Human Anatomy & Physiology + Modified Masteringa&p With Pearson Etext + a Photographic Atlas for Anatomy & Physiology: FINAL EXAM (anatomy & physiology) Flashcards

The study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as the heart is called ______ anatomy.

A) developmental

B) gross

C) systemic

D) microscopic

Average body temperature is _____ degrees centigrade.

A) 47

B) 98

C) 37

D) 68

What is the main, general purpose of negative feedback?

A) to regulate excretion via the kidneys

B) to maintain homeostasis

C) to control body movement

D) to keep the body's blood sugar level high

The heart lies in the _____ cavity.

A) pleural

B) pericardial

C) dorsal

D) superior mediastinal

A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is a(n) ________.

A) organ B) complex tissue C) organ system D) complex cell

Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind?

A) anterior B) lateral C) dorsal D) distal

The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight, is ________.

A) hydrogen B) oxygen C) water D) protein

Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanisms?

A) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.

B) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms.

C) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host.

D) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.

The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________.

A) thumbs pointed laterally

B) body erect

C) palms turned posteriorly

D) arms at sides

A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________.

A) body temperature regulation

B) enhancement of labor contractions

C) regulating glucose levels in the blood

D) blood calcium level regulation

Which one of the following systems responds fastest to environmental stimuli?

A) nervous

B) muscular

C) immune

D) lymphatic

Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.

A) a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances

B) a static state with no deviation from preset points

C) the lowest possible energy usage

D) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits

Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:

1. molecules
2. atoms
3. tissues
4. cells
5. organs 13) _____

A) 1-2-3-4-5

B) 1-2-4-3-5

C) 2-1-4-3-5

D) 2-1-3-4-5

Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?

A) spinal cord

B) thoracic cavity

C) cranial cavity

D) vertebral cavity

The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following?

A) brain

B) liver

C) lungs

D) intestines

One of the functional characteristics of life is excitability or responsiveness. This refers to ________.

A) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them

B) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce

C) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system

D) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called?

A) frontal

B) transverse

C) regional

D) sagittal

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?

A) transverse

B) sagittal

C) frontal

D) median

The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________.

A) three-dimensional structure of the double helix

B) arrangement of the histones

C) sequence of the nucleotides

D) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules

Which of the following is not true of proteins?

A) They have both functional and structural roles in the body..

B) Their function depends on their three-dimensional shape.

C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information.

D) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of ________.

A) glycogen

B) cholesterol

C) triglycerides

D) glucose

Which of the following does NOT describe enzymes?

A) Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor.

B) Some enzymes are purely protein.

C) Each enzyme is chemically specific.

D) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation.

A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________.

A) a synthesis

B) forming a larger molecule

C) the release of energy

D) the consumption of energy

Salts are always ________.

A) hydrogen bonded

B) double covalent compounds

C) ionic compounds

D) single covalent compounds

The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?

A) 2, 8

B) 2, 8, 8

C) 2

D) 2, 8, 1

Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?

A) NaCl

B) H2O

C) NaOH

D) CH4

What level of protein synthesis is represented by the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix?

A) secondary structure

B) primary structure

C) tertiary structure

D) quaternary structure

Which of the following statements is false?

A) Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions, sometimes while undergoing reversible changes in shape.

B) Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures.

C) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher numbers.

D) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully.

Which of the following does not describe uses for the ATP molecule?

A) mechanical work

B) transport across membranes

C) pigment structure

D) chemical work

Which of the following is an example of a suspension?

A) blood

B) cytoplasm

C) rubbing alcohol

D) salt water

Select the correct statement about isotopes.

A) All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons but differing numbers of electrons.

B) Isotopes occur only in the heavier elements.

C) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses.

D) All the isotopes of an element are radioactive.

The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________.

A) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium

C) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium

D) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen

You notice that you cannot read your book through a test tube of patient fluid held against the print, making it so blurred as to be unreadable. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days in a rack. What type of liquid is this?

A) solution

B) suspension

C) mixture

D) colloid

Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell?

A) 5

B) 10

C) 7

D) 3

If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following?

A) 37 electrons

B) 37 protons and 37 electrons

C) 37 protons and 37 neutrons

D) 74 protons

What does the formula C6H12O6 mean?

A) There are, 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.

B) There are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.

C) The substance is a colloid.

D) The molecular weight is 24.

An atom with a valence of 3 may have a total of ________ electrons.

A) 3

B) 17

C) 13

D) 8

The chemical symbol O=O means ________.

A) zero equals zero

B) the atoms are double bonded

C) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons

D) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit

Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction.

