Ch. 34-56 Flashcards


Set Details Share
created 5 years ago by CZR
2,793 views
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:

1

Arrange these groups in order from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific).

A) osteichthyans, gnathostomes, lobe-fins, tetrapods, amphibians

B) osteichthyans, gnathostomes, amphibians, tetrapods, lobe-fins

C) gnathostomes, osteichthyans, lobe-fins, tetrapods, amphibians

D) gnathostomes, osteichthyans, tetrapods, lobe-fins, amphibians

C) gnathostomes, osteichthyans, lobe-fins, tetrapods, amphibians

2

All chordates studied to date, except tunicates, share a set of ________.

A) 13 Hox genes

B) 5 Dlx genes

C) 9 Otx genes

D) 7 FOXP2 genes

A) 13 Hox genes

3

Vertebrates and tunicates share ________.

A) jaws adapted for feeding

B) a high degree of cephalization

C) the formation of structures from the neural crest

D) a notochord and a dorsal, hollow nerve cord

D) a notochord and a dorsal, hollow nerve cord

4

Which extant chordates are postulated to be most like the earliest chordates in appearance?

A) lancelets

B) adult tunicates

C) amphibians

D) chondrichthyans

A) lancelets

5

Which of the following statements would be most acceptable to most zoologists?

A) The first fossils resembling lancelets appeared in the fossil record around 10 million years ago.

B) Recent work in molecular systematics supports the hypothesis that lancelets are the basal clade of chordates.

C) The extant lancelets are the immediate ancestors of the fishes.

D) Lancelets do not swim in the same way that fishes do.

B) Recent work in molecular systematics supports the hypothesis that lancelets are the basal clade of chordates.

6

Chordate pharyngeal slits appear to have functioned first as ________.

A) the digestive system's opening

B) suspension-feeding devices

C) components of the jaw

D) sites of respiration

B) suspension-feeding devices

7

If a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble ________.

A) respiring

B) feeding

C) moving

D) respiring and feeding

D) respiring and feeding

8

Why do adult urochordates (tunicates) lack notochords, even though larval urochordates have them? Larvae use notochords to ________.

A) aid in swimming; adults are sessile and thus no longer propel themselves

B) stiffen their bodies; in adults, the notochord is replaced by a column of bone

C) induce tissue differentiation; in adults, tissue is already differentiated

D) organize their nervous systems; adults' nervous systems are fully developed and do not change

A) aid in swimming; adults are sessile and thus no longer propel themselves

9

Which of the following is a characteristic of all chordates at some point during their life cycle?

A) jaws

B) post-anal tail

C) four-chambered heart

D) vertebrae

B) post-anal tail

10

On the back of your skull you can feel a small bump, below which is an opening where the spinal cord enters the skull. The location of this opening toward the bottom of the skull is significant in evolutionary biology for what reason?

A) It allowed for the hominin brain to grow much larger than other primates.

B) It provided greater protection for the spinal cord.

C) It occurred as a result of the change to a bipedal stance.

D) This change was necessary for the increase in size from prosimian forms to anthropoid forms.

C) It occurred as a result of the change to a bipedal stance.

11

Brown et al. and Morwood et al. reported in 2004 that they had found skeletal remains of a previously unknown type of hominin, now dubbed Homo floresiensis, on the Indonesian island of Flores. These hominins were small (approximately 1 meter tall) with small braincases (approximately 380 cubic centimeters) as compared with other hominins. The remains of H. floresiensis were found alongside handmade stone tools and the remains of dwarf elephants that also inhabited the island, suggesting that H. floresiensis was able both to make tools and to coordinate the hunting of animals much larger than itself. H. floresiensis is estimated to have lived at the site where the remains were found from at least 38,000 years ago to 18,000 years ago.

Which would be the most feasible method of figuring out to which other hominin species H. floresiensis was most closely related?

A) Compare the type of prey hunted by floresiensis to that hunted by each of the other hominin species.

B) Compare the average body size of floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species.

C) Compare the skeletal morphology of floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species.

D) Compare the estimated life span of floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species.

C) Compare the skeletal morphology of floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species.

12

In what respect do hominins differ from all other anthropoids?

A) lack of a tail

B) eyes on the front of the face

C) bipedal posture

D) opposable thumbs

C) bipedal posture

13

Brown et al. and Morwood et al. reported in 2004 that they had found skeletal remains of a previously unknown type of hominin, now dubbed Homo floresiensis, on the Indonesian island of Flores. These hominins were small (approximately 1 meter tall) with small braincases (approximately 380 cubic centimeters) as compared with other hominins. The remains of H. floresiensis were found alongside handmade stone tools and the remains of dwarf elephants that also inhabited the island, suggesting that H. floresiensis was able both to make tools and to coordinate the hunting of animals much larger than itself. H. floresiensis is estimated to have lived at the site where the remains were found from at least 38,000 years ago to 18,000 years ago.

