blot
E. Western blot

A. Polymerase chain reaction

116

12) What is FALSE about Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?
a) Repetitively cycled through denaturation, priming, and extension
b) Each subsequent cycle triples the number of copies for analysis
c) Primers of known sequence are added, to indicate where amplification will begin
d) Important in gene mapping, the study of genetic defects and cancer, forensics, taxonomy, and evolutionary studies

b) Each subsequent cycle triples the number of copies for analysis

117

DNA polymerases used in PCR( Polymerase Chain Reaction)
A. use an RNA template to make complementary DNA.
B. must remain active at very cold temperatures.
C. include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase.
D. are labeled with fluorescent dyes.
E. All of the choices are correct.

c) include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase.

118

What is FALSE about Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?
a) Repetitively cycled through denaturation, priming, and extension
b) Each subsequent cycle triples the number of copies for analysis
c) Primers of known sequence are added, to indicate where amplification will begin
d) Important in gene mapping, the study of genetic defects and cancer, forensics, taxonomy, and evolutionary studies

b) Each subsequent cycle triples the number of copies for analysis

119

Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?
A. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C
B. cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C
C. add primers
D. heat target DNA to 94°C
E. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling

D. heat target DNA to 94°C

120

Which PCR step synthesizes complementary DNA strands?
A. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C
B. cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C
C. add primers
D. heat target DNA to 94°C
E. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling

A. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C

121

Which of the following is a serious concern when performing PCR?
A. high temperature needed may denature the DNA
B. restriction enzymes are difficult to obtain in adequate quantities
C. introduction and amplification of contaminating DNA
D. exposure to radiation by the lab personnel
E. it is a very time consuming process

C. introduction and amplification of contaminating DNA

122

The primers in PCR are
A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.
B. bacterial enzymes.
C. short RNA strands.
D. DNA polymerases.
E. reverse transcriptases.

A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.

123

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields, except
A. forensics.
B. evolutionary studies.
C. gene mapping.
D. medicine.
E. None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields.

E. None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields.

124

The following steps are used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step?
A) Collect DNA.
B) Digest with a restriction enzyme.
C) Perform electrophoresis.
D) Lyse cells.
E) Add stain.

D) Lyse cells.

125

Each of the following are features of a cloning host except
A. Quick generation time
B. Minimal growth requirements
C. Mapped genome
D. Pathogenic
E. Transformable

D. Pathogenic

126

Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are
A. Plasmids
B. Viruses
C. Bacteriophages
D. Artificial chromosomes
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

127

The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material
of another organism is a specific technique called
A. genetic engineering.
B. biotechnology.
C. recombinant DNA technology.
D. gel electrophoresis.
E. gene probes.

C. recombinant DNA technology.

128

Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell
A) By a bacteriophage.
B) By cell-to-cell contact.
C) By crossing over.
D) As naked DNA in solution.
E) By sexual reproduction.

D) As naked DNA in solution.

129

Which of the following methods of making rDNA could be described as "hit or miss"?
A) Gene gun
B) Viral transduction
C) Transformation
D) Cloning
E) Protoplast fusion

E) Protoplast fusion

130
card image

In Figure 9.4, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and plated on media
containing ampicillin and X-gal will
A) form blue, ampicillin-resistant colonies.
B) form blue, ampicillin-sensitive colonies.
C) form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies.
D) form white, ampicillin-sensitive colonies.
E) not grow.

C) form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies.

131

Which of the following is not true of vectors?
A. An origin of replication (ORI) is present
B. Must accept DNA of desired size
C. Contain a gene for drug resistance
D. Must have a promoter in front of the cloned gene
E. Can detect RNA in cells

E. Can detect RNA in cells

132

Which enzyme covalently links the DNA pieces together?
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) DNA Ligase
d) Palindrome

c) DNA Ligase

133

How can DNA be inserted in the cell?
a) Transformation
b) Electroporation
c) Protoplast fusion
d) Microinjection
e) All of the above

e) All of the above

134

Which of the following CANNOT be made by using recombinant DNA technology?
A) Pharmaceutical drugs
B) Vaccines
C) Pest-resistant crops
D) Life
E) Human hormones

D) Life

135

An agent that reproduces in cells but is NOT composed of cells and contains RNA as its genetic material is
a(n)
A) Bacterium.

B) Virus.

C) Fungus.

D) Helminth.

E) Alga.

B) Virus.