A) exchange

B) synthesis

C) reversible

D) decomposition

Which of the following is not considered a factor in influencing a reaction rate?

A) temperature

B) time

C) concentration

D) particle size

Sucrose is a ________.

A) triglyceride

B) polysaccharide

C) disaccharide

D) monosaccharide

What is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol in neutral fats?

A) 3:1

B) 4:1

C) 1:1

D) 2:1

Which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three-dimensional shape?

A) Carbon

B) Oxygen

C) Hydrogen

D) Amino acid

If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis, then the wall thermostat would be the _____.

A) variable

B) control center

C) receptor

D) effector

In which body cavities are the lung located?

A) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal

B) pleural, ventral, and thoracic

C) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic

C) mediastinal, thoracic, and ventral

Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance?

A) Positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed.

B) Negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally.

C) It is considered the cause of most diseases.

D) The internal environment is becoming more stable.

Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the _____.

A) removal of a water molecule between each two units

B) removal of a carbon atom between each two units

C) addition of a water molecule between each two units

D) addition of a carbon molecule between each two untis

What does CH4 mean?

A) There are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms

B) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms

C) This is an inorganic molecule

D) This was involved in a redox reaction

When two atoms share a pair of electrons the chemical bond formed is called?

A) covalent

B) ionic

C) weak

D) hydrogen

When one atom donates an electron to another atom the chemical bond that forms is called?

A) covalent

B) ionic

C) weak

D) hydrogen

The type of molecule that forms when there is not equal sharing of electrons across the molecule setting up a partial positive and partial negative side is called?

A) neutral

B) polar

C) uneven

D)nonpolar

Histology would be beat defined as a study of _____.

A) tissues

B) cells

C) the gross structures of the body

D)cell chemistry

Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells?

A)sodium

B) magnesium

C) potassium

D) hydrogen

Which vesicular transport process occurs primarily in some white blood cells and macrophages?

A) phagocytosis

B) intracellular vesicular trafficking

C) exocytosis

D) pinocytosis

A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.

A) neither shrink nor swell

B) swell and burst

C) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached

D) shrink

Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?

A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell

B) a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

C) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae

D) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma

Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?

A) microvilli

B) flagella

C) primary cilia

D) stereocilia

Which of the following statements is correct regarding net diffusion?

A) The rate is independent of temperature.

B) The lower the temperature, the faster the rate.

C) Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate.

D) The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate.

Which type of cell junction acts as anchors and distributes tension through a cellular sheet and reduces the chance of tearing when it is subjected to great mechanical stress?

A) tight junctions

B) desmosomes

C) connexons

D) gap junctions

If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen?

A) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent.

B) The cells will swell and ultimately burst.

C) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition.

D) The cells will lose water and shrink.

Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?

A) The phagocytized material is stored until further breakdown can occur..

B) The vacuole remains separated from the cytoplasm and the solid material persists unchanged.

C) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.

D) A ribosome enters the vacuole and uses the amino acids in the "invader" to form new protein.

Which of the following would not be a constituent of a plasma membrane?

A) glycoproteins

B) phospholipids

C) glycolipids

D) messenger RNA

The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of pinwheel array of 9 triplets of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is a ________.

A) chromosome

B) centriole

C) ribosome

D) centrosome

Passive membrane transport processes include ________.

A) movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low concentration

B) consumption of ATP

C) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient

D) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration

Mitochondria ________.

A) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell

B) are always the same shape

C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function

D) are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP

Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi apparatus functionally act in sequence to synthesize and modify proteins for secretory use (export) only, never for use by the cell. This statement is ________.

A) false; integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this way

B) false; lipids, not proteins, are synthesized this way

C) true

D) false; proteins thus manufactured are for use inside the cell only

Peroxisomes ________.

A) function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis

B) sometimes function as secretory vesicles

C) are also called microbodies, and contain acid hydrolases

D) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action

Which of the following is NOT a function of lysosomes?

A) breaking down bone to release calcium ions into the blood

B) forming acid hydrolases which are necessary to help form cell membranes

C) digesting particles taken in by endocytosis

D) degrading worn-out or nonfunctional organelles

The main component of the cytosol is ________.

A) proteins

B) salts

C) water

D) sugars

A gene can best be defined as ________.

A) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain

B) an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide

C) a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid

D) noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long

Which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is found in bone?

A) living cells

B) blood vessels

C) organic fibers

D) lacunae

What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels?

A) cartilage tissue

B) fibrocartilaginous tissue

C) areolar tissue

D) osseous tissue

The simple columnar epithelium that form absorptive cells of the digestive tract have which characteristic?

