Human Anatomy & Physiology: Lecture Festivals 2017 Flashcards


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1

Festival 1 Endocrine & Blood

Chapters 16, 17

2

Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.

True
False

True

3

All peptide hormone synthesis requires gene activation that produces mRNA.

True
False

True

4

Specifically, what is the production of red blood cells called?

leukopoiesis
thalassemia
hemostasis
erythropoiesis

erythropoiesis

5

Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions.

True
False

True

6

Which plasma constituent is the main contributor to osmotic pressure?

alpha globulins
albumin
fibrinogen
beta globulins

albumin

7

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

brain
pancreas
liver
kidney

kidney

8

ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.

True
False

True

9

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

an increased number of RBCs
hypoxia of EPO-producing cells
moving to a lower altitude
decreased tissue demand for oxygen

hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

10

In adults, red blood cell production occurs in __________.

the liver
red bone marrow
yellow bone marrow
the thymus

red bone marrow

11

Diapedesis is the process by which red blood cells move into tissue spaces from the interior of blood capillaries.

True
False

False

12

Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells.

True
False

True

13

Major hormones circulate to virtually all tissues.

True
False

True

14

Which of the following is a hormone produced by the posterior pituitary?

oxytocin
ADH
HGH
none of these

none of these

15

What is hematocrit a measure of?

Hematocrit is the percentage of leukocytes and platelets in a whole blood sample.
Hematocrit is the percentage of formed elements in a whole blood sample.
Hematocrit is the percentage of plasma in a whole blood sample.
Hematocrit is the percentage of erythrocytes in a whole blood sample.

Hematocrit is the percentage of erythrocytes in a whole blood sample.

16

Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas.

True
False

True

17

The stimuli causing endocrine glands to secrete their hormones in direct response to changing blood levels of certain critical ions and nutrients are called __________.

humoral stimuli
neural stimuli
hormonal stimuli
endocrinal stimuli

humoral stimuli

18

Which of the following does NOT stimulate erythrocyte production?

a drop in normal blood oxygen levels
erythropoietin
testosterone
hyperventilating

hyperventilating

19

Which hypothalamic hormone stimulates the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary (lobe)?

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH)
growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

20

The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.

altering gene expression in the nuclear DNA
increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ
synthesizing more than one hormone at a time
binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

21

Which type of leukocyte is responsible for antibody production?

eosinophils
lymphocytes
monocytes
basophils

lymphocytes

22

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________.

a stressor reaction
cellular affinity
sensitivity increase
up-regulation

up-regulation

23

Each hemoglobin molecule can transport two molecules of oxygen.

True
False

False

24

Hypersecretion of what hormone can produce the effects of gigantism (individual in the center of this image)?

growth hormone (GH)
aldosterone
thyroid hormones (TH)
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

growth hormone (GH)

25

Hormones are long-distance chemical signals that travel in blood or lymph throughout the body.

True
False

True

26

Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________.

insulin, because insulin is a small peptide
glucagon, because the structure of glucagon is similar to that of thyroid hormone
growth hormone, because the thyroid works synergistically with thyroid hormone
steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells

steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells

27

Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?

They have cytoplasmic granules.
They are phagocytic.
They are nucleated.
They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.

They are nucleated.

28

What is the primary function of hormones?

alter cell activity
activate extracellular enzymes
cause allergic reactions
influence metabolic activity of glands by electrochemical impulses

alter cell activity

29

Which of the following is NOT a property of endocrine glands?

They drain vascularly.
They drain lymphatically.
They have ducts.
They produce hormones.

They have ducts.

30

What do the lymphoid stem cells give rise to?

erythrocytes
monocytes
lymphocytes
granulocytes

lymphocytes

31
card image

Where are the hormones oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stored? Select from letters A-D.

A
B
C
D

C

32

Which of the following hormones helps the body avoid dehydration and water overload?

thyroid-stimulating hormone
antidiuretic hormone
follicle-stimulating hormone
oxytocin

antidiuretic hormone

33

Which of the following glands is found atop the kidneys?

pituitary
parathyroid
thyroid
adrenal

adrenal

34

Which of the following is best suited to the clotting process that occurs when blood vessels are ruptured?

lymphocytes
megakaryoblast
platelets
megakaryocyte

platelets

35

Which of the following is true about blood plasma?

It is the same as serum but without the clotting proteins.
It is about 90% water.
It contains about 20 dissolved components.
The main protein component is hemoglobin.

It is about 90% water.

36

Which of the following is NOT a major type of stimulus that triggers endocrine glands to manufacture and release hormones?

hormonal
enzymatic
humoral
neural

enzymatic

37

The major targets of growth hormone are ________.

kidneys
the adrenal glands
bones and skeletal muscles
the blood vessels

bones and skeletal muscles

38

What is required for the production of anterior pituitary gland hormones?

humoral stimuli
neural stimuli (from the sympathetic division of the ANS)
hormonal stimuli
all of these

hormonal stimuli

39

The first step in hemostasis is __________.

platelet plug formation
coagulation
fibrin production
vascular spasm

vascular spasm

40

In a centrifuged sample of blood, what makes up the buffy coat?

red blood cells
plasma
platelets only
white blood cells and platelets

white blood cells and platelets

41

Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference?

It is very specific in the cell type it targets.
It is a stimulant of cellular metabolism and targets all cells.
It causes positive feedback.
It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.

It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.

42

The endocrine gland that is probably malfunctioning if a person has a high metabolic rate is the parathyroid.

True
False

False

43

Platelets ________.

stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break
have a life span of about 120 days
have multiple nuclei
are the precursors of leukocytes

stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break

44

Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?

distribution
regulation
hormone production
protection

hormone production

45

Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system.