136
card image

In the figure above, the enzyme in step 1 is
A) DNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) RNA polymerase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
E) spliceosome.

C) RNA polymerase.

137
card image

In the figure above, the enzyme in step 2 is
A) DNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) RNA polymerase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
E) spliceosome.

A) DNA polymerase.

138

Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product?
A) Endotoxin may be in the product.
B) It can't process introns.
C) It doesn't secrete most proteins.
D) Its genes are well known.
E) None of the above.

D) Its genes are well known.

139

When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is
called
A. cloning.
B. gene therapy.
C. antisense therapeutic.
D. DNA
fingerprinting.
E. None of the choices are correct.

B. gene therapy.

140

The process whereby naked DNA is absorbed into a bacterial cell is known as:
A) transcription.
B) transduction.
C) transformation.
D) translation.

C) transformation.

141

TRUE OR FALSE:

Restriction endonucleases is recognizing specific sequences of DNA and break phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides

TRUE

142

Bacteria differ from viruses in that bacteria
A) Can live without a host.

B) Have DNA and RNA.

C) Are composed of cells.

D) All of the above.

D) All of the above.

143

Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA?
A) Translation

B) Transcription

C) Reverse transcription

D) RNA processing to remove introns

A) Translation

144

The value of cDNA in recombinant DNA is that
A) It contains introns and exons.

B) It lacks exons.

C) It lacks introns.

D) It's really RNA.

C) It lacks introns.

145

Acquisition of new genetic material by the
uptake of naked DNA.
A) True
B) False

False

146

True or False

After 3 replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of 4 double-stranded DNA molecules.

False

147

True or False

Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.

True

148

True or False

In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self-replicating segment of DNA, such as a
plasmid or viral genome.

True

149

True or False

One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of
human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli.

TRUE

150

True or False

The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced into some crop plants to make them resistant to insect destruction.

True

151

True or False

One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of
human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli.

True

152

TRUE OR FALSE

Raccoon roundworm in humans has been identified as an emerging disease.

TRUE

153

TRUE OR FALSE

Protozoa are unicellular.

TRUE

154

TRUE OR FALSE

Flagella are long, sheathed cylinder containing microtubules in a 9+2 arrangement.

TRUE

155

TRUE OR FALSE

The difference between cilia and flagella is that flagella are shorter and more numerous

FALSE

156

TRUE OR FALSE

The nuclear envelope is composed of one membrane that is perforated with pores.

FALSE

157

TRUE OR FALSE

On a cell image, the nucleolus is the dark area for rRNA synthesis and ribosome assembly.

TRUE

158

TRUE OR FALSE

The Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) extends in a continuous network of ribosomes through cytoplasm.

TRUE

159

TRUE OR FALSE

The Golgi apparatus consists of ribosomes.

FALSE

160

TRUE OR FALSE

Ribosomes are larger in prokaryotic cells than in eukaryotic cells.

TRUE

161

TRUE OR FALSE

Lysosomes are involved in intracellular digestion of food particles and in protection against invading microbes.

TRUE

162

TRUE OR FALSE

All fungi are autotrophic.

FALSE

163

TRUE OR FALSE

If a microscopic fungi has a round ovoid shape and reproduces asexually, then it is called A YEAST

TRUE

164

TRUE OR FALSE

The two types of hyphae are long and short.

FALSE

165

TRUE OR FALSE

Coenocytic hyphae lack the cross wall, known as the septa.

TRUE

166

TRUE OR FALSE

A mycosis is a fungal infection.

TRUE

167

TRUE OR FALSE

All animal cells lack chloroplasts.

TRUE

168

TRUE OR FALSE

When conditions are unfavorable for growth, protozoa become cysts, where they enter into a dormant stage.

TRUE

169

TRUE OR FALSE

Malaria, brain infections, amoebiasis (intestinal infections) are all examples of pathogenic protozoa.

TRUE

170

TRUE OR FALSE

Amoeba are your alternates between a large trophozoite and a smaller nonmotile cyst.

TRUE

171

TRUE OR FALSE

Pathogenic flagellate give rise to giardia lamblia agent, which causes diarrhea and abdominal pain.

TRUE

172

TRUE OR FALSE

Ciliophora members are pathogenic.

FALSE

173

TRUE OR FALSE

Arthropods that transmit infectious diseases are called vectors.

TRUE

174

TRUE OR FALSE

Parasitic helminths are multicellular eukaryotic plants.