A) a rich vascular supply

B) cilia

C) dense microvilli

D) fibroblasts

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium ciliated variety ________.

A) aids in digestion

B) lines most of the respiratory tract

C) is not an epithelial classification

D) possesses no goblet cells

Which of the following is a single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes?

A) simple squamous

B) simple cuboidal

C) simple columnar

D) pseudostratified columnar

Which statement best describes connective tissue?

A) typically arranged in a single layer of cells B) usually lines a body cavity

C) usually contains a large amount of matrix D) primarily concerned with secretion

Connective tissue matrix is composed of ________.

A) fibers and ground substance

B) cells and fibers

C) ground substance and cells

D) all organic compounds

The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________.

A) collagen

B) reticular

C) muscle

D) elastic

Groups of cells that are similar in structure and perform a common or related function form a(n) ________.

A) organ

B) organism

C) tissue

D) organ system

The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.

A) elastic cartilage

B) hyaline cartilage

C) adipose tissue

D) fibrocartilage

Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue?

A) simple columnar

B) stratified squamous

C) transitional

D) simple squamous

Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________.

A) endocrine

B) sebaceous

C) exocrine

D) ceruminous

Chondroblasts ________.

A) remain in compact bone even after the epiphyseal plate closes

B) never lose their ability to divide

C) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae

D) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix

________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.

A) Stratified columnar

B) Pseudostratified columnar

C) Transitional

D) Stratified cuboidal

A many-layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________.

A) stratified squamous

B) simple cuboidal

C) simple squamous

D) transitional

Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?

A) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves.

B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion.

C) These glands are ductless.

D) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process

Which is true concerning muscle tissue?

A) highly cellular and well vascularized

B) contains contractile units made of collagen

C) is a single-celled tissue

D) cuboidal shape enhances function

The first step in tissue repair involves ________.

A) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue

B) formation of scar tissue

C) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells

D) inflammation

What are the three main components of connective tissue?

A) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers

B) ground substance, fibers, and cells

C) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts

D) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells

Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue?

A) Collagen fibers provides high tensile strength.

B) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers.

C) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures.

D) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back.

Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.

A) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells.

B) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers.

C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.

D) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another.

Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue.

A) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix.

B) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic.

C) Its primary function is nutrient storage.

D) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus.

Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue.

A) reticular

B) embryonic

C) dense regular

D) areolar

Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A) steroid-based hormone synthesis

B) breakdown of stored glycogen to form free glucose

C) protein synthesis in conjunction with ribosomes

D) lipid metabolism and cholesterol synthesis

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the membrane potential?

A) The resting membrane potential occurs due to active transport of ions across the membrane due to the sodium-potassium pump.

B) The resting membrane potential is maintained solely by passive transport processes.

C) In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential

D) The resting membrane potential is determined mainly by the concentration gradients and differential permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ and Na+ ions.

The functions of centrioles include ______.

A) serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis

B) producing ATP

C) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division

D) providing a whiplike beating motion to move substance along cell surfaces

Cell type not found in areolar connective tissue.

A) chondrocytes

B) macrophages

C) mast cells

D)fibroblasts

A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum

B) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum

C) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

D) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum

The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________.

A) cuticle

B) medulla

C) external root sheath

D) cortex

A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured?

A) granulosum

B) spinosum

C) basale

D) lucidum

Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?

A) Perfectly round hair shafts result in wavy hair.

B) Air bubbles in the hair shaft cause straight hair.

C) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.

D) Gray hair is the result of hormonal action altering the chemical composition of melanin.

The function of the root hair plexus is to ________.

A) bind the hair root to the dermis

B) serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed

C) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

D) cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle

Which glands produce ear wax?

A) Ceruminous glands

B) Eccrine Glands

C) Apocrine glands

D) Merocrine glands

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________.

A) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer

B) maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules

C) maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature

D) provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis

The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?

A) stratum basale

B) stratum corneum

C) stratum lucidum

D) stratum granulosum

The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function?

A) macrophages called dendritic cells (Langerhans Cell)

B) tactile cells

C) keratinocytes, because they are so versatile

D) cells found in the stratum spinosum

Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?

A) The size and shape of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum, as well as the thick bundles of intermediate filaments.

B) Fat associated with skin prevents water loss.

C) Lamellar granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces.

D) The dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through it.

The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis?

A) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells

B) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells

C) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes

D) goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes

The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?

A) the papillary layer

B) the subcutaneous layer

C) the reticular layer

D) the hypodermal layer

Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been previously stretched and/or torn?

A) The stretching causes the tension lines to disappear.

B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.