True
False

False

46

The majority of whole blood is __________.

erythrocytes
plasma
platelets
leukocytes

plasma

47

Which of the following is not a change typically produced by a hormonal stimulus?

stimulates production of an action potential
activates or deactivates enzymes
induces secretory activity
alters plasma membrane permeability

stimulates production of an action potential

48

Which of the following hormones mainly serves to stimulate milk production by the breasts?

thyroid-stimulating hormone
follicle-stimulating hormone
adrenocorticotropic hormone
prolactin

prolactin

49

Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular ________.

deactivating ions
calcium
nucleotides
second messengers

second messengers

50

What part of the pathway to produce platelets is shared with other formed elements?

megakaryoblast
hematopoietic stem cell (hemocytoblast)
lymphoid stem cell
reticulocyte

hematopoietic stem cell (hemocytoblast)

51

Which of the formed elements contains hemoglobin and transports respiratory gases?

agranular leukocytes
granular leukocytes
platelets
erythrocytes

erythrocytes

52

Festival 2 Heart

Chapter 18

53

Anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provide collateral routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle.

True
False

True

54

The left side of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump.

True
False

True

55

What causes normal heart sounds?

cardiac muscle contraction
opening of heart valves
heart valve closure
pressure of blood in the ventricles

heart valve closure

56

The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ________.

atrial depolarization
ventricular repolarization
ventricular depolarization
atrial repolarization

atrial depolarization

57

Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.
Aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow of blood into the heart.
The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle.
The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.

The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.

58

Which functional feature best describes the manner in which cardiac muscle contracts?

Nerve fibers must stimulate cardiac muscle cells for them to contract.
Only some motor units contract in cardiac muscle.
Automaticity (autorhythmicity) promotes the spontaneous contraction of the cardiac muscle cells.
Refractory periods in cardiac contractions are relatively short.

Automaticity (autorhythmicity) promotes the spontaneous contraction of the cardiac muscle cells.

59

What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?

chordae tendineae
anastomoses
intercalated discs
trabaculae carneae

intercalated discs

60

The first heart sound (the "lub" of the "lub-dup") is caused by __________.

opening of the semilunar valves
opening of the atrioventricular valves
closure of the atrioventricular valves
closure of the semilunar valves

closure of the atrioventricular valves

61

Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?

closure of the heart valves
opening and closing of the heart valves
excitation of the SA node
friction of blood against the chamber walls

closure of the heart valves

62

Consider the following characteristics of the cells found in muscle tissue. Which feature is shared by both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?

branched cells
intercalated discs
striations
triads

striations

63

The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is ________.

ischemia
angina pectoris
pericarditis
myocardial infarct

angina pectoris

64

The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.

expands the thoracic cage
sends blood through a smaller valve
pumps a greater volume of blood
pumps blood against a greater resistance

pumps blood against a greater resistance

65

Which of the following is the outermost covering of the heart?

visceral layer
fibrous pericardium
parietal layer
epicardium

fibrous pericardium

66

Into which chamber of the heart do the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus return deoxygenated blood?

right atrium
right ventricle
left atrium
left ventricle

right atrium

67

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.

cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells
has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium
lacks striations
has more nuclei per cell

has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium

68

Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles.

True
False

False

69

The __________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

mitral
tricuspid
aortic semilunar
pulmonary semilunar

tricuspid

70

The role of the coronary arteries is to __________.

move blood from the atria to the ventricles
direct blood to the pulmonary veins
direct blood to the aorta
supply blood to the heart tissue

supply blood to the heart tissue

71

Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates the atrioventricular (AV) node to conduct impulses to the atrioventricular bundle?

interventricular septum
subendocardial conducting network (Purkinje fibers)
bundle branches
sinoatrial (SA) node

sinoatrial (SA) node

72

If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________.

an inadequate supply of lactic acid
a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways
a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for energy production
decreased delivery of oxygen

decreased delivery of oxygen

73

Which of the following terms refers to a lack of oxygen supply to heart muscle cells?

infarction
embolism
functional syncytium
ischemia

ischemia

74

Which of the following structures sets the pace of heart contraction?

AV node
bundle branches
SA node
atrioventricular bundle

SA node

75

The order of impulse conduction in the heart, from beginning to end, is __________.

SA node, bundle of His, AV node, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers
SA node, bundle branches, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers
SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers
SA node, bundle branches, bundle of His, AV node, and Purkinje fibers

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers

76

The heart's pacemaker is the __________.

Purkinje fibers
sinoatrial node
atrioventricular node
atrioventricular bundle

sinoatrial node

77
card image

Use the figure to match the following.

card image
78

Festival 3 Blood Vessels

Chapter 19

79

Which of the following is true about veins?

Veins have valves; arteries do not.
Veins have a smaller diameter lumen than arteries.
Veins are more muscular than arteries.
Veins carry blood away from the heart, while arteries carry blood to the heart.

Veins have valves; arteries do not.

80

The thick-walled arteries close to the heart are called muscular arteries.

True
False

False

81

Aldosterone will ________.

promote an increase in blood pressure
promote a decrease in blood volume
decrease sodium reabsorption
result in a larger output of urine

promote an increase in blood pressure

82

How would an attack by a mugger affect blood pressure? What is the physiological basis for your answer?

Blood pressure would increase due to parasympathetic nervous system stimulation.
Blood pressure would decrease due to parasympathetic nervous system stimulation.
Blood pressure would increase due to vagal nerve stimulation.
Blood pressure would decrease due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation.
Blood pressure would increase due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation.

Blood pressure would increase due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation.

