Both the eye and the respiratory tract are protected against
infections by which of the
following?
A) the mucous
membranes that cover their surface
B) the secretion of complement
proteins
C) the release of slightly acidic secretions
D) the
secretion of lysozyme onto their surface
E) interferons produced
by immune cells
D
How do people contract salmonella poisoning?
A) The microbe can
survive the acidic environment of the stomach and resist
lysosomal
degradation in macrophages.
B) The chemotactic
messengers released by the salmonella bacterium do not
attract
sufficient neutrophils to entirely destroy the
infection.
C) There is a delay in selection of the population of
eosinophils that recognize and are
responsible for fighting these
bacterial infections.
D) The bacterium releases chemical
messengers that make it resistant to phagocytosis.
E) The
combination of foods eaten at the meal reduces the pH of the stomach
sufficiently
so that the bacterium was not destroyed.
A
Which statement about the complement system is true?
A) These
proteins are involved in innate immunity and not acquired
immunity.
B) These proteins are secreted by cytotoxic T cells and
other CD8 cells.
C) This group of proteins includes interferons
and interleukins.
D) These proteins are one group of
antimicrobial proteins acting together in
cascade
fashion.
E) These proteins act individually to
attack and lyse microbes.
D
) Which action below is affected by an antihistamine?
A) blood
vessel dilation
B) phagocytosis of antigens
C) MHC
presentation by macrophages
D) the secondary immune
response
E) clonal selection by antigens
A
Which cells and which signaling molecules are responsible for
initiating an inflammatory
response?
A) phagocytes:
lysozymes
B) phagocytes: chemokines
C) dendritic cells:
interferons
D) mast cells: histamines
E) lymphocytes: interferons
D
) Inflammatory responses may include which of the following?
A)
clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection
B)
increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area
C) reduced
permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma
D) release of
substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area
E)
inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow
B
A bacterium entering the body through a small cut in the skin will do
which of the
following?
A) inactivate the
erythrocytes
B) stimulate apoptosis of nearby body cells
C)
stimulate release of interferons
D) stimulate natural killer cell
activity
E) activate a group of proteins called complement
E
An invertebrate, such as an insect, has innate immunity that can be
nonspecific about which
pathogens are prevented from harming its
metabolism. Which of the following is most
likely to function
this way in the insectʹs intestine?
A) complement
B)
lysozyme
C) mucus
D) neutrophils
E) dendritic cells
B
In some insects, such as Drosophila, fungal cell wall elements can
activate the protein Toll.
What is Tollʹs function?
A) acts
as a receptor that, when activated, signals synthesis of antimicrobial
peptides
B) functions directly to attack the fungi presented to
it
C) produces antimicrobial peptides by interaction with
chitin
D) secretes special recognition signal molecules that
identifies specific pathogens
E) causes some hemocytes to
phagocytize the pathogens
A
Mammals have Toll-like receptors (TLRs) that act in a manner similar
to those of insects.
While not specific to a particular pathogen,
a TLR can recognize a kind of macromolecule
that is absent from
vertebrates but present in/on certain groups of pathogens. Which of
the
following is most likely to be recognized by a particular TLR
that defends against some
viruses?
A)
lipopolysaccharides
B) double-stranded DNA
C)
double-stranded RNA
D) glycoproteins
E) phospholipids
C
Cave art by early humans recognized the existence of the major signs of inflammation.
Which of the following are symptoms of inflammation that might
appear in such art?
A) heat, pain, and redness
B) pain and
whitening of the surrounding tissue
C) swelling and pain
D)
antibody producing cells
E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain
E
Cave art by early humans recognized the existence of the major signs of inflammation.
Which of the following is the most likely reason that ancient
peoples sought to identify
inflammation?
A) Seeing such
signs would be cause for their seeking out a healer in their
community.
B) Presence of the signs of inflammation in a patient
could be a condemnation of the
healer.
C) The ancients
probably knew of plant derivatives that could reduce the pain
of
inflammation.
D) If these signs were present, they would
know that healing was taking place; otherwise
the patient would
likely die.