FALSE

175

TRUE OR FALSE

Schistosomiasis is a prominent blood fluke disease.

TRUE

176

Chapter 13

Chapter 13

177

In which of the following ways do viruses differ from bacteria?
A) Viruses don't reproduce.
B) Viruses are not composed of cells.
C) Viruses are filterable.
D) Viruses don't have any nucleic acid.
E) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.

B) Viruses are not composed of cells.

178

Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are
nonliving chemicals?
A) They are chemically simple.
B) They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals.
C) They are filterable.
D) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host.
E) They are not composed of cells.

D) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host.

179

Which of the following is NOT a distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
a) They usually have a single, circular chromosome
b) They lack membrane-enclosed organelles
c) They have cell walls containing peptidoglycan
d) Their DNA is not associated with histones
e) They lack a plasma membrane

d) Their DNA is not associated with histones

180

Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus
A. Spike
B. Capsomere
C. Envelope
D. Capsid
E. Core

D. Capsid

181

A viroid is
A) An infectious protein.
B) A nonenveloped, infectious piece of RNA.
C) A provirus.
D) A capsid without a nucleic acid.
E) A complete, infectious virus particle.

B) A nonenveloped, infectious piece of RNA.

182

Viruses always have at least _____.
A) an outer capsid
B) a cell wall
C) an inner core of nucleic acid
D) both A and C

D) both A and C

183

Viral DNA and capsids are assembled to produce hundreds of viral particles during the _____ stage of the lytic cycle.
A) attachment
B) biosynthesis
C) maturation
D) release

C) maturation

184

The outer layer of flukes and tapeworms is the

A) tegument.

B) pellicle.

C) epidermis.

D) shell.

A) tegument.

185

A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is
happening inside the patient?
A) The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient.
B) The virus is not killing any cells in the host.
C) The virus is incorporating its nucleic acid with that of the patient's cells.
D) The virus is slowly killing the patient's cells.
E) The virus is infecting cells and then releasing only small amounts of virus.

A) The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient.

186

Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These
are called
A) latent viruses.
B) lytic viruses.
C) phages.
D) slow viruses.
E) unconventional viruses

A) latent viruses.

187

Which of the following statements is NOT true of lysogeny?
A) It can give infected pathogens the genetic information for toxin production.
B) Prophage is inserted into the host genome.
C) Lytic cycle may follow lysogeny.
D) It is a "silent" infection; the virus does not replicate.
E) It causes lysis of host cells.

E) It causes lysis of host cells.

188

When a bacteriophage is integrated into a cellular genome it is called a

A) virulent virus

B) lytic virus

C) prophage

D) transducing virus

E) microphage

C) prophage

189

The infectious substance of prions is

A) protein

B) glycophosphate

C) RNA

D) DNA

E) glycoprotein

A) protein

190

Which of the following is NOT caused by prions?
A) Rabies
B) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
C) Kuru
D) Sheep scrapie
E) Elk chronic wasting disease

A) Rabies

191

Diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), or mad cow disease, are caused by ________.

A) oncogenes

B) phage

C) prions

D) viroids

E) bacteria

C) prions

192

Infectious protein particles are called
A. viroids.
B. phages.
C. prions.
D. oncogenic viruses.
E. spikes.

C. prions.

193

The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called
A) transduction.
B) budding.
C) abduction.
D) lysogeny.
E) penetration.

B) budding.

194

Viruses have an overall structure that is

A) spherical

B) isometric

C) icosahedron

D) helical

E) all of the above

E) all of the above

195

Hollow coil like arrangement of capsomeres that looks like a rod shaped is known as

a) Helical
b) Icosahedral
c) Spiral
d) Triangular

a) Helical

196

The only structural pattern that has been found among isometric viruses is

A) icosahedral

B) spherical

C) helical

D) tetrahedral

E) capsular

A) icosahedral

197

______ are viruses that reproduce inside bacteria.

A) Adenoviruses

B) Retroviruses

C) Oncoviruses

D) Bacteriophages

E) HIV

D) Bacteriophages

198

Some differences between animal viral reproduction and bacteriophages are _______.

A) animal viruses enter by endocytosis

B) the entire virus enters and the genome undergoes uncoating

C) viral release involves budding

D) the viral particle acquires a membranous envelope by budding

E) all of the above

E) all of the above

199

Once the bacterial cell has been digested, the amoeba will dispose of indigestible materials by which of the following processes?

