Human Anatomy & Physiology + Modified Masteringa&p With Pearson Etext + a Photographic Atlas for Anatomy & Physiology: FINAL EXAM (anatomy & physiology) Flashcards


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1

The study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as the heart is called ______ anatomy.

A) developmental

B) gross

C) systemic

D) microscopic

B) gross

2

Average body temperature is _____ degrees centigrade.

A) 47

B) 98

C) 37

D) 68

C) 37

3

What is the main, general purpose of negative feedback?

A) to regulate excretion via the kidneys

B) to maintain homeostasis

C) to control body movement

D) to keep the body's blood sugar level high

B) to maintain homeostasis

4

The heart lies in the _____ cavity.

A) pleural

B) pericardial

C) dorsal

D) superior mediastinal

B) pericardial

5

A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is a(n) ________.

A) organ B) complex tissue C) organ system D) complex cell

A) organ

6

Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind?

A) anterior B) lateral C) dorsal D) distal

C) dorsal

7

The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight, is ________.

A) hydrogen B) oxygen C) water D) protein

C) water

8

Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanisms?

A) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.

B) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms.

C) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host.

D) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.

A) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.

9

The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________.

A) thumbs pointed laterally

B) body erect

C) palms turned posteriorly

D) arms at sides

C) palms turned posteriorly

10

A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________.

A) body temperature regulation

B) enhancement of labor contractions

C) regulating glucose levels in the blood

D) blood calcium level regulation

B) enhancement of labor contractions

11

Which one of the following systems responds fastest to environmental stimuli?

A) nervous

B) muscular

C) immune

D) lymphatic

A) nervous

12

Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.

A) a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances

B) a static state with no deviation from preset points

C) the lowest possible energy usage

D) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits

D) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits

13

Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:

  1. molecules
  2. atoms
  3. tissues
  4. cells
  5. organs 13) _____

A) 1-2-3-4-5

B) 1-2-4-3-5

C) 2-1-4-3-5

D) 2-1-3-4-5

C) 2-1-4-3-5

14

Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?

A) spinal cord

B) thoracic cavity

C) cranial cavity

D) vertebral cavity

B) thoracic cavity

15

The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following?

A) brain

B) liver

C) lungs

D) intestines

A) brain

16

One of the functional characteristics of life is excitability or responsiveness. This refers to ________.

A) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them

B) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce

C) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system

D) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger

A) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them

17

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called?

A) frontal

B) transverse

C) regional

D) sagittal

D) sagittal

18

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?

A) transverse

B) sagittal

C) frontal

D) median

C) frontal

19

The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________.

A) three-dimensional structure of the double helix

B) arrangement of the histones

C) sequence of the nucleotides

D) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules

C) sequence of the nucleotides

20

Which of the following is not true of proteins?

A) They have both functional and structural roles in the body..

B) Their function depends on their three-dimensional shape.

C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information.

D) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity

C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information.

21

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of ________.

A) glycogen

B) cholesterol

C) triglycerides

D) glucose

A) glycogen

22

Which of the following does NOT describe enzymes?

A) Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor.

B) Some enzymes are purely protein.

C) Each enzyme is chemically specific.

D) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation.

D) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation.

23

A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________.

A) a synthesis

B) forming a larger molecule

C) the release of energy

D) the consumption of energy

C) the release of energy

24

Salts are always ________.

A) hydrogen bonded

B) double covalent compounds

C) ionic compounds

D) single covalent compounds

C) ionic compounds

25

The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?

A) 2, 8

B) 2, 8, 8

C) 2

D) 2, 8, 1

D) 2, 8, 1

26

Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?

A) NaCl

B) H2O

C) NaOH

D) CH4

D) CH4

27

What level of protein synthesis is represented by the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix?

A) secondary structure

B) primary structure

C) tertiary structure

D) quaternary structure

A) secondary structure

28

Which of the following statements is false?

A) Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions, sometimes while undergoing reversible changes in shape.

B) Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures.

C) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher numbers.

D) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully.

D) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully.

29

Which of the following does not describe uses for the ATP molecule?

A) mechanical work

B) transport across membranes

C) pigment structure

D) chemical work

C) pigment structure

30

Which of the following is an example of a suspension?

A) blood

B) cytoplasm

C) rubbing alcohol

D) salt water

A) blood

31

Select the correct statement about isotopes.

A) All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons but differing numbers of electrons.

B) Isotopes occur only in the heavier elements.

C) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses.

D) All the isotopes of an element are radioactive.

C) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses.

32

The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________.

A) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium

C) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium

D) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen

A) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

33

You notice that you cannot read your book through a test tube of patient fluid held against the print, making it so blurred as to be unreadable. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days in a rack. What type of liquid is this?

A) solution

B) suspension

C) mixture

D) colloid

D) colloid

34

Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell?

A) 5

B) 10

C) 7

D) 3

C) 7

35

If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following?

A) 37 electrons

B) 37 protons and 37 electrons

C) 37 protons and 37 neutrons

D) 74 protons

D) 74 protons

36

What does the formula C6H12O6 mean?

A) There are, 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.

B) There are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.

C) The substance is a colloid.

D) The molecular weight is 24.

A) There are, 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.

37

An atom with a valence of 3 may have a total of ________ electrons.

A) 3

B) 17

C) 13

D) 8

C) 13

38

The chemical symbol O=O means ________.

A) zero equals zero

B) the atoms are double bonded

C) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons

D) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit

B) the atoms are double bonded

39

Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction.

A) exchange

B) synthesis

C) reversible

D) decomposition

B) synthesis

40

Which of the following is not considered a factor in influencing a reaction rate?