83

Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood pressure?

ADH
atrial natriuretic peptide
angiotensin II
nitric acid

nitric acid

84

Which of the following will lower blood pressure?

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
aldosterone
angiotensin II
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

85

The inferior vena cava carries blood __________ the __________ of the heart.

to: left atrium
to; right atrium
away from; left atrium
away from; right atrium

to; right atrium

86

The outermost layer of a blood vessel is the tunica intima.

True
False

False

87

What is the outermost layer of the blood vessel wall for an artery or vein?

subendothelial layer
tunica media
tunica intima
tunica externa

tunica externa

88

Leaky capillaries found in the bone marrow are called __________.

arterioles
sinusoidal capillaries
fenestrated capillaries
continuous capillaries

sinusoidal capillaries

89

Factors that aid venous return include all except ________.

activity of skeletal muscles
venous valves
urinary output
pressure changes in the thorax

urinary output

90

What type of vessel has relatively more smooth muscle and less elastic tissue?

elastic artery
capillary
arteriole
muscular artery

muscular artery

91

Which of the following is true about veins?

Up to 35% of total body blood is in venous circulation at any given time.
Veins have a small lumen in relation to the thickness of the vessel wall.
Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs.
Venous valves are formed from the tunica media.

Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs.

92

Substances absorbed in the intestines would be routed to the liver via the __________.

suprarenal veins
inferior vena cava
abdominal aorta
hepatic portal vein

hepatic portal vein

93

Which type of vessel contains elastin in all three tunics to allow the vessel to expand and recoil as the heart ejects blood?

arteriole
muscular artery
elastic artery
distributing artery

elastic artery

94

Which of the following is NOT an important source of resistance to blood flow?

total blood volume
blood viscosity
vessel length
vessel diameter

total blood volume

95

Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance?

blood vessel diameter
blood viscosity
total blood vessel length
blood vessels type

blood vessel diameter

96

Which of the following is involved in long-term blood pressure regulation?

baroreceptors
renal mechanisms
chemoreceptor reflexes
higher brain center

renal mechanisms

97

All capillary beds are continuously perfused with blood.

True
False

False

98

Vasodilation will result in increased blood flow to a given tissue.

True
False

True

99

Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels?

They distribute blood to various parts of the body.
They contain a large quantity of elastic tissue.
Their prime function is the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissue cells.
The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.

The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.

100

Which statement best describes arteries?

All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.
All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.
All carry blood away from the heart.
Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.

All carry blood away from the heart.

101

Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?

tunica adventitia
tunica intima
tunica externa
tunica media

tunica media

102

What type of tissue is found in the walls of the arteries but not in the walls of capillaries and venules?

endothelium
elastic tissue
smooth muscle
collagen fibers

elastic tissue

103

Which of the following would experience a decreased blood flow during exercise?

skeletal muscles
kidneys
brain
skin

kidneys

104

Festival 4 Lymphatics

Chapter 20

105

Lymphatic collecting vessels are most closely associated with __________.

bone marrow
the heart
arterioles
capillary beds

capillary beds

106

Once collected, lymph is returned to __________.

venous circulation
the liver for detoxification
the kidneys for filtration
arterial circulation

venous circulation

107

Which part of the spleen is the site of immune function?

red pulp
splenic sinusoids
splenic cords
white pulp

white pulp

108

Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the ________.

axillary region
inguinal region
lower extremities
cervical region

lower extremities

109

Which of the following is not a part of the lymphatic system?

lymphatic vessels
lymph nodes
lymph
erythrocytes

erythrocytes

110

Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.

T cells are the precursors of B cells.
The two main types are T cells and macrophages.
B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.
T cells are the only form of lymphocyte found in lymphoid tissue.

B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.

111

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

draining excess interstitial fluid
carrying out immune responses
transporting respiratory gases
transporting dietary fats

transporting respiratory gases

112

Lymph capillary permeability is due to minivalves and protein filaments.

True
False

True

113

What is a bubo?

an infected Peyer's patch
a wall in a lymph node
a lobe of the spleen
an infected lymph node

an infected lymph node

114

The __________ is (are) the most likely to become infected.

pharyngeal tonsil
palatine tonsils
lingual tonsil
tubal tonsil

palatine tonsils

115

The filtration of lymph and immune system activation are the two basic functions of the __________.

lymph nodes
Peyer's patches
tonsils
spleen

lymph nodes

116

What is the main function of the lymphatic system?

The lymphatic system pumps and transports blood throughout the body.
The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.
The lymphatic system regulates blood pressure through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism.
The lymphatic system makes blood cells through a process known as hematopoiesis.

The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.

117

Like blood, lymph flows both to and from the heart.

True
False

False

118

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

afferent lymphatic vessels
efferent lymphatic vessels
the cortical sinus
the subcapsular sinus

efferent lymphatic vessels

119

Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic cell?

reticular cell
macrophage
dendritic cell
eosinophil

eosinophil

120

The lymphatic capillaries function to absorb the excess protein-containing interstitial fluid and return it to the bloodstream.

True
False

True

121

Lymph nodes are surrounded by a capsule from which connective tissue strands extend inward to divide the node into compartments. What is the name of these strands?

hilum
lymph sinuses
medullary cords
trabeculae

trabeculae

122

Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system.

True
False

True

123

What is the role of the B lymphocytes (B cells) in lymphoid tissue?

manage the immune response
produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies
capture antigens and bring them back to the lymph nodes
phagocytize foreign substances

produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies

124
card image

Which of these lymphoid organs destroys bacteria before it can breach the intestinal wall and generates "memory" lymphocytes for long-term memory? Select from letters A-D.