E) The signs of inflammation served as a caution to
keep people away from the patient.
D
Cave art by early humans recognized the existence of the major signs of inflammation.
) Histamines trigger dilation of nearby blood vessels, and increase
in their permeability.
Which of the signs of inflammation are
therefore associated with histamine release?
A) redness and heat
only
B) swelling only
C) pain
D) redness, heat, and
swelling
E) all of the signs of inflammation
D
Septic shock, a systemic response including high fever and low blood
pressure, can be life
threatening. What causes septic
shock?
A) certain bacterial infections
B) specific forms of
viruses
C) the presence of natural killer cells
D) a fever
of >103 degrees in adults
E) increased production of neutrophils
A
A bacterium has elements on its surface that are resistant to
lysozyme. If an individual is
infected with this bacterium, what
is a probable consequence?
A) destruction of the bacterium by NK
cells
B) successful reproduction of the bacterium and continued
disease
C) removal of the bacterium by dendritic cells
D)
the individualʹs humoral immunity will immediately take over
E)
lymphocytes will migrate from the thymus to manage the bacterium
B
) What are antigens?
A) proteins found in the blood that cause
foreign blood cells to clump
B) proteins embedded in B cell
membranes
C) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy
polypeptide chains
D) foreign molecules that trigger the
generation of antibodies
E) proteins released during an
inflammatory response
D
) If a newborn were accidentally given a drug that destroyed the
thymus, what would most
likely happen?
A) His cells would
lack class I MHC molecules on their surface.
B) His humoral
immunity would be missing.
C) Genetic rearrangement of antigen
receptors would not occur.
D) His T cells would not mature and
differentiate appropriately.
E) His B cells would be reduced in
number and antibodies would not form.
D
Clonal selection implies that
A) brothers and sisters have
similar immune responses.
B) antigens increase mitosis in
specific lymphocytes.
C) only certain cells can produce
interferon.
D) a B cell has multiple types of antigen
receptors.
E) the body selects which antigens it will respond to.
B
Clonal selection is an explanation for how
A) a single type of
stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood
cells.
B) V, J, and C gene segments are rearranged.
C) an
antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific
antibodies.
D) HIV can disrupt the immune system.
E)
macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells.
C
A person exposed to a new cold virus would not feel better for one to
two weeks because
A) specific B cells and T cells must be
selected prior to a protective response.
B) it takes up to two
weeks to stimulate immunologic memory cells.
C) no memory cells
can be called upon, so adequate response is slow.
D) antigen
receptors are not the same as for a flu virus to which she has
previously been
exposed.
E) V-J gene rearrangement must
occur prior to a response
C
When would B cells produce effector cells?
A) between 0 and 7
days
B) between 7 and 14 days
C) between 28 and 35
days
D) A and B
E) A and C
A
When would memory cells be produced?
A) between 0 and 7
days
B) between 7 and 14 days
C) between 28 and 35
days
D) between 35 and 42 days
E) both A and C
E
When would you find antibodies being produced?
A) between 3 and
7 days
B) between 14 and 21 days
C) between 28 and 35
days
D) 14-21 and 42-56 days
E) both A and C
E
Which of the following cell types are responsible for initiating a
secondary immune
response?
A) memory cells
B)
macrophages
C) stem cells
D) B cells
E) T cells
A
Which of the following differentiates T cells and B cells?
A) T
cells but not B cells are stimulated to increase the rate of their
cell cycles.
B) Only B cells are produced from stem cells of the
bone marrow.
C) T cells but not B cells can directly attack and
destroy invading pathogens.
D) T cells but not B cells have
surface markers.
E) Only B cells take part in cell-mediated immunity
C
The MHC is important in a T cellʹs ability to
A) distinguish
self from nonself.
B) recognize specific parasitic
pathogens.
C) identify specific bacterial pathogens.
D)
identify specific viruses.
E) recognize differences among types
of cancer
A
A patient can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens,
but he does not
produce antibodies against viral infections. This
is probably due to a disorder in which cells
of the immune
system?