A) temperature

B) time

C) concentration

D) particle size

B) time

41

Sucrose is a ________.

A) triglyceride

B) polysaccharide

C) disaccharide

D) monosaccharide

C) disaccharide

42

What is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol in neutral fats?

A) 3:1

B) 4:1

C) 1:1

D) 2:1

A) 3:1

43

Which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three-dimensional shape?

A) Carbon

B) Oxygen

C) Hydrogen

D) Amino acid

C) Hydrogen

44

If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis, then the wall thermostat would be the _____.

A) variable

B) control center

C) receptor

D) effector

B) control center

45

In which body cavities are the lung located?

A) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal

B) pleural, ventral, and thoracic

C) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic

C) mediastinal, thoracic, and ventral

B) pleural, ventral, and thoracic

46

Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance?

A) Positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed.

B) Negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally.

C) It is considered the cause of most diseases.

D) The internal environment is becoming more stable.

C) It is considered the cause of most diseases.

47

Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the _____.

A) removal of a water molecule between each two units

B) removal of a carbon atom between each two units

C) addition of a water molecule between each two units

D) addition of a carbon molecule between each two untis

A) removal of a water molecule between each two units

48

What does CH4 mean?

A) There are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms

B) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms

C) This is an inorganic molecule

D) This was involved in a redox reaction

B) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms

49

When two atoms share a pair of electrons the chemical bond formed is called?

A) covalent

B) ionic

C) weak

D) hydrogen

A) covalent

50

When one atom donates an electron to another atom the chemical bond that forms is called?

A) covalent

B) ionic

C) weak

D) hydrogen

B) ionic

51

The type of molecule that forms when there is not equal sharing of electrons across the molecule setting up a partial positive and partial negative side is called?

A) neutral

B) polar

C) uneven

D)nonpolar

B) polar

52

Histology would be beat defined as a study of _____.

A) tissues

B) cells

C) the gross structures of the body

D)cell chemistry

A) tissues

53

Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells?

A)sodium

B) magnesium

C) potassium

D) hydrogen

A)sodium

54

Which vesicular transport process occurs primarily in some white blood cells and macrophages?

A) phagocytosis

B) intracellular vesicular trafficking

C) exocytosis

D) pinocytosis

A) phagocytosis

55

A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.

A) neither shrink nor swell

B) swell and burst

C) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached

D) shrink

B) swell and burst

56

Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?

A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell

B) a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

C) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae

D) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma

B) a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

57

Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?

A) microvilli

B) flagella

C) primary cilia

D) stereocilia

A) microvilli

58

Which of the following statements is correct regarding net diffusion?

A) The rate is independent of temperature.

B) The lower the temperature, the faster the rate.

C) Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate.

D) The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate.

D) The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate.

59

Which type of cell junction acts as anchors and distributes tension through a cellular sheet and reduces the chance of tearing when it is subjected to great mechanical stress?

A) tight junctions

B) desmosomes

C) connexons

D) gap junctions

B) desmosomes

60

If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen?

A) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent.

B) The cells will swell and ultimately burst.

C) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition.

D) The cells will lose water and shrink.

D) The cells will lose water and shrink.

61

Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?

A) The phagocytized material is stored until further breakdown can occur..

B) The vacuole remains separated from the cytoplasm and the solid material persists unchanged.

C) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.

D) A ribosome enters the vacuole and uses the amino acids in the "invader" to form new protein.

C) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.

62

Which of the following would not be a constituent of a plasma membrane?

A) glycoproteins

B) phospholipids

C) glycolipids

D) messenger RNA

D) messenger RNA

63

The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of pinwheel array of 9 triplets of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is a ________.

A) chromosome

B) centriole

C) ribosome

D) centrosome

B) centriole

64

Passive membrane transport processes include ________.

A) movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low concentration

B) consumption of ATP

C) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient

D) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration

C) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient

65

Mitochondria ________.

A) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell

B) are always the same shape

C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function

D) are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP

C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function

66

Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi apparatus functionally act in sequence to synthesize and modify proteins for secretory use (export) only, never for use by the cell. This statement is ________.

A) false; integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this way

B) false; lipids, not proteins, are synthesized this way

C) true

D) false; proteins thus manufactured are for use inside the cell only

A) false; integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this way

67

Peroxisomes ________.

A) function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis

B) sometimes function as secretory vesicles

C) are also called microbodies, and contain acid hydrolases

D) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action

D) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action

68

Which of the following is NOT a function of lysosomes?

A) breaking down bone to release calcium ions into the blood

B) forming acid hydrolases which are necessary to help form cell membranes

C) digesting particles taken in by endocytosis

D) degrading worn-out or nonfunctional organelles

B) forming acid hydrolases which are necessary to help form cell membranes

69

The main component of the cytosol is ________.

A) proteins

B) salts

C) water

D) sugars

C) water

70

A gene can best be defined as ________.

A) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain

B) an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide

C) a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid

D) noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long

A) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain

71

Which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is found in bone?

A) living cells

B) blood vessels

C) organic fibers

D) lacunae

B) blood vessels

72

What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels?

A) cartilage tissue

B) fibrocartilaginous tissue

C) areolar tissue

D) osseous tissue

D) osseous tissue

73

The simple columnar epithelium that form absorptive cells of the digestive tract have which characteristic?

A) a rich vascular supply

B) cilia

C) dense microvilli

D) fibroblasts

C) dense microvilli

74

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium ciliated variety ________.

A) aids in digestion

B) lines most of the respiratory tract

C) is not an epithelial classification

D) possesses no goblet cells

B) lines most of the respiratory tract

75

Which of the following is a single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes?