A
B
C
D

D

125

Lymph capillaries are absent in all except which of the following?

bone marrow
CNS
bones and teeth
digestive organs

digestive organs

126

About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph.

True
False

True

127

Where are worn-out erythrocytes found in the spleen?

red pulp
capsule
white pulp
splenic cords

red pulp

128

What region of the lymph node contains densely packed follicles with dividing B cells?

medulla
cortex
trabeculae
capsule

cortex

129

Which of the following lymphoid tissues/organs does NOT contain reticular connective tissue?

thymus
spleen
tonsils
lymph nodes

thymus

130

Festival 5 Immune System

Chapter 21

131

Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________.

ions
haptens
antibodies
reagins

haptens

132

Which of the following best illustrates artificially acquired active humoral immunity?

infection
antibodies received in breast milk
antivenoms
vaccines

vaccines

133

__________ immunity protects a baby who is fed breast milk.

Natural active
Natural passive
Artificial passive
Artificial active

Natural passive

134

Which of the following mechanisms of antibody action occur when red blood cells clump due to a transfusion of mismatched blood?

complement fixation and activation
agglutination
neutralization
precipitation

agglutination

135

Why are children given vaccinations?

to activate the cell-mediated defense against pathogens
to develop memory cells against various diseases
to see whether the immune system is capable of defense against disease
to develop a disease in a mild state rather than have it later on in a more serious state

to develop memory cells against various diseases

136

Which of the following cells engulf antigens and present fragments of them on their own surfaces, where they can be recognized by cells that will deal with them?

CD8 cells
T lymphocytes
dendritic cells
NK cells

dendritic cells

137

What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?

activates the complement mechanism
activates the inflammatory process
to kill the bacteria
protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses

protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses

138

Which of the following is NOT one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

swelling
vasoconstriction
redness
heat

vasoconstriction

139

What mobilizes the adaptive defenses and provokes an immune response?

MHC proteins
pyrogens
interferons
antigens

antigens

140

Fever ________.

is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting
causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication
decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy

production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting

141

Cellular ingestion and destruction of particulate matter is called phagocytosis.

True
False

True

142

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?

phagocytes
cilia
gastric juice
keratin

phagocytes

143

Which of the following do NOT serve as antigen-presenting cells (APC)?

macrophages
natural killer cells
B cells
dendritic cells

natural killer cells

144

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________.

pinocytosis
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
natural killer cells

natural killer cells

145

__________ are lymphocytes that directly kill virus- infected cells.

Helper T cells
Macrophages
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells

Cytotoxic T cells

146

Adaptive immunity is provided only by lymphocytes that secrete antibodies.

True
False

False

147

Immunocompetence ________.

prevents intercellular communication so that only specific cell types respond to the invader
occurs in one specific organ of the adaptive immune system
is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it
requires exposure to an antigen

is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it

148

How would you classify the antivenom used to treat poisonous snake bites?

active immunity, naturally acquired
passive immunity, naturally acquired
active immunity, artificially acquired
passive immunity, artificially acquired

passive immunity, artificially acquired

149

Some immunocompetent cells will never be called to service in our lifetime.

True
False

True

150

The directional movement of cells in response to chemicals is called chemotaxis.

True
False

True

151

What is the specific target of interferons?

antibodies
infected cells
nearby healthy cells
specific viruses

nearby healthy cells

152

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

bone marrow
thymus
lymph nodes
spleen

bone marrow

153

Antigens bound to MHC II activate __________.

B cells
cytotoxic T cells
macrophages
helper T cells

helper T cells

154

Select the correct statement about antigens.

Only small antigens exhibit reactivity.
"Self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens.
One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.
The largest type of antigen is called a hapten.

One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

155

Virus infected cells secrete complement to "warn" other cells of the presence of virus.

True
False

False

156

Festival 6 Respiratory System

Chapter 22

157

Which parts of the respiratory system function as the main sites of gas exchange?

primary bronchi
trachea
alveoli
terminal bronchioles

alveoli

158

Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation?

coryza
pneumonia
tuberculosis
emphysema

emphysema

159

Hypoxia can be caused by ______.

hyposecretion of erythropoietin
having a fever
slightly elevated level of lactic acid in the blood
All of the listed responses are correct.

hyposecretion of erythropoietin

160

The olfactory mucosal lining of the nasal cavity contains the receptors for the sense of smell.

True
False

True

161

What is ventilation-perfusion coupling?

matching the amount of oxygen exchanged for carbon dioxide in the alveoli to the exchange at the tissue level
matching the amount of blood flow through the body to the amount of oxygen in the air sacs
matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to the blood flow in pulmonary capillaries
matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to pO2 and pCO2 values in the blood

matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to the blood flow in pulmonary capillaries

162

During normal quiet breathing, approximately 750 ml of air moves into and out of the lungs with each breath.

True
False

False

163

The alveolar ventilation rate is the best index of effective ventilation.

True
False

True

164

Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?

alveolar ducts
alveolar sacs
alveoli
respiratory bronchioles

alveoli

165

The __________ is also known as the "guardian of the airways."

epiglottis
glottis
larynx
vestibular folds

epiglottis

166

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.

filtration
osmosis
active transport
diffusion

diffusion

167

What is the most immediate driving force behind pulmonary ventilation?

smooth muscle contraction
air sac contraction
intrapulmonary pressure change
environmental stimuli

intrapulmonary pressure change

168

Which of the choices below is not a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?

partial pressure of carbon dioxide
number of red blood cells
temperature
partial pressure of oxygen

number of red blood cells

169

The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because the ________.

concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes
concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is higher at higher altitudes
basal metabolic rate is higher at high altitudes
temperature is lower at higher altitudes

concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes

170

The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.

respiratory bronchioles and alveolar sacs
alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes
respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts
atria and alveolar sacs

alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes

171

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is to ________.

trap dust and other debris
secrete surfactant
replace mucus in the alveoli
protect the lungs from bacterial invasion

secrete surfactant

172

Dalton's law states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture.