A) facilitated diffusion

B) through gated channels in membrane proteins

C) exocytosis

D) active transport

E) by any of the above processes

C) exocytosis

200

_________ is the virus causing fever blisters

A) Herpes simplex

B) Chlamydia

C) Epstein-Barr virus

D) Human papillomavirus

E) Lyme disease

A) Herpes simplex

201

The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step?
A) synthesis of double-stranded DNA
B) synthesis of +RNA
C) attachment
D) penetration
E) uncoating

A) synthesis of double-stranded DNA

202

The general steps in a viral multiplication cycle are:

A) adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, and release

B) endocytosis, uncoating, replication, assembly, budding

C) adsorption, uncoating, duplication, assembly, and lysis

D) endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation, and exocytosis

A) adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, and release

203

Learn more about the Hersey-Chase Experiment Noble prize winners

copy the link

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204

Possible Essay question

Compare and contrast the lytic cycle of infection of a DNA virus and an RNA virus.

DNA transcribes itself into mRNA which is used to direct the cells ribosomes.

Retroviruses(RNA) use reverse transcriptase which transcribes RNA into DNA, which is transcribed again into the mRNA.

The mRNA instructs the cell to create more viral proteins.

Both end with the lysis of the host cell after enough viruses are produced.

205

How would you describe this virus?
A. Icosahedral and Naked
B. Helical and Naked
C. Complex and Naked
D. Icosahedral and Enveloped
E. Helical and Enveloped
F. Complex and Enveloped

A. Icosahedral and Naked

206

Persistent infections=

cell harbors the virus and is not immediately lysed

207

Delta agent=

naked strand of RNA expressed only in the presence of hepatitis B virus

208

Adeno=

associated virus – replicates only in cells infected with adenovirus

209

On entering a bacterial cell, all bacteriophages
immediately initiate the lytic cycle.
A) True
B) False

B) False

210

True or False

A viroid is a completely developed infectious agent composed of nucleic acid and surrounded
by a capsid.

Answer: FALSE

211

True or False

The lytic cycle of bacteriophages has four stages.

A) True

B) False

B) False

212

True or False

The basic mechanism of viral multiplication is similar for all viruses.

Answer: TRUE

213

True or False

A viroid is a completely developed infectious agent composed of nucleic acid and surrounded by a capsid.

False

214

True or False

Viruses are more closely related to chemical matter than to a living organism.

A) True

B) False

A) True

215

True or False

Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus envelope.

FALSE

216

True or False

Viruses are the only known infectious agents that are obligatory intracellular parasites.

FALSE

217

True or False

A tegument is the external covering of an animal.

A) True

218

HIV is a DNA virus.

A) True

B) False

B) False

219

End of Chapter Review Questions

End of Chapter Review Questions

220

What is the similarity between algae and protozoa?

both contain mitochondria; You cannot say both are unicellular because algae may be either unicellular or multicellular

221

What is the overall process of protein transport? List in order

= nucleus→ RER→ SER→ vesicles→ Golgi→ maturation→ secretion

222

What are the characteristics of protozoa?

singled-celled, lack tissues and are animal-like because they are heterotrophic & motile [eat by engulfing other microbes]

223

Which are the four representative eukaryotic microbes?

= fungi & algae & protozoa & parasitic worms

224

What are the most important organelles within the cell membrane?

=cytoplasmic matrix, nucleus, organelles, ribosomes and cytoskeleton

225

What is the main function of the golgi complex?

= digestive enzyme storage

226

What is the main function of the SER?

= biosynthesis of phospholipids and cholesterol & the synthesis of membranes

227

What structure converts the energy of sunlight into chemical energy through photosynthesis?

chloroplasts

228

What are examples of Macroscopic fungi?

=mushrooms, puffballs

229

What are the characteristics of asexual reproduction?

spores are formed through budding or mitosis; common examples of fungi that reproduce asexually are conidia or sporangiospores or protozoa

230

What beneficial roles can fungi have?

decomposers of dead plants & animals, sources of antibiotics and alcohol, and used in making food and in genetic studies

231

Why is classification of protozoa difficult?

= diversity. Simple grouping is based on method of motility, reproduction and life cycle

232

Amebiasis can affect which parts of your body?

intestines, brain

233

What is the dominant protozoan disease?

plasmodium

234

The primary vector is _________?

the female mosquito

235

What is the most abundant worm group?

roundworms

236

How can you develop elephantiasis?

from tissue nematodes