A) B cells
B) plasma cells
C) natural killer
cells
D) T cells
E) macrophages
D
In which of the following situations will helper T cells be
activated?
A) when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic
cell
B) when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines
C) when
natural killer (NK) cells come in contact with a tumor cell
D) in
the bone marrow during the self-tolerance test
E) when B cells
respond to T-independent antigens
A
An immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule, of whatever class, has regions
symbolized as C or V, H
or L. A light chain has which of these
regions?
A) one C and one V region
B) three C and one V
region
C) one H and one L region
D) three H and one L
region
E) two C and two V regions
A
For one person to produce over a million different antibody molecules
could not possibly
require over a million different genes.
Instead, this variability is accounted for by
which
processes?
A) alternative splicing of exons after
transcription
B) increased rate of mutation in the RNA
molecules
C) DNA rearrangements followed by alternative splicing
of the transcripts
D) DNA rearrangements in the thymus
cells
E) crossing-over between the light and heavy chains of each
antibody molecule during
meiosis I
C
Which of the following is accounted for by immunological
memory?
A) the human bodyʹs ability to distinguish self from
nonself
B) the observation that some strains of the pathogen that
causes dengue fever cause
worse disease than others
C) the
ability of a helper T cell to signal B cells via cytokines
D) the
ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague
could
safely care for those newly diseased
E) the ability of
the immune system to present antigen fragments in association
with
MHC antigens
D
An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the
virus that causes infectious
mononucleosis. The same student had
already been infected when she was a child, and she had
merely
experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in
her neck. This time, though infected, she
does not get sick.
Her immune systemʹs recognition of this infection will involve which
of the following?
A) helper T cells
B) memory B
cells
C) plasma cells
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) natural
killer cells
D
An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the
virus that causes infectious
mononucleosis. The same student had
already been infected when she was a child, and she had
merely
experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in
her neck. This time, though infected, she
does not get sick.
The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the virus-infected
cells along with which
of the following?
A)
complement
B) antibodies
C) class I MHC molecules
D)
class II MHC molecules
E) Dendritic cells
C
These cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and destroy
virally infected cells:
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) natural
killer cells
C) helper T cells
D) macrophages
E) B cells
A
These cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, and they respond
to class I MHC
molecule-antigen complexes:
A) cytotoxic T
cells
B) natural killer cells
C) helper T cells
D)
macrophages
E) B cells
A
These cells are involved in innate immunity, and a person lacking
these cells may have a
higher than normal chance of developing
malignant tumors:
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) natural killer
cells
C) helper T cells
D) macrophages
E) B cells
B
Which of the following is a pathway that would lead to the activation
of cytotoxic T cells?
A) B cell contact antigen → helper T cell
is activated → clonal selection occurs
B) body cell becomes
infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → class I
MHC
molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface
C)
self-tolerance of immune cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines
released
D) complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen →
helper T cell activated →
cytokines released
E) cytotoxic T
cells → class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed →
cytokines
released → cell lysis
B
Which of the following is the last line of defense against an
extracellular pathogen?
A) lysozyme production
B)
phagocytosis by neutrophils
C) antibody production by plasma
cells
D) histamine release by basophils
E) lysis by natural
killer cells
C
The following events occur when a mammalian immune system first
encounters a
pathogen. Which shows the correct sequence in which
they occur?
I. Pathogen is destroyed.
II. Lymphocytes
secrete antibodies.
III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen
bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
IV. Lymphocytes
specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become
numerous.
V. Only memory cells remain.
A) I → III → II → IV
→ V
B) III → II → I → V → IV
C) II → I → IV → III →
V
D) IV → II → III → I → V
E) III → IV → II → I → V
E
Which cell type interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated
immune pathways?
A) plasma cells
B) cytotoxic T
cells
C) natural killer cells
D) CD8 cells
E) helper T cells
E
Both lysozyme and cytotoxic T cells
A) kill cells through
chemical interactions.
B) kill cells by inducing
apoptosis.