C) The blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing permanent "black-and-blue marks."

D) There is an episode of acute pain due to the large number of tactile corpuscles.

The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called:

A) ceruminous glands.

B) dermal papillae.

C) hair follicles.

D) reticular papillae.

Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage?

A) The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to activate the immune system.

B) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's color.

C) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.

D) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight.

Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?

A) It is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin.

B) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.

C) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.

D) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause.

What are the most important factors influencing hair growth?

A) sex and hormones

B) the size and number of hair follicles

C) nutrition and hormones

D) age and glandular products

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?

A) sebaceous and merocrine

B) eccrine and apocrine

C) holocrine and mammary

D) mammary and ceruminous

The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.

A) primarily uric acid

B) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins

C) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

D) metabolic wastes

Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?

A) in the axillary and anogenital area

B) in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis

C) in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

D) beneath the flexure lines in the body

In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin?

A) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases.

B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body.

C) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.

D) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy.

What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?

A) catastrophic fluid loss

B) loss of immune function

C) unbearable pain

D) infection

Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because ________.

A) the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is one-tenth that of the head hair follicle

B) they grow much slower

C) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months

D) hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a predetermined length

Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?

A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake

B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist

C) by using the "rule of nines"

D) through blood analysis

The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?

A) trabecular bone

B) spongy bone

C) compact bone

D) irregular bone

Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________.

A) elastic tissue

B) Sharpey's fibers

C) fat

D) blood-forming cells

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.

A) chondrocyte

B) osteocyte

C) osteoclast

D) osteoblast

What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?

A) elastic connective tissue

B) fibrocartilage

C) dense fibrous connective tissue

D) hyaline cartilage

What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?

A) increased osteoclast activity

B) inadequate calcification of bone

C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage

D) decreased osteoclast activity

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.

A) articular cartilage

B) diaphysis

C) epiphysis

D) metaphysis

The term diploë refers to the ________.

A) double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone

B) two types of marrow found within most bones

C) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue

D) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones

Which of the following is a bone marking name that indicates an armlike bar of bone?

A) foramen

B) ramus

C) meatus

D) fossa

E) epicondyle

What causes osteoporosis?

A) Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries.

B) abnormal PTH receptors

C) heritage such as African or Mediterranean

D) poor posture

Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?

A) Haversian system

B) epiphyseal line

C) lacunae

D) epiphyseal plate

Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?

A) parathyroid hormone

B) thyroid hormone

C) calcium

D) growth hormone

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

A) communication

B) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)

C) support

D) storage of minerals

What is the structural unit of compact bone?

A) lamellar bone

B) the osteon

C) spongy bone

D) osseous matrix

Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________.

A) marrow and osteons

B) chondrocytes and osteocytes

C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts

D) cartilage and compact bone

The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________.

A) yellow marrow and spicules

B) blood vessels and nerve fibers

C) adipose tissue and nerve fibers

D) cartilage and interstitial lamellae

For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary?

A) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue.

B) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model.

C) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate.

D) A medullary cavity forms.

The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.

A) appositional growth

B) concentric growth

C) closing of the epiphyseal plate

D) epiphyseal plate closure

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?

A) stem cell

B) osteoblast

C) osteoclast

D) osteocyte

Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?

A) thyroxine

B) calcitonin

C) parathyroid hormone

D) estrogen

Wolff's law is concerned with ________.

A) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it

B) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age

C) the function of bone being dependent on shape

D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts

Cranial bones develop ________.

A) within fibrous membranes

B) from cartilage models

C) from a tendon

D) within osseous membranes

Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium levels?

A) spleen

B) pineal gland

C) thyroid

D) parathyroid

Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth?

A) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage

B) along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon larger

C) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage

D) growth at the epiphyseal plate

Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth?

A) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.

B) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones.

C) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage.

D) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage.

The structural unit of spongy is called ________.

A) lamellar bone

B) osseous lamellae

C) osteons

D) trabeculae

Osteogenesis is the process of ________.

A) bone formation

B) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone

C) bone destruction to liberate calcium

D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage

Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is of greatest importance for bone growth during infancy and childhood?

A) thyroid hormone

B) somatomedins

C) prolactin

D) growth hormone

In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause?

A) elevated levels of sex hormones

B) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity

C) too much vitamin D in the diet

D) overproduction of thyroid hormone

Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ________.

A) potassium, phosphate, and vitamin D

B) vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride

C) calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D

D) sodium, calcium, and vitamin

What tissue forms the model for endochondrial ossification?

A) membranes

B) cartilage

C) bone

D) fascia

The single most important risk for skin cancer is ______.

