Chapter 14 Media Planning and Buying Flashcards


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1

1) Which of the following groups of people are NOT involved in the development of an advertiser's media plan?

A) agency's media department

B) agency's account and creative teams

C) marketer's brand management group

D) media buying companies

E) advertiser's operations staff

E

2

2) Which of the following refers to information such as demographic profiles of current customers, response to previous promotions, product sales and distribution patterns, and the budget of how much can be spent on media?

A) client information

B) market research

C) competitive advertising

D) consumer information

E) media information

A

3

3) A valuable tool for media planners, ________ is provided by companies such as MRI and is usually organized by product category and cross-tabulated by audience groups and their consumption patterns.

A) client information

B) market research

C) competitive advertising

D) media usage profiles

E) media coverage area

B

4

4) Which of the following is a standard research display format that allows multiple variables of related data to be grouped together?

A) CrossTab

B) CrossRelate

C) Multivariate

D) Univariate

E) CrossIndex

A

5

5) Which concept refers to marketers tracking how much competing brands spend on media compared to how much they are spending on their particular brand?

A) share of market

B) share of voice

C) share of media

D) share of spending

E) share of category

B

6

6) One type of media-related information about markets is the broadcast coverage area for television, which is called a(n) ________ and is referred to by the name of the largest city in the area.

A) metropolitan statistical area (MSA)

B) area of influence (AOI)

C) designated marketing area (DMA)

D) metropolitan marketing area (MMA)

E) designated commerce area (DCA)

C

7

7) A designated marketing area (DMA) assignment is based on ________.

A) the population of the surrounding area

B) the number of television stations in the area

C) the number of broadcast media outlets available

D) how many households have cable or satellite television

E) which city provides the majority of the households' TV programming

E

8

8) Which of the following is a written document that summarizes the objectives and strategies that guide how media dollars will be spent?

A) corporate plan

B) marketing plan

C) advertising plan

D) media plan

E) message plan

D

9

9) When developing a media plan, a planner considers ________, which include exposure to traditional mass media, word of mouth, place-based media, in-store brand exposures, and interactive media.

A) contact points

B) gross rating points

C) aperture points

D) impression points

E) rating points

A

10

10) ________ media are chosen based on metrics such as GRPs and CPMs, while new media depends more on factors like brand experience, involvement, and personal impact.

A) Independent

B) Social

C) Measured

D) Analog

E) Digital

C

11

11) What is the first of the four basic steps in media planning?

A) developing a media strategy

B) setting media objectives

C) analyzing metrics

D) identifying the target audience

E) purchasing media

D

12

12) ________ describe what a company wants to accomplish regarding the delivery of its brand messages and their impact on the target audience.

A) Reach objectives

B) Media objectives

C) Frequency objectives

D) Measured media

E) Average frequencies

B

13

13) Which concept describes the percent of people exposed to a brand message one or more times within a specified period of time?

A) reach

B) frequency

C) continuity

D) impression

E) target

A

14

14) If a company wants to increase the percent of people exposed to its message during its media campaign, then the company is trying to increase its ________.

A) frequency

B) target

C) reach

D) objectives

E) aperture

C

15

15) Which of the following is typically the place to start when setting objectives for a media plan?

A) frequency

B) continuity

C) lead time

D) distribution

E) reach

E

16

16) The ________ of a specific media vehicle is the percentage of that vehicle's audience that matches the brand's target market.

A) frequency distribution

B) targeted reach

C) effective frequency

D) targeted frequency

E) reach distribution

B

17

17) The number of people in the vehicle's audience who are neither customers nor prospects is called ________.

A) reach distribution

B) carryover

C) wasted reach

D) average frequency

E) aperture

C

18

18) Which concept refers to the repetition of message exposure?

A) reach

B) frequency

C) continuity

D) impression

E) carryover

B

19

19) Which two methods do media planners use to estimate the frequency of a schedule?