The table is a comparison of several characteristics of H. floresiensis to those of nine other hominin species (arranged roughly from oldest to most recent). What do these data suggest?

A) A large brain is not necessarily required for toolmaking.

B) Body mass and braincase volume are completely unrelated.

C) Hominins first evolved in and then radiated out from Asia.

D) Homo floresiensis is most closely related to Australopithecus afarensis or africanus.

A) A large brain is not necessarily required for toolmaking.

14

Brown et al. and Morwood et al. reported in 2004 that they had found skeletal remains of a previously unknown type of hominin, now dubbed Homo floresiensis, on the Indonesian island of Flores. These hominins were small (approximately 1 meter tall) with small braincases (approximately 380 cubic centimeters) as compared with other hominins. The remains of H. floresiensis were found alongside handmade stone tools and the remains of dwarf elephants that also inhabited the island, suggesting that H. floresiensis was able both to make tools and to coordinate the hunting of animals much larger than itself. H. floresiensis is estimated to have lived at the site where the remains were found from at least 38,000 years ago to 18,000 years ago.

It is speculated that H. floresiensis and H. sapiens may have lived on Flores concurrently. Suppose researchers obtained mitochondrial DNA samples from the H. floresiensis remains, amplified a 1,000-base-pair sequence via PCR, and compared it to that of several currently living H. sapiens native to Indonesia, North Africa, and North America. Also suppose H. floresiensis were found to differ from the average Indonesian H. sapiens in 28 base pairs, from the average North African H. sapiens in 51 base pairs, and from the average North American H. sapiens in 53 base pairs, while two randomly selected H. sapiens differed from each other in an average of 21 base pairs. What would you surmise from these data?

A) floresiensis and H. sapiens probably did not live on Flores concurrently.

B) floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently but did not interact.

C) floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently, and H. sapiens killed and consumed H. floresiensis.

D) floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently and interbred to some degree.

D) floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently and interbred to some degree.

15

Arrange the following taxonomic terms in order from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific).

A) primates, apes, anthropoids, hominins, Homo

B) primates, anthropoids, apes, hominins, Homo

C) primates, anthropoids, hominins, Homo

D) primates, hominins, apes, anthropoids, Homo

B) primates, anthropoids, apes, hominins, Homo

16

Which of these traits is most strongly associated with the adoption of bipedalism?

A) enhanced depth perception

B) shortened hind limbs

C) opposable big toe

D) repositioning of foramen magnum

D) repositioning of foramen magnum

17

Which of the following statements about human evolution is correct?

A) Modern humans are the only human species to have evolved on Earth.

B) Human ancestors were virtually identical to extant chimpanzees.

C) Human evolution has occurred within an unbranched lineage.

D) The upright posture and enlarged brain of humans evolved separately

D) The upright posture and enlarged brain of humans evolved separately

18

With which of the following statements would a biologist be most inclined to agree?

A) Humans and other apes represent divergent lines of evolution from a common ancestor.

B) Humans represent the pinnacle of evolution and have escaped from being affected by natural selection.

C) Humans evolved from chimpanzees.

D) Humans and other apes are the result of disruptive selection in a species of chimpanzee.

A) Humans and other apes represent divergent lines of evolution from a common ancestor.

19

Which of the following taxonomic groups is the most successful?

A) Fungi are the most successful, based on their ability to digest cellulose, the most common organic compound on Earth.

B) Bony fishes are the most successful, based on their high species diversity (almost as many as all other vertebrates combined).

C) Mammals are the most successful, based on their complex mode of reproduction.

D) All extant species are successful, based on their continuing existence.

D) All extant species are successful, based on their continuing existence.

20

Which of the following characteristics occur in Homo naledi?

A) large brain, feet that allowed bipedal walking, hands able to manipulate small objects

B) large brain, feet that allowed occasional erect posture, hands able to manipulate small objects

C) small brain, feet that allowed bipedal walking, hands able to manipulate small objects

D) small brain, feet that allowed bipedal walking, hands able to swing from branch to branch

C) small brain, feet that allowed bipedal walking, hands able to manipulate small objects

21

The history of hominin evolution demonstrates ________.

A) unrelated traits (that is, characters of skulls and hips/feet) evolve together

B) unrelated traits can evolve at different rates

C) the decrease in rainfall favored maintaining the ability to climb trees

D) the increase in rainfall favored the ability to walk upright

B) unrelated traits can evolve at different rates

22

Many sentences in this chapter include the words "may suggest." This phrase indicates that ________.