A) race

B) overexposure to UV radiation

C) genetics

D) use of farm chemicals

A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint.

A) suture

B) gomphosis

C) syndesmosis

D) synchondrosis

The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________.

A) prevent hyperextension of the knee

B) tend to run parallel to one another

C) are also called collateral ligaments

D) attach to each other in their midportions

Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________.

A) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints

B) attach tendons

C) form the synovial membrane

D) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis)

A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________.

A) gomphosis

B) symphysis

C) suture

D) syndesmosis

On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?

A) symphysis

B) pivot

C) syndesmosis

D) synchondrosis

Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________.

A) menisci

B) ligaments

C) tendons

D) bursae

Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________.

A) amphiarthroses

B) diarthroses

C) synarthroses

D) synovial joints

Which of the following are cartilaginous joints?

A) Synchondroses

B) Syndesmoses

C) Gomphoses

D) Sutures

The gliding motion of the wrist uses ________ joints.

A) condyloid

B) plane

C) hinge

D) pivot

The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________.

A) patellar ligaments

B) tibial collateral ligaments

C) anterior ligaments

D) cruciate ligaments

Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________.

A) hyperextension

B) flexion

C) extension

D) circumduction

In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?

A) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses.

B) All synovial joints are freely movable.

C) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present.

D) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable.

Synarthrotic joints ________.

A) have large joint cavities

B) are found only in adults

C) permit essentially no movement

D) are cartilaginous joints

Fibrous joints are classified as ________.

A) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal

B) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

C) pivot, hinge, and ball and socket

D) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular

In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________.

A) tendon sheaths

B) hyaline cartilage

C) fibrocartilage

D) synovial membranes

Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following statements is true about this fluid?

A) It contains enzymes only.

B) It contains hyaluronic acid.

C) It contains lactic acid.

D) It contains hydrochloric acid.

Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?

A) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

B) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility

C) joints that permit angular movements

D) interphalangeal joints

What are menisci?

A) tendon sheaths

B) semilunar cartilage pads

C) cavities lined with cartilage

D) small sacs containing synovial fluid

Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements?

A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.

B) An example of a gliding movement is nodding one's head.

C) Gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs.

D) Gliding movements are multiaxial.

What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called?

A) inversion

B) adduction

C) abduction

D) dorsiflexion

The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________.

A) feet

B) hands and the feet

C) arms

D) hands

The hip joint is a good example of a(n) ________ synovial joint.

A) uniaxial

B) multiaxial

C) nonaxial

D) biaxial

Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones?

A) abduction

B) circumduction

C) extension

D) rotation

Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________.

A) rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint

B) common in all people who are overweight

C) common due to the weight bearing the hip endures

D) rare because of the ligament reinforcement

Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped?

A) the lateral patellar retinacula

B) the extracapsular ligament

C) the medial patellar retinacula

D) the patellar ligament

Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result?

A) suprapatellar

B) medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate

C) arcuate popliteal and the posterior cruciate

D) oblique popliteal and extracapsular ligament

Pointing the toes is an example of ________.

A) pronation

B) protraction

C) plantar flexion

D) circumduction

Which of the following is a true statement?

A) The greater tubercle of the humerus articulates at the coracoid process of the scapula.

B) The head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process.

C) The rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at the elbow joint.

D) The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.

Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint?

A) symphysis

B) hinge joint

C) suture

D) synchondrosis

Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________.

A) the oblique popliteal crossing the knee anteriorly

B) cruciate ligaments, which help secure the articulating bones together

C) the patellar ligament extending from femur to patella

D) lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements

Which of the following is a correct statement about development of joints?

A) By the end of the fourth week, fetal synovial joints resemble adult joints.

B) Joints develop in parallel with bones.

C) All fibrous joints are in the adult form by the time of birth.

D) Joints develop independent of bone growth.

An example of an interosseous fibrous joint is ________.

A) the radius and ulna along its length

B) the clavicle and the scapula at the distal ends

C) between the vertebrae

D) between the humerus and the glenoid cavity

Which of the following statements best describes angular movements?

A) They allow movement in several planes.

B) They allow movement only in one plane.

C) They occur only between bones with flat articular processes.

D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.

Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify the saddle joint of the skeleton.

A) Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.

B) Interphalangeal joint of the finger.

C) Meatcarpophalangeal joint of the finger.

D) Carpometacarpal joint of the phalanges.

Tendon sheaths ________.

A) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue

B) are extensions of periosteum

C) help anchor the tendon to the muscle

D) act as friction-reducing structures

Which of the following is not a part of the synovial joint?

A) articular capsule

B) joint cavity

C) articular cartilage

D) tendon sheath

Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces of diarthroses in contact?