C) kill cells by generating a membrane attack
complex.
D) are part of innate immunity.
E) are involved in
cell-mediated immune responses.
A
A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the
helper T cell being
unable to
A) respond to T-independent
antigens.
B) lyse tumor cells.
C) stimulate a cytotoxic T
cell.
D) interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex.
E)
interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex.
E
What are CD4 and CD8?
A) proteins secreted by antigen-presenting
cells
B) receptors present on the surface of natural killer (NK)
cells
C) T-independent antigens
D) molecules present on the
surface of T cells where they enhance cellular interaction
E)
molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they
enhance B cell
activity
D
Which of the following are T cells of the immune system?
A) CD4,
CD8, and plasma cells
B) cytotoxic and helper cells
C)
plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells
D) lymphocytes,
macrophages, and dendritic cells
E) class I MHC, class II MHC,
and memory cells
B
B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to
differentiate when
A) B cells produce IgE antibodies.
B) B
cells release cytokines.
C) helper T cells present the class II
MHC molecule-antigen complex on their surface.
D) helper T cells
differentiate into cytotoxic T cells.
E) helper T cells release cytokines.
E
Why can normal immune responses be described as polyclonal?
A)
Blood contains many different antibodies to many different
antigens.
B) Construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types
of cells.
C) Multiple immunoglobulins are produced from
descendants of a single B cell.
D) Diverse antibodies are
produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen.
E)
Macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in normal immune response.
D
How do antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and
IgE differ from each
other ?
A) in the way they are
produced
B) in their heavy chain structure
C) in the type of
cell that produces them
D) by the antigenic determinants that
they recognize
E) by the number of carbohydrate subunits they have
B
When antibodies attack antigens, clumping of the affected cells
generally occurs. This is
best explained by
A) the shape of
the antibody with at least two binding regions.
B) disulfide
bridges between the antigens.
C) complement that makes the
affected cells sticky.
D) bonds between class I and class II MHC
molecules.
E) denaturation of the antibodies.
A
) Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by which of the
following?
A) the binding of antibodies to the surface of
microbes.
B) antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes.
C)
the release of cytokines by activated B cells.
D) A and B
only
E) A, B, and C
D
) What is the primary function of humoral immunity?
A) It
primarily defends against fungi and protozoa.
B) It is
responsible for transplant tissue rejection.
C) It protects the
body against cells that become cancerous.
D) It produces
antibodies that circulate in body fluids.
E) It primarily defends
against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells.
D
Naturally acquired passive immunity would involve the
A)
injection of vaccine.
B) ingestion of interferon.
C)
placental transfer of antibodies.
D) absorption of pathogens
through mucous membranes.
E) injection of antibodies
C
Which of the following is true of active but not passive
immunity?
A) acquisition and activation of antibodies.
B)
proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow.
C) transfers
antibodies from the mother across the placenta.
D) requires
direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen.
E) requires
secretion of interleukins from macrophages.
D
) Jenner successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine against the
virus that causes smallpox.
Why was he successful even though he
used viruses of different kinds?
A) The immune system responds
nonspecifically to antigens.
B) The cowpox virus made antibodies
in response to the presence of smallpox.
C) Cowpox and smallpox
are antibodies with similar immunizing properties.
D) There are
some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses.
D
) Which of the following would be most beneficial in treating an
individual who has been
bitten by a poisonous snake that has a
fast-acting toxin?
A) vaccination with a weakened form of the
toxin
B) injection of antibodies to the toxin
C) injection
of interleukin-1
D) injection of interleukin-2
E) injection
of interferon
B
Which of the following is true of the successful development of a
vaccine to be used against
a pathogen?
A) It is dependent on
the surface antigens of the pathogen not changing.
B) It requires
a rearrangement of the B cell receptor antibodies.
C) It is not
possible without knowing the structure of the surface antigens on
the
pathogen.
D) It is dependent on the pathogen having only
one epitope.
E) It is dependent on MHC molecules being heterozygous.