A) simple squamous

B) simple cuboidal

C) simple columnar

D) pseudostratified columnar

A) simple squamous

76

Which statement best describes connective tissue?

A) typically arranged in a single layer of cells B) usually lines a body cavity

C) usually contains a large amount of matrix D) primarily concerned with secretion

C) usually contains a large amount of matrix

77

Connective tissue matrix is composed of ________.

A) fibers and ground substance

B) cells and fibers

C) ground substance and cells

D) all organic compounds

A) fibers and ground substance

78

The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________.

A) collagen

B) reticular

C) muscle

D) elastic

A) collagen

79

Groups of cells that are similar in structure and perform a common or related function form a(n) ________.

A) organ

B) organism

C) tissue

D) organ system

C) tissue

80

The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.

A) elastic cartilage

B) hyaline cartilage

C) adipose tissue

D) fibrocartilage

A) elastic cartilage

81

Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue?

A) simple columnar

B) stratified squamous

C) transitional

D) simple squamous

A) simple columnar

82

Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________.

A) endocrine

B) sebaceous

C) exocrine

D) ceruminous

A) endocrine

83

Chondroblasts ________.

A) remain in compact bone even after the epiphyseal plate closes

B) never lose their ability to divide

C) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae

D) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix

D) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix

84

________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.

A) Stratified columnar

B) Pseudostratified columnar

C) Transitional

D) Stratified cuboidal

B) Pseudostratified columnar

85

A many-layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________.

A) stratified squamous

B) simple cuboidal

C) simple squamous

D) transitional

A) stratified squamous

86

Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?

A) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves.

B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion.

C) These glands are ductless.

D) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process

D) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process

87

Which is true concerning muscle tissue?

A) highly cellular and well vascularized

B) contains contractile units made of collagen

C) is a single-celled tissue

D) cuboidal shape enhances function

A) highly cellular and well vascularized

88

The first step in tissue repair involves ________.

A) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue

B) formation of scar tissue

C) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells

D) inflammation

D) inflammation

89

What are the three main components of connective tissue?

A) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers

B) ground substance, fibers, and cells

C) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts

D) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells

B) ground substance, fibers, and cells

90

Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue?

A) Collagen fibers provides high tensile strength.

B) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers.

C) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures.

D) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back.

A) Collagen fibers provides high tensile strength.

91

Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.

A) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells.

B) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers.

C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.

D) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another.

C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.

92

Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue.

A) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix.

B) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic.

C) Its primary function is nutrient storage.

D) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus.

C) Its primary function is nutrient storage.

93

Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue.

A) reticular

B) embryonic

C) dense regular

D) areolar

B) embryonic

94

Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A) steroid-based hormone synthesis

B) breakdown of stored glycogen to form free glucose

C) protein synthesis in conjunction with ribosomes

D) lipid metabolism and cholesterol synthesis

C) protein synthesis in conjunction with ribosomes

95

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the membrane potential?

A) The resting membrane potential occurs due to active transport of ions across the membrane due to the sodium-potassium pump.

B) The resting membrane potential is maintained solely by passive transport processes.

C) In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential

D) The resting membrane potential is determined mainly by the concentration gradients and differential permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ and Na+ ions.

B) The resting membrane potential is maintained solely by passive transport processes.

96

The functions of centrioles include ______.

A) serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis

B) producing ATP

C) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division

D) providing a whiplike beating motion to move substance along cell surfaces

C) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division

97

Cell type not found in areolar connective tissue.

A) chondrocytes

B) macrophages

C) mast cells

D)fibroblasts

A) chondrocytes

98

A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum

B) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum

C) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

D) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum

C) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

99

The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________.

A) cuticle

B) medulla

C) external root sheath

D) cortex

C) external root sheath

100

A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured?

A) granulosum

B) spinosum

C) basale

D) lucidum

C) basale

101

Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?

A) Perfectly round hair shafts result in wavy hair.

B) Air bubbles in the hair shaft cause straight hair.

C) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.

D) Gray hair is the result of hormonal action altering the chemical composition of melanin.

C) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.

102

The function of the root hair plexus is to ________.

A) bind the hair root to the dermis

B) serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed

C) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

D) cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle

C) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

103

Which glands produce ear wax?

A) Ceruminous glands

B) Eccrine Glands

C) Apocrine glands

D) Merocrine glands

A) Ceruminous glands

104

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________.

A) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer

B) maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules

C) maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature

D) provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis

A) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer

105

The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?

A) stratum basale

B) stratum corneum

C) stratum lucidum

D) stratum granulosum

A) stratum basale

106

The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function?

A) macrophages called dendritic cells (Langerhans Cell)

B) tactile cells

C) keratinocytes, because they are so versatile

D) cells found in the stratum spinosum

A) macrophages called dendritic cells (Langerhans Cell)

107

Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?

A) The size and shape of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum, as well as the thick bundles of intermediate filaments.

B) Fat associated with skin prevents water loss.

C) Lamellar granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces.

D) The dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through it.

C) Lamellar granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces.

108

The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis?

A) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells

B) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells

C) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes

D) goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes

B) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells

109

The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?

A) the papillary layer

B) the subcutaneous layer

C) the reticular layer

D) the hypodermal layer

C) the reticular layer

110

Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been previously stretched and/or torn?

A) The stretching causes the tension lines to disappear.

B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.

C) The blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing permanent "black-and-blue marks."

D) There is an episode of acute pain due to the large number of tactile corpuscles.

B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.

111

The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called:

A) ceruminous glands.