A) causality of a pattern is uncertain

B) there is no cause-and-effect association

C) the author is explaining a well-established relationship

D) scientists agree on the cause of a pattern

A) causality of a pattern is uncertain

23

In the figure, which of the following survivorship curves implies that an animal may lay many eggs, of which a regular number die each year on a logarithmic scale?

A) curve A

B) curve B

C) curve C

D) curves A or C

B) curve B

24

In the figure, which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in developed countries?

A) curve A

B) curve B

C) curve C

D) curve A or curve B

A) curve A

25

Using the table, how would you describe the population dynamics of the Eurasian lizard, Z. vivipara?

A) The population is increasing.

B) The population is decreasing.

C) The population is stable.

D) The table does not provide this information.

A) The population is increasing.

26

Using the table, determine which age class year would cause the largest decline in the resulting population growth, if it were wiped out by disease.

A) age class year 1

B) age class year 2

C) age class year 3

D) age class year 4

A) age class year 1

27

Suppose researchers marked 800 turtles and later were able to trap a total of 300 individuals in that population, of which 150 were marked. What is the estimate for total population size?

A) 200

B) 1,050

C) 1,600

D) 2,100

C) 1,600

28

Looking at the figure, what factor is contributing significantly to stabilizing the population size over time?

I) no migration

II) low migration

III) high migration

A) only I

B) only II

C) only III

D) only II and III

C) only III

29

Which of the following assumptions must be made regarding the mark-recapture estimate of population size?

I) Marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped.

II) The marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with the population after being marked.

III) No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or emigration, and no individuals have been added by birth or eliminated by death during the course of the estimate.

A) I only

B) II only

C) I and II only

D) I, II, and III

D) I, II, and III

30

Which of the following is the most important assumption for the mark-recapture method to estimate the size of wildlife populations?

A) More individuals emigrate from, as opposed to immigrate into, a population.

B) Over 50% of the marked individuals were trapped during the recapture phase.

C) There is a 50:50 ratio of males to females in the population before and after trapping and recapture.

D) Marked individuals have the same probability of being recaptured as unmarked individuals during the recapture phase.

D) Marked individuals have the same probability of being recaptured as unmarked individuals during the recapture phase.

31

Which curve best describes survivorship in marine mollusks?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) E

D) E

32

Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) E

A) A

33

To measure the population of lake trout in a 250-hectare lake, 400 individual trout were netted and marked with a fin clip, then returned to the lake. The next week, the lake was netted again, and out of the 200 lake trout that were caught, 50 had fin clips. Using the mark-recapture estimate, the lake trout population size could be closest to which of the following?

A) 200

B) 400

C) 1,600

D) 80,000

C) 1,600

34

Long-term studies of Belding's ground squirrels show that immigrants move nearly 2 kilometers from where they are born and become 1%-8% of the males and 0.7%-6% of the females in other populations. On an evolutionary scale, why is this significant?

A) These immigrants make up for the deaths of individuals, keeping the other populations' size stable.

B) These immigrants provide a source of genetic diversity for the other populations.

C) Those individuals that emigrate to these new populations are looking for less crowded conditions with more resources.

D) Gradually, the populations of ground squirrels will move from a clumped to a uniform population pattern of dispersion.

B) These immigrants provide a source of genetic diversity for the other populations.

35

In the accompanying life table of a hypothetical population, what are the missing values for lx (y and z)? lx = the proportion alive at the start of year (age specific survivorship rate).

A) y = 0.5, z = 0.5

B) y = 1.0, z = 0.5

C) y = 0.5, z = 0.1

D) y = 1.0, z = 0.2

C) y = 0.5, z = 0.1

36

An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square kilometer (km2) in one woodlot and 20 km2 in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?

A) density

B) dispersion

C) carrying capacity

D) range

A) density

37

Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with ________.

A) patterns of high humidity

B) the random distribution of seeds

C) competitive interaction between individuals of the same population

D) the concentration of nutrients within the population's range

C) competitive interaction between individuals of the same population

38

Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion?

A) red squirrels, who actively defend territories

B) cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams

C) dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree

D) lake trout, which seek out cold, deep water high in dissolved oxygen

A) red squirrels, who actively defend territories

39

Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the dispersion of a population being studied?

A) counting the number of times a one-kilometer transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels after a snowfall

B) measuring the distance between several burrows within a large prairie dog colony in a grassland

C) measuring the average distance between individuals and their nearest neighbor, and then analyzing the variation and comparing those measurements at larger scales

D) counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations

C) measuring the average distance between individuals and their nearest neighbor, and then analyzing the variation and comparing those measurements at larger scales

40

Which of the following scenarios would provide the most accurate data on population density?