True
False

True

173

__________, the difference between the intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressures, prevents the lungs from collapsing.

Transthoracic pressure
Intraalveolar pressure
Transpulmonary pressure
Atmospheric pressure

Transpulmonary pressure

174

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.

protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations
warming the air before it enters
humidifying the air before it enters
interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

175

Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of CO2?

internal respiration
external respiration
blood pH adjustment
pulmonary ventilation

blood pH adjustment

176

Which of the following does not influence hemoglobin saturation?

carbon dioxide
temperature
nitric oxide
BPG

nitric oxide

177

Emphysema is distinguished by permanent shrinkage of the alveoli.

True
False

False

178

Which of the following initiates inspiration?

diencephalon
pontine respiratory centers
ventral respiratory group (VRG)
dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

ventral respiratory group (VRG)

179

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

solubility in water
the temperature
partial pressure gradient
molecular weight and size of the gas molecule

partial pressure gradient

180

Which of the following pressures rises and falls with the phases of breathing, but eventually equalizes with the atmospheric pressure?

intrapulmonary pressure
transpulmonary pressure
atmospheric pressure
intrapleural pressure

intrapulmonary pressure

181

Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________.

porous structure of turbinate bones
abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa
action of the epiglottis
ciliated mucous lining in the nose

ciliated mucous lining in the nose

182

Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.

True
False

True

183

Which volumes are combined to provide the inspiratory capacity?

expiratory reserve volume (ERV) + residual volume (RV)
tidal volume (TV) + inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) + expiratory reserve volume (ERV) + residual volume (RV)
tidal volume (TV) + inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) + expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
tidal volume (TV) + inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

tidal volume (TV) + inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

184

Tracheal obstruction is life threatening.

True
False

True

185

Which of the following qualifies as a fully saturated hemoglobin molecule?

hemoglobin is transporting three oxygen molecules
hemoglobin is transporting four oxygen molecules
hemoglobin is transporting two oxygen molecules
hemoglobin is transporting one oxygen molecule

hemoglobin is transporting four oxygen molecules

186
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Use the figure to match the following.

card image
187

Emphysema can result in an ______.

increased level of carbaminohemoglobin
increased level of deoxyhemoglobin
increased likelihood of the skin of Caucasians developing a slightly blue coloration
All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

188

Possible causes of hypoxia include ________.

getting very cold
taking several rapid deep breaths
obstruction of the esophagus
too little oxygen in the atmosphere

too little oxygen in the atmosphere

189

Which muscles are activated during normal quiet inspiration?

diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, and pectoralis minor muscles
oblique and transversus muscles

diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

190

Which of the following pressures must remain negative to prevent lung collapse?

atmospheric pressure
intrapleural pressure
transpulmonary pressure
intrapulmonary pressure

intrapleural pressure

191

The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ________.

surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity
the visceral pleurae and the changing volume of the lungs
the smooth muscles of the lung
the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles alone

surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity

192

Which of the following gives the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas?

Boyle's law
Haldane effect
Dalton's law of partial pressures
Henry's law

Boyle's law

193

Why is a patient with tuberculosis often noncompliant with treatment?

TB infection causes damage to the nervous system, resulting in changes in personality and judgment.
Due to the time length of treatment, the patient may stop taking the medication when they start to feel better.
Due to the psychological side effects of the antibiotic used, the patient may stop taking the medication when they start to feel better.
Due to the physiological side effects of the antibiotic used, the patient may stop taking the medication when they start to feel better.

Due to the time length of treatment, the patient may stop taking the medication when they start to feel better.

194

Which center is located in the pons?

expiratory center
pontine respirator group (PRG)
inspiratory center
pacemaker neuron center

pontine respirator group (PRG)

195

Intrapleural pressure is normally about 4 mm Hg less than the pressure in the alveoli.

True
False

True

196

Which of the following is NOT a physical factor that influences pulmonary ventilation?

lung compliance
partial pressure of oxygen in the air
airway resistance
alveolar surface tension

partial pressure of oxygen in the air

197

The paired lungs occupy all of the thoracic cavity.

True
False

False

198

Which of the following is NOT a function of the larynx?

to provide a patent airway
stimulation of the "cough" reflex
to act as a switching mechanism to route air and food into the proper channels
to assist in taste sensation
voice production

to assist in taste sensation

199

Tidal volume is air ________.

remaining in the lungs after forced expiration
exchanged during normal breathing
inhaled after normal inspiration
forcibly expelled after normal expiration

exchanged during normal breathing

200

Because the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, which of the following statements is true regarding respiratory exchange?

Respiratory exchanges are made through the ductus arteriosus.
Respiratory exchanges are not necessary.
Respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.
Because the lungs develop later in gestation, fetuses do not need a mechanism for respiratory exchange.

Respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.

201

What part of the larynx covers the laryngeal inlet during swallowing to keep food out of the lower respiratory passages?

epiglottis
thyroid cartilage
vocal folds
glottis

epiglottis

202

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Respiratory rate is lowest in newborn infants.
Descent of the diaphragm results in abdominal breathing.
During fetal life, lungs are filled with fluid.
The chest wall becomes more rigid with age.

Respiratory rate is lowest in newborn infants.

203

What determines the respiratory rhythm in the body?