B) dermal papillae.

C) hair follicles.

D) reticular papillae.

B) dermal papillae.

112

Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage?

A) The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to activate the immune system.

B) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's color.

C) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.

D) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight.

C) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.

113

Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?

A) It is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin.

B) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.

C) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.

D) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause.

C) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.

114

What are the most important factors influencing hair growth?

A) sex and hormones

B) the size and number of hair follicles

C) nutrition and hormones

D) age and glandular products

C) nutrition and hormones

115

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?

A) sebaceous and merocrine

B) eccrine and apocrine

C) holocrine and mammary

D) mammary and ceruminous

B) eccrine and apocrine

116

The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.

A) primarily uric acid

B) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins

C) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

D) metabolic wastes

C) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

117

Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?

A) in the axillary and anogenital area

B) in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis

C) in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

D) beneath the flexure lines in the body

A) in the axillary and anogenital area

118

In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin?

A) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases.

B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body.

C) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.

D) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy.

C) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.

119

What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?

A) catastrophic fluid loss

B) loss of immune function

C) unbearable pain

D) infection

A) catastrophic fluid loss

120

Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because ________.

A) the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is one-tenth that of the head hair follicle

B) they grow much slower

C) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months

D) hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a predetermined length

C) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months

121

Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?

A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake

B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist

C) by using the "rule of nines"

D) through blood analysis

C) by using the "rule of nines"

122

The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?

A) trabecular bone

B) spongy bone

C) compact bone

D) irregular bone

C) compact bone

123

Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________.

A) elastic tissue

B) Sharpey's fibers

C) fat

D) blood-forming cells

C) fat

124

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.

A) chondrocyte

B) osteocyte

C) osteoclast

D) osteoblast

D) osteoblast

125

What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?

A) elastic connective tissue

B) fibrocartilage

C) dense fibrous connective tissue

D) hyaline cartilage

D) hyaline cartilage

126

What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?

A) increased osteoclast activity

B) inadequate calcification of bone

C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage

D) decreased osteoclast activity

C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage

127

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.

A) articular cartilage

B) diaphysis

C) epiphysis

D) metaphysis

B) diaphysis

128

The term diploƫ refers to the ________.

A) double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone

B) two types of marrow found within most bones

C) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue

D) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones

D) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones

129

Which of the following is a bone marking name that indicates an armlike bar of bone?

A) foramen

B) ramus

C) meatus

D) fossa

E) epicondyle

B) ramus

130

What causes osteoporosis?

A) Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries.

B) abnormal PTH receptors

C) heritage such as African or Mediterranean

D) poor posture

A) Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries.

131

Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?

A) Haversian system

B) epiphyseal line

C) lacunae

D) epiphyseal plate

D) epiphyseal plate

132

Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?

A) parathyroid hormone

B) thyroid hormone

C) calcium

D) growth hormone

D) growth hormone

133

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

A) communication

B) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)

C) support

D) storage of minerals

A) communication

134

What is the structural unit of compact bone?

A) lamellar bone

B) the osteon

C) spongy bone

D) osseous matrix

B) the osteon

135

Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________.

A) marrow and osteons

B) chondrocytes and osteocytes

C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts

D) cartilage and compact bone

C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts

136

The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________.

A) yellow marrow and spicules

B) blood vessels and nerve fibers

C) adipose tissue and nerve fibers

D) cartilage and interstitial lamellae

B) blood vessels and nerve fibers

137

For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary?

A) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue.

B) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model.

C) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate.

D) A medullary cavity forms.

A) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue.

138

The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.

A) appositional growth

B) concentric growth

C) closing of the epiphyseal plate

D) epiphyseal plate closure

A) appositional growth

139

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?

A) stem cell

B) osteoblast

C) osteoclast

D) osteocyte

C) osteoclast

140

Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?

A) thyroxine

B) calcitonin

C) parathyroid hormone

D) estrogen

C) parathyroid hormone

141

Wolff's law is concerned with ________.

A) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it

B) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age

C) the function of bone being dependent on shape

D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts

A) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it

142

Cranial bones develop ________.

A) within fibrous membranes

B) from cartilage models

C) from a tendon

D) within osseous membranes

A) within fibrous membranes

143

Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium levels?

A) spleen

B) pineal gland

C) thyroid

D) parathyroid

C) thyroid

144

Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth?

A) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage

B) along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon larger

C) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage

D) growth at the epiphyseal plate

A) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage

145

Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth?

A) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.

B) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones.

C) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage.

D) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage.

A) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.

146

The structural unit of spongy is called ________.

A) lamellar bone

B) osseous lamellae

C) osteons

D) trabeculae

D) trabeculae

147

Osteogenesis is the process of ________.

A) bone formation

B) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone

C) bone destruction to liberate calcium

D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage

A) bone formation

148

Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is of greatest importance for bone growth during infancy and childhood?

A) thyroid hormone

B) somatomedins

C) prolactin

D) growth hormone

D) growth hormone

149

In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause?

A) elevated levels of sex hormones

B) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity

C) too much vitamin D in the diet

D) overproduction of thyroid hormone

A) elevated levels of sex hormones

150

Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ________.

A) potassium, phosphate, and vitamin D

B) vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride

C) calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D

D) sodium, calcium, and vitamin

C) calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D

151

What tissue forms the model for endochondrial ossification?

A) membranes

B) cartilage

C) bone

D) fascia

B) cartilage

152

The single most important risk for skin cancer is ______.

A) race

B) overexposure to UV radiation

C) genetics

D) use of farm chemicals

B) overexposure to UV radiation

153

A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint.