A) Count the number of nests of a particular species of songbird and multiply this by a factor that extrapolates these data to actual animals.

B) Count the number of pine trees in several randomly selected 10-meter-square plots and extrapolate this number to the fraction of the study area these plots represent.

C) Use the mark-recapture method to estimate the size of the population.

D) Calculate the difference between all of the immigrants and emigrants to see if the population is growing or shrinking.

B) Count the number of pine trees in several randomly selected 10-meter-square plots and extrapolate this number to the fraction of the study area these plots represent.

41

Which of the following is the best natural example of a uniform pattern of dispersion?

A) bees collecting pollen in a wildflower meadow

B) moss spores floating in the wind to new locations of a forest

C) territorial songbirds in a mature forest during mating season

D) mushrooms growing on the floor of an old growth forest

D) mushrooms growing on the floor of an old growth forest

42

Which statement best explains survivorship curve B?

A) It is likely a species that provides little postnatal care, but lots of care for offspring during midlife as indicated by increased survivorship.

B) This curve is likely for a species that produces lots of offspring, only a few of which are expected to survive.

C) It is likely a species where no individuals in the cohort die when they are at 60-70% relative age.

D) Survivorship can only decrease; therefore, this curve could not happen in nature.

D) Survivorship can only decrease; therefore, this curve could not happen in nature.

43

Which of the following examples are plausible explanations for a population that would produce curve A in the figure?

I. Ongoing predation of rabbits throughout their lives

II. Susceptibility of older humans to heart disease

III. High seedling mortality in sunflowers

A) I only

B) II only

C) I and II

D) II and III

B) II only

44

Imagine that you are managing a large game ranch. You know from historical accounts that a species of deer used to live there, but they have been extirpated. After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriately sized founding population, you reintroduce them. You then watch the population increase for several generations, and graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). With no natural predators impacting the population, the graph will likely appear as ________.

A) a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation

B) an "S" that ends with a vertical line

C) an upside-down "U"

D) a "J," increasing with each generation

D) a "J," increasing with each generation

45

In the figure, which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity?

A) arrow A

B) arrow B

C) arrow C

D) Carrying capacity cannot be found in the figure because species under density-dependent control never reach carrying capacity.

C) arrow C

46

Which statements about K are correct?

I) K varies among populations.

II) K varies in space.

III) K varies in time.

IV) K is constant for any given species.

A) only I and III

B) only II and IV

C) only I, II, and III

D) only II, III, and IV

C) only I, II, and III

47

As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following outcomes is predicted by the logistic equation?

A) The population growth rate will not change.

B) The population growth rate will approach zero.

C) The population size will increase exponentially.

D) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase

B) The population growth rate will approach zero.

48

Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic population growth?

A) favorable climatic conditions

B) removal of predators

C) decreased death rate

D) competition for resources

D) competition for resources

49
card image

Which of the following graphs best illustrates the growth curve of a small population of rodents that has increased to a static carrying capacity?

card image

50

According to the logistic growth equation, = rN, ________.

A) the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero

B) the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K

C) population growth is zero when N equals K

D) the population grows exponentially when K is small

C) population growth is zero when N equals K

51

Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics. As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates, birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants. This situation is an example of what kind of species interaction between the birds and the ants?

A) consumption

B) commensalism

C) parasitism

D) mutualism

B) commensalism

52

In the hypothesis that Chthamalus stellatus (a species of barnacle) is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by Balanus balanoides (another species of barnacle), what could be concluded about the two species?

A) The fundamental and realized niches of balanoides and C. stellatus are identical.

B) The fundamental and realized niches of balanoides and C. stellatus are different.

C) The fundamental and realized niches of balanoides are different, but the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are identical.

D) The fundamental and realized niches of balanoides are identical, but the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are different.

D) The fundamental and realized niches of balanoides are identical, but the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are different.

53

What conclusion can you draw from the figure?

A) Without direct contact, mussels can sense the presence of crabs.

B) Mussels can sense the presence of crabs only visually.

C) Mussels are increasing their shell thickness in response to water current.

D) Crabs hunt for mussels by focusing on the chemicals they emit into the water

A) Without direct contact, mussels can sense the presence of crabs.

54

As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap, the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning. When you bring them into the laboratory and isolate the two different species, you discover that the offspring of both species are found to be nocturnal. You have discovered an example of ________.

A) mutualism

B) character displacement

C) Batesian mimicry

D) resource partitioning

D) resource partitioning

55

In this experiment, Balanus was removed from the habitat shown on the left.