A) pulsing and flighting

B) weighted frequency and weighted reach

C) average frequency and gross frequency

D) average frequency and frequency distribution

E) gross frequency and frequency distribution

D

20

20) Which of the following statements is false regarding average frequency and/or frequency distribution?

A) Most planners prefer to use average frequency instead of frequency distribution.

B) Average frequency can give the planner a distorted idea of the plan's performance.

C) The frequency distribution method is more revealing than the average frequency method of reporting repetition.

D) The frequency distribution shows the percentage of audience reached at each level of repetition.

E) The range of frequency is often large; some in the target audience can see a brand message once while others may see it 10 times within a given period.

A

21

21) What is a general rule of thumb regarding the number of exposures needed for a message to sink in?

A) one to two

B) two to three

C) three to ten

D) four to five

E) ten to fifteen

C

22

22) Which concept refers to adding frequency to reach until reaching a level where people respond?

A) aperture reach

B) carryover

C) average frequency

D) frequency distribution

E) effective frequency

E

23

23) Media planners determine the most cost-effective media mix that will reach the target audience and satisfy the media objectives through the ________.

A) marketing strategy

B) advertising strategy

C) media strategy

D) media tactics

E) media evaluation

C

24

24) A media strategy that involves high ________ would involve creating broad exposure using many media vehicles, while a strategy involving high ________ would be narrower in focus with a more limited list of media vehicles.

A) continuity, aperture

B) aperture, continuity

C) frequency, reach

D) reach, frequency

E) distribution, reach

D

25

25) Most brands use a variety of targeted media vehicles known as a ________.

A) media mix

B) media strategy

C) heavy-up schedule

D) continuous strategy

E) flighting strategy

A

26

26) Which of the following is NOT a reason most organizations need a variety of ways to get their messages out to their customers?

A) A media plan would not be able to attain the desired level of reach and frequency if it relied on just one medium.

B) Using a number of media distributes the message more widely because different media tend to have different audience profiles.

C) Some people reject certain media.

D) Different media have different strengths in terms of reach and frequency.

E) It could add exposure in less expensive media and have attractive characteristics that enhance the creative message.

A

27

27) What type of schedule is used when proportionately more of the marketing budget is spent in special regions or DMAs?

A) continuous schedule

B) flighting schedule

C) heavy-up schedule

D) pulsing schedule

E) frequency schedule

C

28

28) Which of the following is an index of the relative consumption rate of a particular product category in a particular market?

A) product development index (PDI)

B) category development index (CDI)

C) brand development index (BDI)

D) buying power index (BPI)

E) market share index (MSI)

B

29

29) Which of the following is an index which estimates the strength of a brand in various geographical areas?

A) product development index (PDI)

B) category development index (CDI)

C) brand development index (BDI)

D) buying power index (BPI)

E) brand share index (BSI)

C

30

30) When is it advisable to use newspapers in the media plan?

A) The product has a news element, such as new features or formulation.

B) There is a need to demonstrate the product.

C) The product requires little information.

D) The quality of image is an important factor.

E) There is a need to reach a geographically diverse audience.

A

31

31) When is it NOT advisable to use magazines in the media plan?

A) The target market is defined by some special interest.

B) The product needs to be shown accurately and beautifully.

C) A high quality image is important.

D) There is a need to explain how something works.

E) There is a need to demonstrate the product.

E

32

32) When is it advisable to use out-of-home media in the media plan?

  1. A) The product needs explanation but doesn't need demonstration.
  2. B) It is important to reach an upscale, well-educated audience.
  3. C) The message benefits from motion, sight, and sound.
  4. D) There is a need for a situational, place-based message.

E) The brand can benefit from being associated with celebrities

D

33

33) When is NOT advisable to use radio in the media plan?

  1. A) A local business wants to reach a local market.
  2. B) There is a need to demonstrate the product.
  3. C) There is a want to build frequency.
  4. D) The ad is a reminder message.

E) The target audience aligns with certain types of music

B

34

34) When is it advisable to use the Internet in the media plan?

A) The product is not distributed nationally.

B) There is a need for a situational, place-based message.