A) suture

B) gomphosis

C) syndesmosis

D) synchondrosis

B) gomphosis

154

The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________.

A) prevent hyperextension of the knee

B) tend to run parallel to one another

C) are also called collateral ligaments

D) attach to each other in their midportions

A) prevent hyperextension of the knee

155

Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________.

A) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints

B) attach tendons

C) form the synovial membrane

D) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis)

A) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints

156

A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________.

A) gomphosis

B) symphysis

C) suture

D) syndesmosis

B) symphysis

157

On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?

A) symphysis

B) pivot

C) syndesmosis

D) synchondrosis

C) syndesmosis

158

Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________.

A) menisci

B) ligaments

C) tendons

D) bursae

D) bursae

159

Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________.

A) amphiarthroses

B) diarthroses

C) synarthroses

D) synovial joints

A) amphiarthroses

160

Which of the following are cartilaginous joints?

A) Synchondroses

B) Syndesmoses

C) Gomphoses

D) Sutures

A) Synchondroses

161

The gliding motion of the wrist uses ________ joints.

A) condyloid

B) plane

C) hinge

D) pivot

B) plane

162

The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________.

A) patellar ligaments

B) tibial collateral ligaments

C) anterior ligaments

D) cruciate ligaments

D) cruciate ligaments

163

Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________.

A) hyperextension

B) flexion

C) extension

D) circumduction

A) hyperextension

164

In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?

A) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses.

B) All synovial joints are freely movable.

C) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present.

D) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable.

B) All synovial joints are freely movable.

165

Synarthrotic joints ________.

A) have large joint cavities

B) are found only in adults

C) permit essentially no movement

D) are cartilaginous joints

C) permit essentially no movement

166

Fibrous joints are classified as ________.

A) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal

B) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

C) pivot, hinge, and ball and socket

D) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular

B) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

167

In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________.

A) tendon sheaths

B) hyaline cartilage

C) fibrocartilage

D) synovial membranes

B) hyaline cartilage

168

Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following statements is true about this fluid?

A) It contains enzymes only.

B) It contains hyaluronic acid.

C) It contains lactic acid.

D) It contains hydrochloric acid.

B) It contains hyaluronic acid.

169

Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?

A) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

B) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility

C) joints that permit angular movements

D) interphalangeal joints

A) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

170

What are menisci?

A) tendon sheaths

B) semilunar cartilage pads

C) cavities lined with cartilage

D) small sacs containing synovial fluid

B) semilunar cartilage pads

171

Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements?

A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.

B) An example of a gliding movement is nodding one's head.

C) Gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs.

D) Gliding movements are multiaxial.

A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.

172

What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called?

A) inversion

B) adduction

C) abduction

D) dorsiflexion

C) abduction

173

The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________.

A) feet

B) hands and the feet

C) arms

D) hands

A) feet

174

The hip joint is a good example of a(n) ________ synovial joint.

A) uniaxial

B) multiaxial

C) nonaxial

D) biaxial

B) multiaxial

175

Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones?

A) abduction

B) circumduction

C) extension

D) rotation

D) rotation

176

Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________.

A) rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint

B) common in all people who are overweight

C) common due to the weight bearing the hip endures

D) rare because of the ligament reinforcement

D) rare because of the ligament reinforcement

177

Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped?

A) the lateral patellar retinacula

B) the extracapsular ligament

C) the medial patellar retinacula

D) the patellar ligament

D) the patellar ligament

178

Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result?

A) suprapatellar

B) medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate

C) arcuate popliteal and the posterior cruciate

D) oblique popliteal and extracapsular ligament

B) medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate

179

Pointing the toes is an example of ________.

A) pronation

B) protraction

C) plantar flexion

D) circumduction

C) plantar flexion

180

Which of the following is a true statement?

A) The greater tubercle of the humerus articulates at the coracoid process of the scapula.

B) The head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process.

C) The rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at the elbow joint.

D) The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.

D) The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.

181

Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint?

A) symphysis

B) hinge joint

C) suture

D) synchondrosis

B) hinge joint

182

Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________.

A) the oblique popliteal crossing the knee anteriorly

B) cruciate ligaments, which help secure the articulating bones together

C) the patellar ligament extending from femur to patella

D) lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements

D) lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements

183

Which of the following is a correct statement about development of joints?

A) By the end of the fourth week, fetal synovial joints resemble adult joints.

B) Joints develop in parallel with bones.

C) All fibrous joints are in the adult form by the time of birth.

D) Joints develop independent of bone growth.

B) Joints develop in parallel with bones.

184

An example of an interosseous fibrous joint is ________.

A) the radius and ulna along its length

B) the clavicle and the scapula at the distal ends

C) between the vertebrae

D) between the humerus and the glenoid cavity

A) the radius and ulna along its length

185

Which of the following statements best describes angular movements?

A) They allow movement in several planes.

B) They allow movement only in one plane.

C) They occur only between bones with flat articular processes.

D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.

D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.

186

Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify the saddle joint of the skeleton.

A) Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.

B) Interphalangeal joint of the finger.

C) Meatcarpophalangeal joint of the finger.

D) Carpometacarpal joint of the phalanges.

A) Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.

187

Tendon sheaths ________.

A) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue

B) are extensions of periosteum

C) help anchor the tendon to the muscle

D) act as friction-reducing structures

D) act as friction-reducing structures

188

Which of the following is not a part of the synovial joint?

A) articular capsule

B) joint cavity

C) articular cartilage

D) tendon sheath

D) tendon sheath

189

Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces of diarthroses in contact?

A) arrangement and tension of the muscles

B) number of bones in the joint

C) structure and shape of the articulating bone

D) strength and tension of joint ligaments

B) number of bones in the joint

190

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?

A) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.

B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules.

C) Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.

D) Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads.

A) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.

191

Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?

A) smooth

B) skeletal

C) no muscle can regenerate

D) cardiac

A) smooth

192

Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances?

A) ATP only

B) ATP and glucose

C) Ca2+ and ATP

D) Ca2+ only

C) Ca2+ and ATP

193

Myoglobin ________.

A) produces the end plate potential

B) breaks down glycogen

C) stores oxygen in muscle cells

D) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP

C) stores oxygen in muscle cells

194

What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?

A) sarcoplasmic reticulum

B) intermediate filament network

C) mitochondria

D) myofibrillar network

A) sarcoplasmic reticulum

195

What does excess postexercise oxygen consumption represent?

A) the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion

B) amount of oxygen needed for aerobic activity to accomplish the same amount of work

C) the amount of oxygen equal to the oxygen already used

D) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used

D) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used

196

Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors.

A) refractory

B) latent

C) contraction

D) relaxation

B) latent

197

Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.

A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin

B) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

C) forming a chemical compound with actin

D) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments

B) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

198

The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ________.

A) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process

B) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments

C) make and store phosphocreatine

D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration

D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration

199

What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell?

A) the arrangement of myofilaments

B) the T tubules

C) the sarcoplasmic reticulum

D) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma

A) the arrangement of myofilaments

200

During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?

A) actin filaments

B) thick filaments

C) myosin filaments

D) Z discs

A) actin filaments

201

Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?

A) perimysium

B) fascicle

C) endomysium

D) epimysium

C) endomysium

202

Rigor mortis occurs because ________.

A) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions

B) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules

C) the cells are dead

D) sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions

B) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules

203

The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.

A) T tubules

B) myofibrils

C) mitochondria

D) microtubules

B) myofibrils

204

What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?

A) a myofilament

B) the sarcoplasmic reticulum

C) a myofibril

D) a sarcomere

D) a sarcomere

205

What is the functional role of the T tubules?

A) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle

B) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction

C) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction

D) stabilize the G and F actin

C) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction

206

What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?

A) reestablish glycogen stores

B) form hydroxyapatite crystals

C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition

D) increase levels of myoglobin

C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition

207

During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.

A) hydrochloric acid

B) lactic acid

C) a strong base

D) stearic acid

B) lactic acid

208

When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?

A) fatigue period

B) latent period

C) relaxation period

D) refractory period

D) refractory period

209

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.

A) does not change in length but increases tension

B) changes in length and moves the "load"

C) never converts pyruvate to lactate

D) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP

B) changes in length and moves the "load"

210

The muscle cell membrane is called the ________.

A) sarcolemma

B) endomysium

C) perimysium

D) epimysium

A) sarcolemma

211

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?

A) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke

B) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments

C) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments

D) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke

B) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments

212

The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________.

A) ATP energizes the sliding process

B) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism

C) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium

D) the site of calcium regulation differs

D) the site of calcium regulation differs

213

Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction?

A) binds with troponin

B) removes contraction inhibitor

C) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland

D) triggers neurotransmitter secretion

C) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland

214

Which of the following is true about smooth muscle?

A) Smooth muscle has well-developed T tubules at the site of invagination.

B) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.

C) Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle.

D) Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements.

B) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.

215

An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.

A) glycolysis

B) the electron transport chain

C) the citric acid cycle

D) hydrolysis

A) glycolysis

216

Muscle tone is ________.

A) a state of sustained partial contraction

B) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements

C) the feeling of well-being following exercise

D) the condition of athletes after intensive training

A) a state of sustained partial contraction

217

The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.

A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

B) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past

C) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments

D) actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other

A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

218

After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?

A) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved

B) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules

C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh

D) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae

C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh

219

Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A) T tubules may be sliding during isotonic contraction.

B) Myofilaments slide during isometric contractions.

C) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction.

D) The I band lengthens during isotonic contraction.

C) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction.

220

What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?

A) the ability to respond to nervous stimulation

B) the design of the fibers

C) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy

D) the diversity of activity of muscle tissue

C) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy

221

Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?

A) a sprint by an Olympic runner

B) gym climbing

C) playing baseball or basketball

D) a long, relaxing swim

D) a long, relaxing swim

222

) Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.

A) cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin

B) maximum force production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel

C) ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is "trying" to contract

D) no muscle tension could be generated

D) no muscle tension could be generated

223

What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?

A) part adjacent to another muscle cell

B) motor end plate

C) any part of the sarcolemma

D) end of the muscle fiber

B) motor end plate

224

the strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by _____.

A) increasing stimulus above the threshold

B) increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus

C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximum stimulus

D) recruiting small and medium muscle fibers

C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximum stimulus

225

What is the primary function of wave summation?

A) produces smooth, continuous muscle contraction

B) increases muscle tension

C) prevent muscle relaxtion

D) prevent muscle fatigue

A) produces smooth, continuous muscle contraction

226

Which of the following is not a connective tissue sheath that wraps muscle fibers?

A) endomysium

B)perimysium

C)epimysium

D)aponeurosis

D)aponeurosis

227

Which of the following statements is true?

A) cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei

B) smooth muscle cells have T tubules

C) striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei

D) cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart an large blood vessels

C) striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei

228

Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?

A) support and brace neurons

B) anchor neurons to blood vessels

C) provide the defense for the CNS

D) control the chemical environment around neurons

E) guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability

C) provide the defense for the CNS

229

What are ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid called?