A) arrangement and tension of the muscles

B) number of bones in the joint

C) structure and shape of the articulating bone

D) strength and tension of joint ligaments

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?

A) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.

B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules.

C) Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.

D) Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads.

Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?

A) smooth

B) skeletal

C) no muscle can regenerate

D) cardiac

Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances?

A) ATP only

B) ATP and glucose

C) Ca2+ and ATP

D) Ca2+ only

Myoglobin ________.

A) produces the end plate potential

B) breaks down glycogen

C) stores oxygen in muscle cells

D) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP

What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?

A) sarcoplasmic reticulum

B) intermediate filament network

C) mitochondria

D) myofibrillar network

What does excess postexercise oxygen consumption represent?

A) the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion

B) amount of oxygen needed for aerobic activity to accomplish the same amount of work

C) the amount of oxygen equal to the oxygen already used

D) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used

Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors.

A) refractory

B) latent

C) contraction

D) relaxation

Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.

A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin

B) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

C) forming a chemical compound with actin

D) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments

The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ________.

A) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process

B) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments

C) make and store phosphocreatine

D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration

What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell?

A) the arrangement of myofilaments

B) the T tubules

C) the sarcoplasmic reticulum

D) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma

During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?

A) actin filaments

B) thick filaments

C) myosin filaments

D) Z discs

Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?

A) perimysium

B) fascicle

C) endomysium

D) epimysium

Rigor mortis occurs because ________.

A) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions

B) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules

C) the cells are dead

D) sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions

The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.

A) T tubules

B) myofibrils

C) mitochondria

D) microtubules

What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?

A) a myofilament

B) the sarcoplasmic reticulum

C) a myofibril

D) a sarcomere

What is the functional role of the T tubules?

A) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle

B) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction

C) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction

D) stabilize the G and F actin

What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?

A) reestablish glycogen stores

B) form hydroxyapatite crystals

C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition

D) increase levels of myoglobin

During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.

A) hydrochloric acid

B) lactic acid

C) a strong base

D) stearic acid

When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?

A) fatigue period

B) latent period

C) relaxation period

D) refractory period

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.

A) does not change in length but increases tension

B) changes in length and moves the "load"

C) never converts pyruvate to lactate

D) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP

The muscle cell membrane is called the ________.

A) sarcolemma

B) endomysium

C) perimysium

D) epimysium

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?

A) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke

B) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments

C) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments

D) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke

The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________.

A) ATP energizes the sliding process

B) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism

C) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium

D) the site of calcium regulation differs

Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction?

A) binds with troponin

B) removes contraction inhibitor

C) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland

D) triggers neurotransmitter secretion

Which of the following is true about smooth muscle?

A) Smooth muscle has well-developed T tubules at the site of invagination.

B) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.

C) Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle.

D) Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements.

An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.

A) glycolysis

B) the electron transport chain

C) the citric acid cycle

D) hydrolysis

Muscle tone is ________.

A) a state of sustained partial contraction

B) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements

C) the feeling of well-being following exercise

D) the condition of athletes after intensive training

The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.

A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

B) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past

C) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments

D) actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other

After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?

A) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved

B) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules

C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh

D) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae

Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A) T tubules may be sliding during isotonic contraction.

B) Myofilaments slide during isometric contractions.

C) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction.

D) The I band lengthens during isotonic contraction.

What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?

A) the ability to respond to nervous stimulation

B) the design of the fibers

C) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy

D) the diversity of activity of muscle tissue

Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?

A) a sprint by an Olympic runner

B) gym climbing

C) playing baseball or basketball

D) a long, relaxing swim

) Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.

A) cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin

B) maximum force production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel

C) ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is "trying" to contract

D) no muscle tension could be generated

What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?

A) part adjacent to another muscle cell

B) motor end plate

C) any part of the sarcolemma

D) end of the muscle fiber

the strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by _____.

A) increasing stimulus above the threshold

B) increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus

C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximum stimulus

D) recruiting small and medium muscle fibers

What is the primary function of wave summation?

A) produces smooth, continuous muscle contraction

B) increases muscle tension

C) prevent muscle relaxtion

D) prevent muscle fatigue

Which of the following is not a connective tissue sheath that wraps muscle fibers?

A) endomysium

B)perimysium

C)epimysium

D)aponeurosis

Which of the following statements is true?

A) cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei

B) smooth muscle cells have T tubules

C) striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei

D) cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart an large blood vessels

Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?

A) support and brace neurons

B) anchor neurons to blood vessels

C) provide the defense for the CNS

D) control the chemical environment around neurons

E) guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability

What are ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid called?