Hering-Breuer stretch reflexes
medullary respiratory centers
pontine respiratory centers
oxygen levels in the blood

medullary respiratory centers

204

The major nonelastic source of resistance to air flow in the respiratory passageways is ________.

friction
surfactant
surface tension
air pressure

friction

205

What type of epithelial tissue forms the walls of the alveoli?

simple squamous epithelium
simple cuboidal epithelium
stratified squamous epithelium
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

simple squamous epithelium

206
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207

Festival 7 Digestive

Chapter 23

208

The major means of propelling food through the digestive tract is __________.

peristalsis
churning
segmentation
swallowing

peristalsis

209

In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach ________.

initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins
is the only place where fats are completely digested
is the first site where chemical digestion of starch takes place
is the first site where absorption takes place

initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins

210

Fats significantly delay the emptying of the stomach.

True
False

True

211

Which organ of the digestive tract is the body's major digestive organ?

large intestine
small intestine
liver
stomach

small intestine

212

Most digestion and absorption of nutrients occur in the __________.

large intestine
stomach
liver
small intestine

small intestine

213

What part of the tooth bears the force of chewing?

pulp
crown
cementum
enamel

enamel

214

What is the major digestive function of the pancreas?

production of bicarbonate ions
production of insulin
production of glucagon
production of digestive enzymes

production of digestive enzymes

215

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the stomach?

The stomach releases enzymes to digest carbohydrates.
The stomach produces a double-layered coat of alkaline mucus.
The stomach mucosa is folded into rugae.
The stomach has three layers of muscle in the muscularis tunic.

The stomach releases enzymes to digest carbohydrates.

216

Peristaltic waves are ________.

churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract
waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another
pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract
segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract

waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

217

The mucosa collapses inward when the stomach is empty, forming large folds known as __________.

rugae
cardia
fundus
pylorus

rugae

218

The __________ is the last segment of the small intestine.

colon
jejunum
ileum
duodenum

ileum

219

How would you classify chewing food?

ingestion
digestion
mechanical breakdown
propulsion

mechanical breakdown

220

Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier?

tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells
replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells
production of intrinsic factor
thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus

production of intrinsic factor

221

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________.

in the glandular tissue that lines the organ lumen
in the pons and medulla
in the oral cavity
in the walls of the tract organs

in the walls of the tract organs

222

Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ________.

mastication
catabolism
fermentation
anabolism

catabolism

223

The __________ is the serous membrane that lines the abdominal body wall.

omenta
parietal peritoneum
mesentery
visceral peritoneum

parietal peritoneum

224

Most gastric ulcers are due to excessive production of hydrochloric acid.

True
False

False

225

Impacted wisdom teeth is a problem that is never observed in children because ______.

their teeth are generally too small to become impacted
the childhood lengthening of their jaw bones provides all of the deciduous teeth with lots of room to erupt through the gums
they lack third molar teeth
their wisdom teeth fall out before there is any opportunity for them to become impacted

they lack third molar teeth

226

What muscle forms the labia of the mouth?

buccinator
zygomaticus
orbicularis oris
orbicularis oculi

orbicularis oris

227

Which of the following is NOT a structural modification of the small intestine to increase surface area?

circular folds
rugae
villi
microvilli

rugae

228

There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs ________.

at the end of a large meal, and the juices secreted are powerful and remain in the GI tract for a long period of time
immediately after food enters the stomach, preparing the small intestine for the influx of a variety of nutrients
before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought
when the meal is excessively high in acids and neutralization is required

before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought

229

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.

submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa
muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa
mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa
serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

230

The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________.

digestion
secretion
ingestion
absorption

digestion

231

All the chemical and mechanical phases of digestion from the mouth through the small intestine are directed toward changing food into forms that can pass through the epithelial cells lining the mucosa into the underlying blood and lymphatic vessels.

True
False

True

232

The __________ guards the entry of food into the stomach.

pyloric sphincter
diaphragm
cardiac sphincter
ileocecal valve

cardiac sphincter

233

Festival 8 Nutrition

Chapter 24

234

The primary function of carbohydrates is energy production within cells.

True
False

True

235

Gluconeogenesis is the process in which ________.

glycogen is formed
glucose is converted into carbon dioxide and water
glycogen is broken down to release glucose
glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate precursors

glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate precursors

236

Which of the choices below describes the pathway of cellular respiration (the complete oxidation of glucose)?

lipolysis, glycogenolysis, beta oxidation
glycogenesis, lipogenesis, electron transport chain
gluconeogenesis, Krebs cycle, lipolysis
glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation

glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation

237

Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

vitamin K
vitamin B
vitamin D
vitamin A

vitamin B

238

What is the primary function of cellular respiration - its end-purpose?

to metabolize nutrients
to generate ATP
to produce proteins
to oxidize glucose

to generate ATP

239

Which of the following nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized?

fats
vitamins and minerals
foods and beverages high in caffeine
proteins

fats

240

The most abundant dietary lipids are ________.

phospholipids
fatty acids
triglycerides
cholesterol

triglycerides

241

Which term describes the breakdown of stored fats into glycerol and fatty acids?

ketogenesis
beta oxidation
lipogenesis
lipolysis

lipolysis

242

__________ is a substance in food used by the body to promote normal growth, maintenance, and repair.

A nutrient
A calorie
A hormone
ATP

A nutrient

243

In order for amino acids to be oxidized for energy, the amine group (NH2) must be removed.