Which of the following statements is a valid conclusion of this experiment?

A) Balanus can survive only in the lower intertidal zone because it is unable to resist desiccation.

B) Balanus is inferior to Chthamalus in competing for space on rocks lower in the intertidal zone.

C) When the two species of barnacles compete with each other, both species still occupy low and high tide areas.

D) The removal of Balanus shows that competitive exclusion prevented Chthamalus from occupying the lower tide region of its fundamental niche.

D) The removal of Balanus shows that competitive exclusion prevented Chthamalus from occupying the lower tide region of its fundamental niche.

56

Connell conducted this experiment to learn more about ________.

A) character displacement in the color of barnacles

B) habitat preference in two different species of barnacles

C) how sea-level changes affect barnacle distribution

D) competitive exclusion and distribution of barnacle species

D) competitive exclusion and distribution of barnacle species

57

The symbols +, -, and 0 are used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and 0 denotes interactions in which individuals are not affected. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned. What interactions exist between a lion pride and African wild dogs, if the dogs are found to typically avoid areas with lions?

A) +/+

B) +/-

C) 0/0

D) -/-

B) +/-

58

The symbols +, -, and 0 are used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and 0 denotes interactions in which individuals are not affected. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned. Which fact is correct when describing species interactions?

A) +/0 will always remain such.

B) A +/- interaction could shift to +/0 or +/+ over time, depending on other factors such as competition, population density, or environmental changes.

C) Species interactions occur in isolation and cannot affect the structure of ecological communities.

D) A -/- interaction benefits both of the species in the relationship.

B) A +/- interaction could shift to +/0 or +/+ over time, depending on other factors such as competition, population density, or environmental changes.

59

Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion?

A) The random distribution of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species.

B) If two species have the same fundamental niche, one will exclude the other competing species.

C) Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.

D) Natural selection tends to increase competition between related species.

C) Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.

60

If two species are close competitors, and one species is experimentally removed from the community, the remaining species would be expected to ________.

A) change its fundamental niche

B) decline in abundance

C) become the target of specialized parasites

D) expand its realized niche

D) expand its realized niche

61

Which of the following is an example of a commensalism?

A) fungi residing in plant roots, such as endomycorrhizae

B) bacteria fixing nitrogen on the roots of some plants

C) rancher ants that protect aphids in exchange for sugar-rich honeydew

D) cattle egrets eating insects stirred up by grazing bison

D) cattle egrets eating insects stirred up by grazing bison

62

Treehoppers (a type of insect) produce honeydew, which ants use for food. Treehoppers have a major predator, the jumping spider. Researchers hypothesized that the ants would protect the treehoppers from the spiders. In an experiment, researchers followed study plots with ants removed from the system and compared them to a control plot. From the figure, what can you conclude?

A) Ants do somehow protect the treehoppers from spiders.

B) Ants eat the honeydew produced by treehoppers.

C) Ants reduce the numbers of treehoppers.

D) No specific conclusions can be drawn from this figure

A) Ants do somehow protect the treehoppers from spiders.

63

Treehoppers (a type of insect) produce honeydew, which ants use for food. Treehoppers have a major predator, the jumping spider. Researchers hypothesized that the ants would protect the treehoppers from the spiders. During a one-year study, researchers found no difference in treehopper populations in any of their control and experimental groups. What could they measure during the second year to gain information about why this might have occurred?

A) Measure the number of ant females.

B) Measure the relative sizes of the treehoppers.

C) Measure the relative abundance of jumping spiders.

D) Measure the relative sizes of different ant species.

C) Measure the relative abundance of jumping spiders.

64

Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between ________.

A) sympatric populations of species with similar ecological niches

B) sympatric populations of a flowering plant and its specialized insect pollinator

C) allopatric populations of the same animal species

D) allopatric populations of species with similar ecological niches

A) sympatric populations of species with similar ecological niches

65

Character displacement differs from resource partitioning because character displacement ________.

A) is a fundamental difference in feeding behaviors of individuals

B) is directly linked to the evolution of genotypes that have allowed alternate resource use

C) is a difference in the niche within a habitat that is preferred to be used by a species

D) is not the result of competition

B) is directly linked to the evolution of genotypes that have allowed alternate resource use

66

Which of the following is an example of Müllerian mimicry?

A) two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color pattern

B) a day-flying hawkmoth that looks like a wasp

C) a chameleon that changes its color to look like a dead leaf

D) one species of a non-venomous snake which rattles its tail to mimic a venomous rattlesnake

A) two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color pattern

67

Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?

A) a butterfly that resembles a leaf

B) a nonvenomous larva of a moth that moves like a venomous snake

C) a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment

D) a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish

B) a nonvenomous larva of a moth that moves like a venomous snake

68

Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?