C) The target audience is difficult to reach with traditional media.

D) The quality of image is not a factor.

E) The plan calls to "heavy up" in certain cities or regions where sales are higher.

C

35

35) Prospective customers for a product or service have one or more ideal times and places at which they can be reached with an advertising message. This ideal point is called a(n) ________.

A) aperture

B) contact point

C) touch point

D) impression

E) pulse

A

36

36) Which media scheduling decision relates to factors such as seasonality, holidays, and days of the week?

A) duration

B) continuity

C) timing

D) carryover

E) reach

C

37

37) What concept refers to the amount of time allowed before the beginning of the sales period to reach people when they are just beginning to think about seasonal buying?

A) continuity

B) lead time

C) duration

D) flow

E) just-in-time

B

38

38) What concept refers to the production time needed to get the advertisement in to the medium?

A) continuity

B) lead time

C) duration

D) flow

E) just-in-time

B

39

39) Which of the following is NOT a media scheduling strategy media planners must consider?

  1. A) timing
  2. B) duration of exposure
  3. C) continuity of exposure
  4. D) cost per thousand

E) when to advertise

D

40

Objective: 14-2

40) Other than timing, what are two other important scheduling strategies?

  1. A) duration and continuity
  2. B) CPM and CPP
  3. C) reach and frequency
  4. D) impressions and ratings
  5. E) carryover and flighting

A

41

41) If an advertising period is too long, ads may suffer from ________, which means the audience gets tired of them and stops paying attention.

A) carryover

B) pulsing

C) weighting

D) wearout

E) aperture

D

42

42) ________ refers to the way the advertising is spread over the length of a campaign.

A) Continuity

B) Lead time

C) Duration

D) Flow

E) Just-in-time

A

43

43) Which schedule spreads the advertising evenly over the campaign?

A) pulsing

B) flighting

C) continuous

D) carryover

E) lead-in

C

44

44) Which type of schedule is designed to intensify advertising before a buying aperture and then to reduce advertising to lower levels until the aperture opens again?

A) pulsing

B) flighting

C) continuous

D) carryover

E) lead-in

A

45

45) After the schedule has been worked out in terms of what media run when and for how long, these decisions are ________.

A) written in a report to the client

B) given rating points

C) plotted on a scatter plot

D) plotted on a media flow chart

E) plotted on a scree plot

D

46

46) Which of the following is characterized by alternating periods of intense advertising activity and periods of no advertising?

A) pulsing

B) flighting

C) continuous scheduling

D) flow scheduling

E) lead-in

B

47

47) The period of time during which there is no advertising during a flighting schedule is called a ________.

A) flight

B) pulse

C) down time

D) carryover

E) hiatus

E

48

48) If a flighting strategy works, there will be a ________, which means that consumers will remember the product across the gap until the next advertising period begins.

A) carryover effect

B) hiatus

C) lead time effect

D) push

E) pull

A

49

49) What decision criterion do media planners use to help decide how much to budget in each DMA or region and for each target audience?

A) image transfer

B) average frequency

C) effective frequency

D) weighting

E) optimum frequency

D

50

50) In the case of designated marketing areas (DMAs), weak markets may be given more than their share of media weight in the hopes of strengthening the brands in these markets, a practice known as ________.

A) investment spending

B) pull spending

C) push spending

D) flighting

E) weighting

A

51

51) ________ indicate the weight, or efficiency, of a media plan by estimating the reach and frequency.

A) Targeted costs per thousand (TCPMs)

B) Costs per point (CPPs)

C) Targeted rating points (TRPs)

D) Gross rating points (GRPs)

E) Designated marketing areas (DMAs)

D

52

52) The estimate of ________ adjusts the calculation of an audience to exclude waste coverage so it more accurately reflects the percentage of the target audience watching a program.

A) insertions

B) gross rating points (GRPs)

C) targeted rating points (TRPs)

D) efficient frequency

E) targeted reach

C

53

53) Which calculation of efficiency is an estimate of the cost of getting 1,000 impressions?