A) ependymal cells

B) oligodendrocytes

C) Schwann cells

D) astrocytes

A) ependymal cells

230

What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?

A) origin of the stimulus

B) type of stimulus receptor

C) size of action potentials

D) frequency of action potentials

D) frequency of action potentials

231

Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle?

A) acetylcholine

B) cholinesterase

C) norepinephrine

D) gamma aminobutyric acid

A) acetylcholine

232

The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________.

A) depolarization

B) resting period

C) repolarization

D) absolute refractory period

D) absolute refractory period

233

Which of the following is not characteristic of neurons?

A) They conduct impulses.

B) They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate.

C) They are mitotic.

D) They have extreme longevity.

C) They are mitotic.

234

The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________.

A) dendrite

B) axon

C) Schwann cell

D) neurolemma

B) axon

235

Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials?

A) mechanically gated channel

B) leakage channel

C) voltage-gated channel

D) ligand-gated channel

C) voltage-gated channel

236

An impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the ________.

A) effector

B) receptor

C) cell body

D) synapse

D) synapse

237

What is the role of acetylcholinesterase?

A) destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings

B) act as a transmitting agent

C) stimulate the production of acetylcholine

D) amplify or enhance the effect of ACh

A) destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings

238

Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?

A) innervation of skeletal muscle

B) innervation of glands

C) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract

D) innervation of cardiac muscle

A) innervation of skeletal muscle

239

Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________.

A) nuclei

B) tracts

C) ganglia

D) nerves

C) ganglia

240

The term central nervous system refers to the ________.

A) peripheral and spinal nerves

B) brain and spinal cord

C) spinal cord and spinal nerves

D) brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves

B) brain and spinal cord

241

The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________.

A) cholinesterase

B) ion

C) neurotransmitter

D) biogenic amine

C) neurotransmitter

242

Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.

A) large nerve fibers

B) diphasic impulses

C) erratic transmission of nerve impulses

D) the myelin sheath

D) the myelin sheath

243

Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters?

A) biogenic amine

B) nucleic acid

C) ATP and other purines

D) amino acid

E) acetycholine

B) nucleic acid

244

Which of the following is false or incorrect?

A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold.

B) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane.

C) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.

C) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.

245

Select the correct statement regarding synapses.

A) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.

B) Cells with gap junctions use chemical synapses.

C) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons terminals of cells.

D) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled.

A) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.

246

Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.

A) oligodendrocytes

B) astrocytes

C) microglia

D) ependymal cells

A) oligodendrocytes

247

Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?

A) chloride

B) sodium

C) calcium

D) potassium

D) potassium

248

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________.

A) hyperpolarization

B) opening of voltage-regulated channels

C) lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur

D) a change in sodium ion permeability

A) hyperpolarization

249

Which of the following is not true of graded potentials?

A) They can be called postsynaptic potentials.

B) They can form on receptor endings.

C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.

D) They are short-lived.

C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.

250

A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________.

A) all sodium gates are closed

B) the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell

C) proteins have been resynthesized

D) the membrane potential has been reestablished

D) the membrane potential has been reestablished

251

In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is ________.

A) negatively charged and contains more sodium

B) positively charged and contains more sodium

C) positively charged and contains less sodium

D) negatively charged and contains less sodium

D) negatively charged and contains less sodium

252

The arbor vitae refers to ________.

A) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum

B) cerebellar gray matter

C) flocculonodular nodes

D) cerebellar white matter

D) cerebellar white matter

253

The brain stem consists of the ________.

A) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain

B) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla

C) midbrain only

D) midbrain, medulla, and pons

D) midbrain, medulla, and pons

254

The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.

A) frontal lobe

B) prefrontal lobe

C) temporal lobe

D) parietal lobe

C) temporal lobe

255

What cells line the ventricles of the brain?

A) ependymal cells

B) epithelial cells

C) neurons

D) astrocytes

A) ependymal cells

256

The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.

A) cerebrum

B) midbrain

C) medulla

D) pons

C) medulla

257

Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?

A) longitudinal fissure

B) parieto-occipital fissure

C) lateral fissure

D) central fissure

A) longitudinal fissure

258

A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.

A) furrow

B) sulcus

C) gyrus

D) fissure

B) sulcus

259

Which of the following generalizations does not describe the cerebral cortex?

A) The cerebral cortex contains three kinds of functional areas.

B) No functional area of the cortex works alone.

C) Each hemisphere is chiefly concerned with sensory and motor functions of the contralateral side of the body.

D) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.

D) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.

260

The central sulcus separates which lobes?

A) parietal from occipital

B) temporal from parietal

C) frontal from parietal

D) frontal from temporal

C) frontal from parietal

261

Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex?

A) dendrites

B) cell bodies

C) fiber tracts

D) unmyelinated axons

C) fiber tracts

262

Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.

A) fissures

B) ganglia

C) sulci

D) gyri

D) gyri

263

The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.

A) nutrients such as glucose

B) alcohol

C) anesthetics

D) metabolic waste such as urea

D) metabolic waste such as urea

264

The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________.

A) pyramids

B) thalamus

C) limbic system

D) reticular formation

D) reticular formation

265

Which of the following is not a function of the CSF?

A) protection from blows

B) initiation of some nerve impulses

C) nourishment of the brain

D) reduction of brain weight

B) initiation of some nerve impulses

266

White matter is found in all of the following locations except the ________.

A) cerebral cortex

B) outer portion of the spinal cord

C) corpus callosum

D) corticospinal tracts

A) cerebral cortex

267

Which of the following is not a way that sensory receptors are classified?

A) sensitivity to a stimulus

B) structural complexity

C) location in the body

D) type of stimulus detected

A) sensitivity to a stimulus

268

Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________.