True
False

True

244

__________ refers to reactions in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules.

Anabolism
Metabolism
Catabolism
Carboxylation

Catabolism

245

As the body progresses from the absorptive to the postabsorptive state, only the ________ continues to burn glucose while every other organ in the body mostly switches to fatty acids.

pancreas
liver
spleen
brain

brain

246

Which of the following food groups are considered good sources of complete proteins?

eggs, milk, yogurt, meat, and fish
corn, cottonseed oil, soy oil, and wheat germ
egg yolk, fish roe, and grains
lima beans, kidney beans, nuts, and cereals

eggs, milk, yogurt, meat, and fish

247

Cellular respiration is an anabolic process.

True
False

False

248

Which of the following would decrease body temperature?

eating a large meal
shivering
dilation of cutaneous blood vessels
enhanced thyroxine release

dilation of cutaneous blood vessels

249

The increased use of noncarbohydrate molecules for energy to conserve glucose is called glucose sparing.

True
False

True

250
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Which of the following is represented by the "membrane" indicated in the figure?

nuclear membrane
outer mitochondrial membrane
inner mitochondrial membrane
plasma membrane

inner mitochondrial membrane

251

Which of the following is a characteristic of the electron transport chain (ETC)?

The electron transport chain is an anaerobic pathway.
The final electron acceptor in the ETC is water.
NADH is a product of the ETC.
The ETC occurs in the mitochondria.

The ETC occurs in the mitochondria.

252

Cholesterol, though it is not an energy molecule, has importance in the body because it ________.

is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones
helps provide essential nutrients to the brain and lungs
helps mobilize fats during periods of starvation
enters the glycolytic pathway without being altered

is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones

253

Glycogen is formed in the liver during the ________.

starvation period
postabsorptive state
absorptive state
period when the metabolic rate is lowest

absorptive state

254

The preferred energy fuel for the brain is fat.

True
False

False

255

The "proton pumps" indicated in the figure are physically associated with ______.

the Krebs cycle
the ATP synthase
the electron transport chain
glycolysis

the electron transport chain

256

Except for lactose and some glycogen, the carbohydrates we ingest are mainly from animals.

True
False

False

257

Which nutrients function as coenzymes and are needed in only small amounts?

electrolytes
minerals
carbohydrates
vitamins

vitamins

258

Neurons and red blood cells rely exclusively on __________ to meet their energy needs.

glycerol
proteins
fatty acids
glucose

glucose

259

Festival 9 Urinary

Chapter 25

260

The position of the kidneys behind the peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity is described by the term retroperitoneal.

True
False

True

261

Where is filtrate produced in the nephron?

glomerulus
vasa recta
juxtaglomerular complex
peritubular capillaries

glomerulus

262

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure (HPg) is the chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood and across the filtration membrane.

True
False

True

263

In the kidneys, the countercurrent mechanism involves the interaction between the flow of filtrate through the loop of Henle of the juxtamedullary nephrons (the countercurrent multiplier) and the flow of blood through the limbs of adjacent blood vessels (the countercurrent exchanger). This relationship establishes and maintains an osmotic gradient extending from the cortex through the depths of the medulla that allows the kidneys to vary urine concentration dramatically.

True
False

True

264

Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by ________.

countertransport
passive transport
facilitated diffusion
secondary active transport

secondary active transport

265

Where does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) exert its effects to promote water reabsorption?

descending limb of the nephron loop
distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
ascending limb of the nephron loop
collecting duct

collecting duct

266

What two structures constitute the renal corpuscle?

renal tubule and collecting duct
glomerulus and glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
glomerulus and renal tubule
proximal convoluted tubule and nephron loop

glomerulus and glomerular (Bowman's) capsule

267

What is the function of the macula densa cells of the juxtaglomerular complex (JGC)?

The macula densa cells monitor the NaCl content of the filtrate entering the distal convoluted tubule.
The macula densa cells pass regulatory signals between the extraglomerular mesangial cells.
The macula densa cells produce filtrate.
The macula densa cells sense blood pressure in the afferent arteriole.

The macula densa cells monitor the NaCl content of the filtrate entering the distal convoluted tubule.

268

Which urinary structure serves as the temporary storage site for urine?

urethra
ureter
urinary bladder
renal pelvis

urinary bladder

269

In what part of the renal tubule are aquaporins scarce or absent so that water CANNOT be reabsorbed?

proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
ascending limb of the nephron loop
collecting duct
descending limb of the nephron loop

ascending limb of the nephron loop

270

Excretion of dilute urine requires ________.

the presence of ADH
transport of sodium and chloride ions out of the descending loop of Henle
relative permeability of the distal tubule to water
impermeability of the collecting tubule to water

impermeability of the collecting tubule to water

271

Glomerular filtration is an ATP-driven process.

True
False

False

272

Despite the fact that the kidney's intrinsic controls work to maintain a constant GFR, in some situations the body's extrinsic controls will work to override these intrinsic controls in order to maintain systemic blood pressure.

True
False

True

273

Which of the following is the functional unit of the kidney?

nephron
renal pelvis
renal corpuscle
renal pyramid

nephron

274

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________.

decrease in the production of ADH
increase in the production of aldosterone
decrease in the concentration of the blood plasma
increase in the production of ADH

increase in the production of ADH

275

Which of the choices below is the salt level-monitoring part of the nephron?

loop of Henle
principal cell
macula densa
vasa recta

macula densa

276

The proximal convoluted tubule is the portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct.

True
False

False

277

The entire responsibility for urine formation lies with the nephron.