A) cost per point

B) cost per thousand

C) cost per impression

D) brand development index

E) category development index

B

54

54) What does CPM stand for?

A) cost per million

B) cost per impression

C) cost per thousand

D) cost per point

E) cost per medium

C

55

55) To be more precise and determine the efficiency of a potential media buy, planners often look at the ________.

  1. A) targeted cost per thousand (TCPM)
  2. B) cost per point (CPP)
  3. C) cost per impression (CPI)
  4. D) category development index (CDI)

E) brand development index (CDI

A

56

56) What two figures are needed to calculate CPM?

A) cost of an ad and program or issue rating

B) cost of an ad and frequency of exposure

C) average frequency and estimated target audience reached by media vehicle

D) cost of an ad and estimated audience reached by media vehicle

E) gross rating points and reach

D

57

57) Which is a method of comparing media vehicles by estimating the cost of reaching 1 million households based on a program's rating points?

A) cost per point (CPP)

B) cost per thousand (CPM)

C) cost per prospect (CPP)

D) brand development index (BDI)

E) category development index (CDI)

A

58

58) ________ techniques enable marketers to determine the relative impact of a media mix on product sales by using computer models that calculate the weight of a media schedule and optimize the schedule for the greatest impact.

A) Aperture

B) Frequency

C) Weighting

D) Reach

E) Optimization

E

59

59) Media planners may strive to create ________ in a media plan, which means the various media work together to create coherent brand communication.

A) cross-media integration

B) consumer interactivity

C) footprints

D) media complexities

E) multichannel communication

A

60

60) Which of the following refers to the way radio reinforces and re-creates in a listener's mind a message that was originally delivered by other media?

A) image transfer

B) aperture

C) lead-in

D) bleed-through

E) pre-emption

A

61

61) Which of the following is the most important function of media buying?

A) providing information to media planners

B) matching the media vehicle to the strategic needs of the message

C) negotiating cost and making the media buy

D) handling all billing and payment

E) monitoring the media plan performance

B

62

62) Which of the following is a function of a media buyer?

A) design and create ads

B) personally create in-depth market research

C) find and connect agencies to handle billing and payment

D) promote certain types of media

E) negotiate cost and make the media buy

E

63

63) Which of the following is NOT a function of a media buyer?

A) provide information to media planners

B) evaluate media choice after campaign

C) negotiate cost and make the media buy

D) handle all billing and payment

E) design and promote advertising campaigns

E

64

64) With the current trend toward using other forms of marketing communication in addition to advertising, buyers often demand additional promotional support; these activities are sometimes called ________.

A) add-ons

B) make-goods

C) value-added media services

D) preferred placements

E) incentives

C

65

65) Media buyers must bargain for ________, the locations in magazines and other print media that offer readership advantage.

A) consolidated services

B) bleed-throughs

C) program preemptions

D) closings

E) preferred positions

E

66

66) Policies of compensating advertisers for errors, such as missed positions or errors in handling the message presentation, are known as ________.

A) preemptions

B) make goods

C) up-fronts

D) preferred positions

E) remuneration

B

67

67) Magazines and newspapers have clearly set production deadlines called ________.

A) closings

B) make goods

C) lead times

D) preemptions

E) drop-deads

A

68

68) The growth of media buying services as separate companies that specialize in media buying has shifted the way the media industry is organized. This is referred to as ________.

A) consolidating media services

B) acquiring media services

C) spinning media services

D) unbundling media services

E) detaching media services

D

69

69) Why have several advertising agencies unbundled their media buying function?

A) Agencies were required to unbundle their media buying function by the FTC.

B) An agency could become more of an expert in media buying if it was removed from the overall agency structure.

C) This allows media groups to work for clients who may be competitors to some of those handled by the agency.

D) Agencies want to focus on single clients.

E) Agencies could better consolidate it with the media planning function.

C

70

70) Media companies that have brought the planning and buying functions back together offer ________.