A
) A researcher is analyzing the immune response of a patient
following the patientʹs
exposure to an unknown agent while out of
the country. The patientʹs blood is found to
have a high
proportion of lymphocytes with CD8 surface proteins. What is the
likely cause?
A) The patient encountered a bacterial infection
which elicited CD8 marked T cells.
B) The disease must have been
caused by a multicellular parasite, such as can be
encountered in
polluted water sources.
C) The CD8 proteins would be discharged
from these lymphocytes to lyse the infected
cells.
D) The
CD8 proteins marked the surfaces of cytotoxic T cells to attack
virus-infected host
cells.
E) CD8 marks the surface of cells
that accumulate after the infection is over and signal
patient recovery.
D
What accounts for antibody switching (i.e., the switch of one B cell
from producing one
class of antibody to another antibody class
that is responsive to the same antigen)?
A) mutation in the genes
of that B cell, induced by exposure to the antigen
B) the
rearrangement of V region genes in that clone of responsive B
cells
C) a switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is
involved in the immune
response
D) a patientʹs reaction to
the first kind of antibody made by the plasma cells
E) the
shuffling of exons for one C region type to another attached to the
V-J transcript
E
The number of MHC protein combinations possible in a given population
is enormous.
However, an individual in that population has only a
couple of MHC possibilities. Why?
A) The MHC proteins are made
from several different gene regions that are capable
of
rearranging in a number of ways.
B) MHC proteins from one
individual can only be of class I or class II.
C) Each of the MHC
genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual
only
inherits 2 for each gene.
D) Once a B cell has matured
in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC
response
categories.
E) Once a T cell has matured in the
thymus, it can only respond to two MHC categories.
C
A bone marrow transplant may not be appropriate from a given donor
(Jane) to a given
recipient (Janeʹs cousin Bob), even though Jane
has previously given blood for one of Bobʹs
needed transfusions.
Which of the following might account for this?
A) Janeʹs blood
type is a match to Bobʹs but her MHC proteins are not.
B) A blood
type match is less stringent than a match required for transplant
because
blood is more tolerant of change.
C) For each gene,
there is only one blood allele but many tissue alleles.
D) Janeʹs
class II genes are not expressed in bone marrow.
E) Bobʹs immune
response has been made inadequate before he receives the transplant.
A
) A transfusion of type A blood given to a person who has type O
blood would result in
which of the following?
A) the
recipientʹs B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B
antibodies
B) the recipientʹs anti-A antibodies clumping the
donated red blood cells
C) the recipientʹs anti-A and anti-O
antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells
if the donor
was a heterozygote (Ai) for blood type
D) no reaction because
type O is a universal donor
E) no reaction because the O-type
individual does not have antibodies
B
) In which of the cases could the mother exhibit an anti-Rh-factor
reaction to the developing
fetus?
A) Case 1 only
B)
Case 3 only
C) Cases 1 and 2 only
D) Cases 1, 2, and
3
E) It cannot be determined from the data given.
A
In Cases 1 and 2 in the table, the mothers would be able, if needed,
to supply blood to the
newborn even 7-9 months after birth; the
same would not be true for Case 3. Why?
A) The fetus in Case 3
would provoke an immune response in the mother that would
carry
over after the birth.
B) The newborn in Case 3 would soon be able
to make antibodies to the B antigen of the
mother.
C)
Newborn children, until about age 2, do not make appreciable
antibodies, except
against Rh+ antigen.
D) Passive immunity
would have worn off for the third newborn, but not for the
other
two.
E) This difference is based on which of the
mothers has been nursing their children, not
on blood antigens.
B
In which of the cases would the precaution likely be taken to give
the mother anti-Rh
antibodies before delivering her baby?
A)
Case 1 only
B) Case 3 only
C) Cases 1 and 2 only
D)
Cases 1, 2, and 3
E) It cannot be determined from the data given.
A
An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune
response to a bacterium
because
A) MHC molecules of the
donor may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue.
B) the tissue
graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and will
not
enter into an immune response.
C) a response to the
graft will involve T cells and a response to the bacterium will
not.