A) ependymal cells

B) oligodendrocytes

C) Schwann cells

D) astrocytes

What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?

A) origin of the stimulus

B) type of stimulus receptor

C) size of action potentials

D) frequency of action potentials

Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle?

A) acetylcholine

B) cholinesterase

C) norepinephrine

D) gamma aminobutyric acid

The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________.

A) depolarization

B) resting period

C) repolarization

D) absolute refractory period

Which of the following is not characteristic of neurons?

A) They conduct impulses.

B) They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate.

C) They are mitotic.

D) They have extreme longevity.

The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________.

A) dendrite

B) axon

C) Schwann cell

D) neurolemma

Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials?

A) mechanically gated channel

B) leakage channel

C) voltage-gated channel

D) ligand-gated channel

An impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the ________.

A) effector

B) receptor

C) cell body

D) synapse

What is the role of acetylcholinesterase?

A) destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings

B) act as a transmitting agent

C) stimulate the production of acetylcholine

D) amplify or enhance the effect of ACh

Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?

A) innervation of skeletal muscle

B) innervation of glands

C) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract

D) innervation of cardiac muscle

Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________.

A) nuclei

B) tracts

C) ganglia

D) nerves

The term central nervous system refers to the ________.

A) peripheral and spinal nerves

B) brain and spinal cord

C) spinal cord and spinal nerves

D) brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves

The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________.

A) cholinesterase

B) ion

C) neurotransmitter

D) biogenic amine

Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.

A) large nerve fibers

B) diphasic impulses

C) erratic transmission of nerve impulses

D) the myelin sheath

Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters?

A) biogenic amine

B) nucleic acid

C) ATP and other purines

D) amino acid

E) acetycholine

Which of the following is false or incorrect?

A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold.

B) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane.

C) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.

Select the correct statement regarding synapses.

A) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.

B) Cells with gap junctions use chemical synapses.

C) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons terminals of cells.

D) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled.

Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.

A) oligodendrocytes

B) astrocytes

C) microglia

D) ependymal cells

Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?

A) chloride

B) sodium

C) calcium

D) potassium

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________.

A) hyperpolarization

B) opening of voltage-regulated channels

C) lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur

D) a change in sodium ion permeability

Which of the following is not true of graded potentials?

A) They can be called postsynaptic potentials.

B) They can form on receptor endings.

C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.

D) They are short-lived.

A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________.

A) all sodium gates are closed

B) the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell

C) proteins have been resynthesized

D) the membrane potential has been reestablished

In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is ________.

A) negatively charged and contains more sodium

B) positively charged and contains more sodium

C) positively charged and contains less sodium

D) negatively charged and contains less sodium

The arbor vitae refers to ________.

A) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum

B) cerebellar gray matter

C) flocculonodular nodes

D) cerebellar white matter

The brain stem consists of the ________.

A) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain

B) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla

C) midbrain only

D) midbrain, medulla, and pons

The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.

A) frontal lobe

B) prefrontal lobe

C) temporal lobe

D) parietal lobe

What cells line the ventricles of the brain?

A) ependymal cells

B) epithelial cells

C) neurons

D) astrocytes

The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.

A) cerebrum

B) midbrain

C) medulla

D) pons

Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?

A) longitudinal fissure

B) parieto-occipital fissure

C) lateral fissure

D) central fissure

A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.

A) furrow

B) sulcus

C) gyrus

D) fissure

Which of the following generalizations does not describe the cerebral cortex?

A) The cerebral cortex contains three kinds of functional areas.

B) No functional area of the cortex works alone.

C) Each hemisphere is chiefly concerned with sensory and motor functions of the contralateral side of the body.

D) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.

The central sulcus separates which lobes?

A) parietal from occipital

B) temporal from parietal

C) frontal from parietal

D) frontal from temporal

Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex?

A) dendrites

B) cell bodies

C) fiber tracts

D) unmyelinated axons

Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.

A) fissures

B) ganglia

C) sulci

D) gyri

The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.

A) nutrients such as glucose

B) alcohol

C) anesthetics

D) metabolic waste such as urea

The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________.

A) pyramids

B) thalamus

C) limbic system

D) reticular formation

Which of the following is not a function of the CSF?

A) protection from blows

B) initiation of some nerve impulses

C) nourishment of the brain

D) reduction of brain weight

White matter is found in all of the following locations except the ________.

A) cerebral cortex

B) outer portion of the spinal cord

C) corpus callosum

D) corticospinal tracts

Which of the following is not a way that sensory receptors are classified?