A) value-added services

B) consolidated services

C) make goods

D) bundled media services

E) lead-in services

B

71

71) Media planners examine client information, market research, competitive advertising expenditures, media kits, media coverage area, and consumer behavior reports before media decision-making begins.

T

F

T

72

72) The broadcast coverage area for television is called a designated marketing area (DMA) and is referred to by the name of the largest city in the area.

T

F

T

73

73) The four basic steps in media planning are targeting, setting media objectives, developing media strategies, and analyzing the metrics of a media plan.

T

F

T

74

74) Media objectives refer to the repetition of message exposure.

T

F

F

75

75) The two basic media objectives are reach and frequency.

T

F

T

76

76) Reach is the percentage of people exposed to a brand message one or more times within a specific period of time.

T

F

T

77

77) The number of people in the vehicle's audience who are neither customers nor prospects is called wasted reach.

T

F

T

78

78) In terms of frequency, a general rule of thumb is that it takes more than 10 exposures for a message to sink in.

T

F

F

79

79) The idea behind the concept of effective frequency is that you add frequency to reach until you get to the level where people respond

T

F

T

80

80) Developing a media strategy is the fourth and final step in developing a media plan.

T

F

F

81

81) One reason that organizations use a variety of ways to get their messages out to consumers is the fact that some people reject certain media.

T

F

T

82

82) In most cases, the media plan will identify special regions or cities to be emphasized with a heavy-up schedule, which means proportionately more of the budget is spent in those areas.

T

F

T

83

83) It's best to use radio for advertising if you want to reach an upscale, well-educated audience and the product has a news element, such as new features or formulation.

T

F

F

84

84) National television is an effective advertising outlet to reach a wide, mass audience

T

F

T

85

85) Aperture is the point where a consumer has an opportunity to connect with a brand and respond in some way to a brand message.

T

F

F

86

86) When considering scheduling strategies, the most important questions are when to advertise, how long, and how often (timing, duration, and continuity).

T

F

T

87

87) A pulsing strategy is the most severe type of continuity adjustment and is characterized by alternating periods of intense advertising activity and periods of no advertising.

T

F

F

88

88) Media planners often use a decision criterion called weighting to help them decide how much to budget.

T

F

T

89

89) Gross rating points (GRPs) indicate an approximate measure of the reach and frequency of a media plan, as well as the plan's efficiency.

T

F

T

90

90) The measure of gross rating points (GRPs) doesn't include any waste coverage or audience members outside the target audience.

T

F

F

91

91) Cost per thousand (CPM) is a measure used to determine the effectiveness of a media vehicle.

T

F

F

92

92) The cost per point (CPP) is calculated by multiplying the cost of the ad by 1,000 and dividing that number by the readers in the target audience.

T

F

F

93

93) Media selection has little to do with the brand message.

T

F

F

94

94) A true global medium does not currently exist.

T

F

T

95

95) Media buyers should be consulted early in planning, as they are a good source of information on changes in media.

T

F

T

96

96) Media buyers negotiate rates, preferred positions, and extra support offers on behalf of their clients.

T

F

T

97

97) Once the media purchases have been made, the media buyer is no longer involved with the advertising campaign

T

F

F

98

98) Program preemptions, missed closings, and/or technical problems caused by the media often lead to the offer of make-goods to the advertiser.

T

F

T

99

99) Multichannel deals are a result of media convergence that allow advertisers to purchase media across all platforms with a single deal.

T

F

T

100

100) Unbundling media services has allowed media groups to work for clients who may be competitors of those handled by the agency.

T

F

T

101

101) Information provided by various media is most useful for media planners because it best reflects the true value of the medium to advertisers.

T

F

F

102

102) Average frequency gives the planner the best picture of the plan's performance.

T

F

F

103

103) The frequency distribution method is more revealing, and thus more valuable, than the average frequency method.

T

F

T

104

104) The tighter the focus on a target market, the more difficult it is to find appropriate media to deliver a relevant message.

T

F

F

105

105) Planners typically make heavier advertising allocations in weak sales areas because these are the areas that promise the greatest growth.

T

F

F