A) mechanoreceptors

B) exteroceptors

C) interoceptors

D) proprioceptors

B) exteroceptors

269

Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________.

A) proprioceptors

B) photoreceptors

C) nociceptors

D) interoceptors

C) nociceptors

270

Which receptors do not adapt?

A) nociceptors

B) smell receptors

C) pressure receptors

D) touch receptors

A) nociceptors

271

Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following?

A) facial

B) trigeminal

C) Vagus

D) olfactory

D) olfactory

272

If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?

A) complete loss of sensation

B) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control

C) a complete loss of sensation and movement

D) a complete loss of voluntary movement

D) a complete loss of voluntary movement

273

The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.

A) parasympathetic innervation

B) vagus nerve activity

C) neurosecretory substances

D) sympathetic stimulation

D) sympathetic stimulation

274

Which of the following does not describe the ANS?

A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands

B) involuntary nervous system

C) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

D) general visceral motor system

C) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

275

reparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.

A) parasympathetic nervous system

B) sympathetic nervous system

C) somatic nervous system

D) cerebrum

B) sympathetic nervous system

276

Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________.

A) XII

B) VII

C) V

D) X

D) X

277

The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.

A) sympathetic division

B) peripheral nervous system

C) somatic division

D) parasympathetic division

D) parasympathetic division

278

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.

A) hypothalamus

B) medulla

C) cerebellum

D) thalamus

A) hypothalamus

279

Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

A) smooth muscle

B) cardiac muscle

C) most glands

D) skeletal muscle

D) skeletal muscle

280

Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation?

A) elimination of urine

B) salivation

C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera

D) dilation of the pupils

D) dilation of the pupils

281

Autonomic ganglia contain ________.

A) the cell bodies of motor neurons

B) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons

C) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons

D) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors

A) the cell bodies of motor neurons

282

Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.

A) visceral arcs do not use integration centers

B) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons

C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

D) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess

C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

283

Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all but which one of the following?

A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

B) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion

C) synapse with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

D) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron

A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

284

Erection of the penis or clitoris ________.

A) depends very little on autonomic activation

B) is primarily under sympathetic control

C) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input

D) is primarily under parasympathetic control

D) is primarily under parasympathetic control

285

Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?

A) regulation of body temperature

B) regulation of respiratory rate

C) regulation of pupil size

D) regulation of cardiac rate

A) regulation of body temperature

286

Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.

A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

B) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

C) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

D) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

D) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

287

What is the main function of the rods in the eye?

A) vision in dim light

B) color vision

C) depth perception

D) accommodation for near vision

A) vision in dim light

288

What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?

A) lens

B) iris

C) cornea

D) aqueous humor

B) iris

289

Receptors for hearing are located in the ________.

A) semicircular canals

B) vestibule

C) cochlea

D) tympanic membrane

C) cochlea

290

Bitter taste is elicited by ________.

A) hydrogen ions

B) metal ions

C) alkaloids

D) acids

C) alkaloids

291

There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves?

A) rod cells

B) cone cells

C) bipolar cells

D) ganglion cells

D) ganglion cells

292

Dark adaptation ________.

A) primarily involves improvement of acuity and color vision

B) involves accumulation of rhodopsin

C) results in inhibition of rod function

D) is much faster than light adaptation

B) involves accumulation of rhodopsin

293

Motion sickness seems to ________.

A) respond best to medication that "boosts" vestibular inputs

B) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs

C) result from activation of nausea centers in the brain stem

D) respond best to medication taken after salivation and pallor begins

B) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs

294

The blind spot of the eye is where ________.

A) only cones occur

B) the optic nerve leaves the eye

C) the macula lutea is located

D) more rods than cones are found

B) the optic nerve leaves the eye

295

Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________.

A) stretching of the receptor cells

B) substances in solution

C) the movement of otoliths

D) movement of a cupula

B) substances in solution

296

Light passes through the following structures in which order?

A) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor

B) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor

C) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea

D) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

D) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

297

Which of the following best describes the cerebrum?

A)decussation center

B) visceral command center

C) motor command center

D) executive suite

D) executive suite

298

Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?

A) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor

B) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor

C) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector

D) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

D) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

299

Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function?

A) senses changes in the environment

B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions

C)responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction

B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions

300

A neuron that has its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) _____

A) efferent neuron

B) afferent neuron

C) association neuron

D) glial cell

C) association neuron

301

Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential?

A) long distance of signaling

B) amplitude of various sizes

C) voltage stimulus to initiate

D) voltage regulated repolarization

B) amplitude of various sizes

302

Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and recapturing neurotransmitters are _____.

A) astrocytes

B) oligodendrocytes

C) microglia

D) Schwann cells

A) astrocytes

303

The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?

A) arachnoid and epidura

B) arachnoid and pia

C) arachnoid and dura

D) dura and epidura

B) arachnoid and pia

304

Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in _____.

A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord

C) the thalamus

D) sympathetic ganglia

A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

305

A reflex arc that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ______.

A) tendon reflex

B) flexor reflex

C) crossed-extensor reflex

D) plantar reflex

A) tendon reflex

306

Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are _____.

A) afferent nerves

B) efferent nerves

C) motor nerves

D) mixed nerves

A) afferent nerves

307

Transduction refers to conversion of _____.

A) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses

B) stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential

C) receptor energy to stimulus energy

D) afferent impulses to efferent impulses

B) stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential

308

The cranial nerves that have neural connections with structures outside of the head, in the thoracic and abdominal cavity include _____.

A) trigeminal

B )facial

C )vagus

D) trochlear

C) vagus