A) sensitivity to a stimulus

B) structural complexity

C) location in the body

D) type of stimulus detected

Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________.

A) mechanoreceptors

B) exteroceptors

C) interoceptors

D) proprioceptors

Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________.

A) proprioceptors

B) photoreceptors

C) nociceptors

D) interoceptors

Which receptors do not adapt?

A) nociceptors

B) smell receptors

C) pressure receptors

D) touch receptors

Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following?

A) facial

B) trigeminal

C) Vagus

D) olfactory

If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?

A) complete loss of sensation

B) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control

C) a complete loss of sensation and movement

D) a complete loss of voluntary movement

The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.

A) parasympathetic innervation

B) vagus nerve activity

C) neurosecretory substances

D) sympathetic stimulation

Which of the following does not describe the ANS?

A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands

B) involuntary nervous system

C) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

D) general visceral motor system

reparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.

A) parasympathetic nervous system

B) sympathetic nervous system

C) somatic nervous system

D) cerebrum

Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________.

A) XII

B) VII

C) V

D) X

The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.

A) sympathetic division

B) peripheral nervous system

C) somatic division

D) parasympathetic division

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.

A) hypothalamus

B) medulla

C) cerebellum

D) thalamus

Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

A) smooth muscle

B) cardiac muscle

C) most glands

D) skeletal muscle

Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation?

A) elimination of urine

B) salivation

C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera

D) dilation of the pupils

Autonomic ganglia contain ________.

A) the cell bodies of motor neurons

B) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons

C) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons

D) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors

Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.

A) visceral arcs do not use integration centers

B) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons

C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

D) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess

Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all but which one of the following?

A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

B) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion

C) synapse with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

D) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron

Erection of the penis or clitoris ________.

A) depends very little on autonomic activation

B) is primarily under sympathetic control

C) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input

D) is primarily under parasympathetic control

Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?

A) regulation of body temperature

B) regulation of respiratory rate

C) regulation of pupil size

D) regulation of cardiac rate

Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.

A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

B) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

C) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

D) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

What is the main function of the rods in the eye?

A) vision in dim light

B) color vision

C) depth perception

D) accommodation for near vision

What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?

A) lens

B) iris

C) cornea

D) aqueous humor

Receptors for hearing are located in the ________.

A) semicircular canals

B) vestibule

C) cochlea

D) tympanic membrane

Bitter taste is elicited by ________.

A) hydrogen ions

B) metal ions

C) alkaloids

D) acids

There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves?

A) rod cells

B) cone cells

C) bipolar cells

D) ganglion cells

Dark adaptation ________.

A) primarily involves improvement of acuity and color vision

B) involves accumulation of rhodopsin

C) results in inhibition of rod function

D) is much faster than light adaptation

Motion sickness seems to ________.

A) respond best to medication that "boosts" vestibular inputs

B) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs

C) result from activation of nausea centers in the brain stem

D) respond best to medication taken after salivation and pallor begins

The blind spot of the eye is where ________.

A) only cones occur

B) the optic nerve leaves the eye

C) the macula lutea is located

D) more rods than cones are found

Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________.

A) stretching of the receptor cells

B) substances in solution

C) the movement of otoliths

D) movement of a cupula

Light passes through the following structures in which order?

A) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor

B) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor

C) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea

D) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

Which of the following best describes the cerebrum?

A)decussation center

B) visceral command center

C) motor command center

D) executive suite

Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?

A) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor

B) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor

C) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector

D) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function?

A) senses changes in the environment

B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions

C)responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction

A neuron that has its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) _____

A) efferent neuron

B) afferent neuron

C) association neuron

D) glial cell

Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential?

A) long distance of signaling

B) amplitude of various sizes

C) voltage stimulus to initiate

D) voltage regulated repolarization

Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and recapturing neurotransmitters are _____.

A) astrocytes

B) oligodendrocytes

C) microglia

D) Schwann cells

The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?

A) arachnoid and epidura

B) arachnoid and pia

C) arachnoid and dura

D) dura and epidura

Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in _____.

A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord

C) the thalamus

D) sympathetic ganglia

A reflex arc that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ______.

A) tendon reflex

B) flexor reflex

C) crossed-extensor reflex

D) plantar reflex

Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are _____.

A) afferent nerves

B) efferent nerves

C) motor nerves

D) mixed nerves

Transduction refers to conversion of _____.

A) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses

B) stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential

C) receptor energy to stimulus energy

D) afferent impulses to efferent impulses

The cranial nerves that have neural connections with structures outside of the head, in the thoracic and abdominal cavity include _____.

A) trigeminal

B )facial

C )vagus

D) trochlear