D) a bacterium cannot escape the immune system by
replicating inside normal body
cells.
E) the graft will
stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient
A
Immunodeficiencies may be genetic in origin. Two examples of these
are Brutonʹs agammaglobulinemia,
an X-linked disorder, and
DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22.
Brutonʹs
results in underdeveloped B cells, while DiGeorge
syndrome results in a missing or seriously
underdeveloped thymus.
A child is diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome (DGS). With which of the
following would
the child have serious immunological
problems?
A) production of antibodies
B) rate of mitosis in
plasma cells
C) response to infection by a bacterium such as
streptococcus
D) response to infection by a virus such as
influenza
E) response to allergens such as bee venom
D
Immunodeficiencies may be genetic in origin. Two examples of these
are Brutonʹs agammaglobulinemia,
an X-linked disorder, and
DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22.
Brutonʹs
results in underdeveloped B cells, while DiGeorge
syndrome results in a missing or seriously
underdeveloped thymus.
Which of the following might be a child with Brutonʹs
disease?
A) baby girl Denise, with low level of antibody response
to streptococcal infection
B) baby boy John, with immature T
cells, missing CD4 receptors
C) baby boy Jeff, with no plasma
cells following infection by bacterial pneumonia
D) baby girl
Susan, with no evidence of a thymus gland
E) baby boy Matt, with
very low circulating antigens
C
Immunodeficiencies may be genetic in origin. Two examples of these
are Brutonʹs agammaglobulinemia,
an X-linked disorder, and
DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22.
Brutonʹs
results in underdeveloped B cells, while DiGeorge
syndrome results in a missing or seriously
underdeveloped thymus.
Brutonʹs disorder might occur because of which of the following
molecular problems?
A) failure of heavy chain rearrangement in B
cells
B) failure to incorporate CD4 receptors into cell
membranes
C) underexpression of the gene for the beta chain of
the T cell receptor
D) underexpression of the gene for the CD8
receptor molecule
E) inability of the bone marrow cells to
interact with MHC molecules
A
Immunodeficiencies may be genetic in origin. Two examples of these
are Brutonʹs agammaglobulinemia,
an X-linked disorder, and
DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22.
Brutonʹs
results in underdeveloped B cells, while DiGeorge
syndrome results in a missing or seriously
underdeveloped thymus.
) The DGS-like phenotype can be produced in a specific knockout
mouse for HA3, a Hox
gene. HA3 is known to be involved in
developmental regulation in the mouse. Which of the
following
would be an appropriate test for following the gene in the mouse
progeny?
A) bone marrow biopsy
B) assay for environmental
agents known to cause birth defects
C) chest X-ray
D)
measurement of the proportion of CD4 cells to total
lymphocytes
E) autopsy examination of the thymus
D
In the human disease known as lupus, there is an immune reaction
against a patientʹs own
DNA from broken or dying cells. This kind
of response typifies which kind of irregularity?
A)
allergy
B) immunodeficiency
C) autoimmune disease
D)
antigenic variation
E) cancer
C
A patient undergoes a high level of mast cell degranulation, dilation
of blood vessels, and
acute drop in blood pressure. These
symptoms could be caused by which of the following?
A) an
autoimmune disease
B) a typical allergy that can be treated by
antihistamines
C) an organ transplant, such as a skin
graft
D) the effect of exhaustion on the immune system
E)
anaphylactic shock immediately following exposure to an allergen
E
Some pathogens can undergo rapid changes resulting in antigenic
variation. Which of the
following is such a pathogen?
A) the
influenza virus, which expresses alternative envelope proteins
B)
the strep bacteria, which can be communicated from patient to patient
with high
efficiency
C) human papilloma virus, that can
remain latent for several years
D) the causative agent of an
autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis
E) multiple
sclerosis, that attacks the myelinated cells of the nervous system
A
) Some viruses can undergo latency, the ability to remain inactive
for some period of time.
Which of the following is an
example?