A) a non-poisonous snake mimics the color of a poisonous one

B) the brightly colored patterns of monarch butterfly caterpillars

C) green color of a plant

D) a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf

B) the brightly colored patterns of monarch butterfly caterpillars

69

Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They obtain nutrients and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees derive no known benefits from the dwarf mistletoes, nor are they negatively affected by this interaction. Which of the following best describes the interactions between dwarf mistletoes and trees?

A) mutualism

B) commensalism

C) competition

D) facilitation

B) commensalism

70

In some circumstances, grasses that initially lose tissues from being consumed by animals such as elk or cattle regrow more than they would have otherwise, and benefit from the moderate levels of grazing. Which of the following terms would best describe such a plant-herbivore interaction?

A) mutualism

B) commensalism

C) parasitism

D) predation

A) mutualism

71

Which of the following measurements would be most helpful in understanding the structure of an ecological community?

I) determining how many species are present overall

II) determining which particular species are present

III) determining the kinds of interactions that occur among individuals of the same species

IV) determining the abundance of resources available for one species

A) only I and II

B) only II and IV

C) only I, II, and III

D) I, II, III, and IV

A) only I and II

72

Which of the following studies would a community ecologist undertake to learn about competitive interactions?

I) selectivity of nest sites among cavity-nesting songbirds

II) the grass species preferred by grazing pronghorn antelope and bison

III) stomach analysis of brown trout and brook trout in streams where they coexist

A) only I and II

B) only I and III

C) only II and III

D) I, II, and III

D) I, II, and III

73

How might an ecologist test whether a species is occupying all of its fundamental niche or only a portion of it?

A) Study the temperature range and humidity requirements of the species.

B) Observe if the species expands its range after the removal of a competitor.

C) Measure the change in reproductive success when the species is subjected to environmental stress.

D) Observe if the niche size changes after the introduction of a similar non-native species.

B) Observe if the species expands its range after the removal of a competitor.

74

The symbols +, -, and 0 are to be used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and 0 denotes where individuals are not affected by interacting. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned. What interactions exist between cellulose-digesting organisms in the gut of a termite and the termite?

A) +/+

B) +/0

C) +/-

D) 0/0

A) +/+

75

The symbols +, -, and 0 are to be used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and 0 denotes where individuals are not affected by interacting. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned. What interactions exist between mycorrhizae and evergreen tree roots?

A) +/+

B) +/0

C) +/-

D) 0/0

A) +/+

76

Red-cheeked salamanders are partially protected from predators because of cardiac glycosides they produce from glands on their back. When ingested, cardiac glycosides disrupt normal heart rhythms. A different salamander species, the imitator salamander, also has red cheek patches, but does not produce cardiac glycosides. It does gain protection from predators that have learned to avoid red-cheeked salamanders. How does this relationship affect the population dynamics of both species?

A) Both species are negatively affected.

B) Both species are positively affected.

C) The red-cheeked salamander is positively affected; the imitator is negatively affected.

D) The red-cheeked salamander is not affected; the imitator is positively affected.

D) The red-cheeked salamander is not affected; the imitator is positively affected.

77

Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex?

A) Capture all remaining individuals in the population for captive breeding followed by reintroduction to the wild.

B) Establish a reserve that protects the population's habitat.

C) Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.

D) Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population.

C) Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.

78

Which one of the following is most likely to be a hot spot of biodiversity for birds?

A) Central America

B) Northern Europe

C) Central Australia

D) Eastern North America

A) Central America

79

In looking at the species-area plot in the figure, what can be concluded?

A) The number of bird species increases linearly with island area.

B) Two island land areas do not correlate to the number of bird species

C) Diversity is independent from island area.

D) The number of bird species increases exponentially with island area

A) The number of bird species increases linearly with island area.

80

Based on the species-area plot in the figure, if habitable area on an island were reduced from 10,000 square kilometers (km2) to 1,000 km2, roughly what percentage of the species would disappear?

A) 0.3 percent

B) 3 percent

C) 30 percent

D) 60 percent

C) 30 percent

81

The main purpose of movement corridors is to ________.

A) slow down the introduction of new individuals of a species

B) slowly introduce a species to a new reserve

C) create more edge habitat

D) connect two otherwise isolated populations

D) connect two otherwise isolated populations

82

A land developer and several ecologists are discussing how a parcel of private land should be developed with housing while saving 20 hectares as natural habitat. The land developer suggests that the 20 hectares be divided into 20 separate 1-hectare areas, spread out across the area. The ecologists suggest that it would be better to have one intact parcel of 20 hectares on one side of the larger area. What is the significance of these different arrangements of the 20 hectares?