True
False

True

278

What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

a system that regulates the rate of filtrate formation and systemic blood pressure
a system that protects the nephron from some chemicals found in blood
a system for concentrating urine
a system for diluting urine

a system that regulates the rate of filtrate formation and systemic blood pressure

279

Which pressure is the chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood and across the filtration membrane of the glomerulus?

colloid osmotic pressure in the capsular space
hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries (HPgc)
hydrostatic pressure in the capsular space (HPcs)
colloid osmotic pressure in glomerular capillaries (OPgc)

hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries (HPgc)

280

The macula densa cells are chemoreceptors that respond to changes in the urea content of the filtrate.

True
False

False

281

If the GFR is too low, needed substances may pass so quickly through the renal tubules that they are not absorbed and instead are lost in the urine.

True
False

False

282

Obligatory water reabsorption involves the movement of water along an osmotic gradient.

True
False

True

283

In which kidney region are all renal corpuscles located?

renal pelvis
renal cortex
renal medulla
renal columns

renal cortex

284

The collecting duct is impermeable to water in the presence of ADH.

True
False

False

285

Festival 10 pH & Water

Chapter 26

286

What solute in body fluids determines most of their chemical and physical reactions?

electrolytes
water
glucose
nonelectrolytes

electrolytes

287

Respiratory acidosis results when lungs are obstructed and gas exchange is inefficient.

True
False

True

288

Which of the following is not a chemical buffer system?

bicarbonate
protein
nucleic acid
phosphate

nucleic acid

289

What is the most common cation found in the interstitial fluid?

HPO42-
Cl-
Na+
K+

Na+

290

One of the most powerful and plentiful sources of buffers is the protein buffer system.

True
False

True

291

Most acidic substances (hydrogen ions) originate as by-products of cellular metabolism.

True
False

True

292

Which chemical buffer system is the only important system in the extracellular fluid (ECF) that resists short-term changes in pH?

physiological buffering systems
phosphate buffer system
bicarbonate buffer system
protein buffer system

bicarbonate buffer system

293

Whereas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid, most ________ is found in the intracellular fluid.

bicarbonate
chloride
potassium
iron

potassium

294

The body's water volume is closely tied to a powerful water "magnet." What magnet is referred to here?

ionic potassium
water level in the extracellular compartment
ionic sodium
water level in the intracellular compartment

ionic sodium

295

What receptors does the brain use to detect changes in osmolality?

osmoreceptors
thermoreceptors
baroreceptors
chemoreceptors

osmoreceptors

296

The term hypotonic hydration refers to ________.

the unpleasant feeling people have after drinking too much liquor
the feeling one might have after profuse sweating with exertion
a condition that may result from renal insufficiency or drinking extraordinary amounts of water
a condition that is caused by high levels of sodium in the extracellular fluid compartment

a condition that may result from renal insufficiency or drinking extraordinary amounts of water

297

The role of ADH is to __________.

decrease water reabsorption
increase water reabsorption
produce dilute urine
lower blood pressure

increase water reabsorption

298

A patient's anxiety caused her to develop respiratory alkalosis. What breathing technique did the nurse recommend, and why?

The nurse instructed the patient to breathe faster and deeper. This will increase the patient's blood levels of carbon dioxide by eliminating less carbon dioxide from the lungs, resulting in a decrease in the blood pH.
The nurse instructed the patient to breathe faster and deeper. This will decrease the patient's blood levels of carbon dioxide by eliminating more carbon dioxide from the lungs, resulting in a decrease in the blood pH.
The nurse instructed the patient to breathe slower and deeper, and to breathe into a paper bag. This will increase the patient's blood level of carbon dioxide by eliminating less carbon dioxide from the lungs, and by breathing in the expired air which has a higher concentration of carbon dioxide. As a result, the blood pH will decrease.
The nurse instructed the patient to breathe more shallowly. This will decrease the patient's blood levels of carbon dioxide by eliminating more carbon dioxide from the lungs, resulting in a decrease in the blood pH.

The nurse instructed the patient to breathe slower and deeper, and to breathe into a paper bag. This will increase the patient's blood level of carbon dioxide by eliminating less carbon dioxide from the lungs, and by breathing in the expired air which has a higher concentration of carbon dioxide. As a result, the blood pH will decrease.

299

The term alkaline reserve is used to describe the ________ buffer system.

bicarbonate
hemoglobin
phosphate
protein

bicarbonate

300

Which of the following does not depend on the presence of electrolytes?

amount of body fat
membrane polarity
neuromuscular excitability
maintenance of osmotic relations between cells and ECF

amount of body fat

301

Select the person in the following list who would have the highest percentage of water in his or her body.

a 80-year-old man of average weight
a 25-year-old overweight female
a 6-month-old baby boy
a 25-year-old male of average weight

a 6-month-old baby boy

302

As ventilation increases and more carbon dioxide is removed from the blood, the hydrogen ion concentration of the blood decreases.

True
False

True

303

The most abundant cation in intracellular fluid is sodium.

True
False

False

304

The fluid that bathes the cells found in tissues is called __________.

interstitial fluid
intracellular fluid
electrolytic fluid
plasma

interstitial fluid

305

Which age group most commonly has fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance issues?

growing children
infants
young adults
the elderly

infants

306

The movement of fluids between cellular compartments ________.

requires active transport
requires ATP for the transport to take place
involves filtration
is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces

is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces

307

The normal pH of blood is 7.35-7.45.

True
False

True

308

How much water is generated per day from cellular metabolism?

750 ml
1500 ml
250 ml
2500 ml

250 ml

309

Prolonged hyperventilation can cause alkalosis.

True
False

True

310

What is the effect of hyperventilation on pH?

respiratory alkalosis
respiratory acidosis
metabolic acidosis
metabolic alkalosis

respiratory alkalosis

311

Festival 11 Reproductive

Chapter 27