A) influenza, a particular strain of which returns every
10-20 years
B) herpes simplex viruses (oral or genital) whose
reproduction is triggered by
physiological or emotional stress in
the host
C) Kaposiʹs sarcoma, which causes a skin cancer in
people with AIDS, but rarely in those
not infected by HIV
D)
the virus that causes a form of the common cold, which recurs in
patients many times
in their lives
E) myasthenia gravis, an
autoimmune disease that blocks muscle contraction from time
to time
B
Most newly emerging diseases, no matter how severe their effects on a
population, human
or otherwise, have which of the following in
common?
A) greater severity as there are more and more
occurrences of the infection
B) major pandemics, spreading the
infection far and wide in the population
C) a tendency to die out
rather quickly, cease to reproduce, or cause a less severe
effect
on the host
D) a destruction of the host immune
system and eventual cancer
E) no discoverable relationship with
other pathogens in the same or related species
C
Which of the following could prevent the appearance of the symptoms
of an allergy attack?
A) blocking the attachment of the IgE
antibodies to the mast cells
B) blocking the antigenic
determinants of the IgM antibodies
C) reducing the number of
helper T cells in the body
D) reducing the number of cytotoxic
cells
E) reducing the number of natural killer cells
A
A patient reports severe symptoms of watery, itchy eyes and sneezing
after being given a
flower bouquet as a birthday gift. A
reasonable initial treatment would involve the use of
A) a
vaccine.
B) complement.
C) sterile pollen.
D)
antihistamines.
E) monoclonal antibodies.
D
What aspect of the immune response would a patient who has a
parasitic worm infection
and another patient responding to an
allergen such as ragweed pollen have in common?
A) Both patients
would have an increase in cytotoxic T cell number.
B) Both
patients would suffer from anaphylactic shock.
C) Both patients
would risk development of an autoimmune disease.
D) Both patients
would be suffering from a decreased level of innate immunity.
E)
Both patients would have increased levels of IgE.
E
) Which of the following is not a component of an insectʹs defense
against infection?
A) enzyme activation of microbe-killing
chemicals
B) activation of natural killer cells
C)
phagocytosis by hemocytes
D) production of antimicrobial
peptides
E) a protective exoskeleton
B
Which of the following is a characteristic of the early stages of
local inflammation?
A) anaphylactic shock
B) fever
C)
attack by cytotoxic T cells
D) release of histamine
E)
antibody- and complement-mediated lysis of microbes
D
An epitope associates with which part of an antibody?
A) the
antibody-binding site
B) the heavy-chain constant regions
only
C) variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain
combined
D) the light-chain constant regions only
E) the
antibody tail
C
Which of the following is not true about helper T cells?
A) They
function in cell-mediated and humoral responses.
B) They
recognize polysaccharide fragments presented by class II MHC
molecules.
C) They bear surface CD4 molecules.
D) They are
subject to infection by HIV.
E) When activated, they secrete cytokines.
B
Which statement best describes the difference in responses of
effector B cells (plasma cells)
and cytotoxic T cells?
A) B
cells confer active immunity; cytotoxic T cells confer passive
immunity.
B) B cells kill viruses directly; cytotoxic T cells
kill virus-infected cells.
C) B cells secrete antibodies against
a virus; cytotoxic T cells kill virus-infected cells.
D) B cells
accomplish the cell-mediated response; cytotoxic T cells accomplish
the
humoral response.
E) B cells respond the first time the
invader is present; cytotoxic T cells respond
subsequent times.
C
Which of these molecules is incorrectly paired with a source?
A)
lysozymetears
B) interferonsvirus-infected cells
C)
antibodiesB cells
D) chemokinescytotoxic T cells
E)
cytokineshelper T cells
D
Which of the following results in long-term immunity?
A) the
passage of maternal antibodies to a developing fetus
B) the
inflammatory response to a splinter
C) the administration of
serum obtained from people immune to rabies
D) the administration
of the chicken pox vaccine
E) the passage of maternal antibodies
to a nursing infant
D
) HIV targets include all of the following except
A)
macrophages.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) helper T
cells.
D) cells bearing CD4.
E) brain cells.
B