A) The single intact parcel would have a smaller amount of edge than the 20 separate parcels.

B) The isolated hectare plots increase the ability of individuals to disperse from one habitat to another.

C) The separate 1-hectare plots are less vulnerable to edge effects.

D) The large plot will create more inbreeding in many species.

A) The single intact parcel would have a smaller amount of edge than the 20 separate parcels.

83

Looking at the figure showing the results of forest fragmentation, what can be said about edge effects?

A) Biomass declines along edges of forest fragments.

B) Biomass increases along the edges of forest fragments.

C) Species diversity decreases along the edges of forest fragments.

D) Fragmentation does not affect biomass.

A) Biomass declines along edges of forest fragments.

84

Which of the following is a generally accurate statement about the current research regarding forest fragmentation?

A) Fragmented forests promote biodiversity because they result in the combination of forest-edge species and forest-interior species.

B) In fragmented forests, the number of forested-adapted species tend to decline and the number of edge species tend to increase.

C) Fragmented forests are the goal of conservation biologists who design wildlife reserves.

D) The disturbance of timber extraction causes the species diversity to increase because of the new habitats created.

B) In fragmented forests, the number of forested-adapted species tend to decline and the number of edge species tend to increase.

85

Brown-headed cowbirds utilize fragmented forests effectively by ________.

A) feeding on the fruits of shrubs that tend to grow at the forest/open-field interface

B) parasitizing the nests of forest birds and feeding on open-field insects

C) consuming the eggs of other species as well as insects and seeds in open fields

D) outcompeting other songbird species for access to nesting holes in old-growth trees

B) parasitizing the nests of forest birds and feeding on open-field insects

86

Movement corridors can be harmful to certain species because they ________.

A) increase inbreeding

B) spread disease and parasites

C) increase genetic diversity

D) allow seasonal migration

B) spread disease and parasites

87

Establishing new nature reserves in biodiversity hot spots may not necessarily the best choice because ________.

A) hot spots are situated in remote areas not accessible to the public

B) their ecological importance makes land purchase very expensive

C) a hot spot helps conserve only a few species

D) changing environmental conditions may shift the location of the hot spot

D) changing environmental conditions may shift the location of the hot spot

88

What is the biggest problem with selecting a site for a reserve?

A) Making a proper selection is difficult because currently the environmental conditions of almost any site can change quickly.

B) Keystone species are difficult to identify in potential reserve sites.

C) Only lands that are not useful to human activities are available for reserves.

D) Most of the best sites are inaccessible by land transportation, so making roads to them is often prohibitively expensive.

A) Making a proper selection is difficult because currently the environmental conditions of almost any site can change quickly.

89

Which of the following nations has become a world leader in the establishment of zoned reserves?

A) Costa Rica

B) China

C) United States

D) Mexico

A) Costa Rica

90

During the inventory of bacterial genes present in the Sargasso Sea, a deep isolated area in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean, a research team concluded that at least 1,800 bacterial species were present. Based on what you might predict about the habitat structure of such an area, what kind of bacterial diversity would you expect to see in tropical coral reef waters?

A) slightly greater genetic diversity

B) slightly smaller genetic diversity

C) markedly smaller genetic diversity

D) markedly greater genetic diversity

D) markedly greater genetic diversity

91

The human impact that scientists determined has caused the most extinctions on record is ________, and beyond further losses from this impact, the other impact with the largest potential to cause future extinctions is ________.

A) introduced species; habitat loss

B) habitat loss; overharvesting

C) climate change; habitat loss

D) habitat loss; climate change

D) habitat loss; climate change

92

What is a critical load?

A) the amount of nutrient augmentation necessary to bring a depleted habitat back to its former level

B) the level of a given toxin in an ecosystem that is lethal to 50 percent of the species present

C) the amount of added nutrient that can be absorbed by plants without damaging ecosystem integrity

D) the number of predators an ecosystem can support that effectively culls prey populations to healthy levels

C) the amount of added nutrient that can be absorbed by plants without damaging ecosystem integrity

93

Agricultural lands frequently require nutrient augmentation because ________.

A) nitrogen-fixing bacteria are not as plentiful in agricultural soils because of the use of pesticides

B) the nutrients that become the biomass of plants are not cycled back to the soil on lands where they are harvested

C) land that is available for agriculture tends to be nutrient-poor

D) cultivation of agricultural land inhibits the decomposition of organic matter

B) the nutrients that become the biomass of plants are not cycled back to the soil on lands where they are harvested

94

Which of the following outcomes is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into aquatic ecosystems?

A) depletion of ozone layer

B) acid precipitation

C) biological magnification

D) eutrophication

D) eutrophication

95

Which of the following factors causes extremely high levels of toxic chemicals in fish-eating birds?

A) acid precipitation

B) biological magnification

C) greenhouse effect

D) eutrophication

B) biological magnification

96

Flycatcher birds that migrate from Africa to Europe feed their chicks a diet that is almost exclusively moth caterpillars. The graph shows the peak dates of flycatcher arrival in Europe, bird hatching, and peak caterpillar season for the years 1980 and 2000. The y-axis is a measure of the abundance of birds, hatching chicks, and caterpillars.

The shift in the peak of caterpillar season is most likely due to ________.

A) earlier migration returns of flycatchers

B) an innate change in the biological clock of the caterpillars

C) global warming

D) acid precipitation in Europe

C) global warming

97

Your friend is wary of environmentalists' claims that global warming could lead to major biological change on Earth. Which of the following statements can you use in response to your friend's suspicions?

A) We know that atmospheric carbon dioxide has decreased over the past 150 years.

B) Through measurements and observations, we know that carbon dioxide levels and temperature fluctuations are indirectly correlated.

C) Global warming could have minor effects on agriculture in the United States.

D) Scientist have evidence that climate change has already altered primary production, as well as ecosystem services.

D) Scientist have evidence that climate change has already altered primary production, as well as ecosystem services.

98

The main cause of the increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in Earth's atmosphere over the past 150 years is ________.

A) increased worldwide primary production

B) an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere

C) the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels

D) additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population

C) the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels

99

Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification?

A) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers.

B) Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers.

C) Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers.

D) The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the producer turnover time increases.

A) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers.

100

Why are changes in the global carbon cycle important?

A) Burning increases available carbon for primary producers and, therefore, primary consumers.

B) Deforestation and suburbanization increase an area's net primary productivity.

C) Increasing atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide are altering Earth's climate.

D) By using fossil fuels, we are replenishing a nonrenewable resource.

C) Increasing atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide are altering Earth's climate.

101

Looking at the figure, what can you conclude about the data?

A) As species richness changes, plant biomass remains consistent.

B) As species richness increases, plant biomass increases.

C) As species richness increases, plant biomass increases and then levels off.

D) As species richness decreases, plant biomass increases.

C) As species richness increases, plant biomass increases and then levels off.

102

Examine the figure and consider this hypothesis: Plant biomass increases with species richness. Functional groups are categories of plants each containing numerous species, such as grasses and wildflowers, or trees and shrubs. In looking at the data in the figure, how would you relate it to this hypothesis? The hypothesis is ________.

A) partially supported

B) supported

C) rejected

D) neither rejected nor supported

A) partially supported

103

Examine the figure, which notes the average barrels of oil used per person per year in different countries. What can be concluded?

A) Residents in warmer climates use more energy per person.

B) Residents of more affluent, industrialized countries use more energy per person.

C) Residents of more populated countries use more energy per person.

D) English-speaking countries tend to use more energy per person.

B) Residents of more affluent, industrialized countries use more energy per person.

104

Eutrophication is often caused by excess limiting-nutrient runoff from agricultural fields into aquatic ecosystems. This process results in massive algal blooms that eventually die and decompose, ultimately depleting the dissolved oxygen, killing large numbers of fish and other aquatic organisms. Predict which of the following human actions would best address the problem of eutrophication near agricultural areas?

A) After each eutrophication event, remove the dead fish and invertebrates to place on agricultural fields instead of fertilizer.

B) Determine which limiting nutrient is responsible for the algal bloom, and use other fertilizers to apply to crops.

C) Remove the algae before it dies and decomposes to prevent eutrophication from occurring.

D) Determine critical nutrient loads required for certain crops, and do not exceed this amount during fertilizer application.

D) Determine critical nutrient loads required for certain crops, and do not exceed this amount during fertilizer application.

105

Elevated carbon dioxide levels have been shown to contribute to the greenhouse effect, resulting in an increase in mean global temperature. Ecosystems where the largest warming has already occurred include snow-covered northern coniferous forests, tundra, and arctic sea ice habitats. Which statement best explains how the elimination of ice-covered ecosystems affects the rise or fall in global temperature?

A) Melting ice releases dissolved ozone gas, which adds to the greenhouse effect.

B) More reflective surfaces of ice are replaced with darker, more absorptive surfaces, thereby contributing to the warming trend.

C) Large-scale ice melts actually contribute toward lowering global temperatures by decreasing salinity of the oceans.

D) Carbon dioxide levels are lowered as a result of the greater volume of water to accommodate greater levels of dissolved gas.

B) More reflective surfaces of ice are replaced with darker, more absorptive surfaces, thereby contributing to the warming trend.