Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 13th Edition + Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing Study Guide, T13th Edition: Ch 15 practice questions Flashcards

Set Details Share
created 8 years ago by focusonme0820
medical, nursing, medical & surgical
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
code changes based on your size selection


1. The public health nurse is presenting a health-promotion class to a group at a local community center. Which intervention most directly addresses the leading cause of cancer deaths in North America?
A) Monthly self-breast exams
B) Smoking cessation
C) Annual colonoscopies
D) Monthly testicular exams

Ans: B
Cancer is second only to cardiovascular disease as a leading cause of death in the United States. Although the numbers of cancer deaths have decreased slightly, more than 570,000 Americans were expected to die from a malignant process in 2011. The leading causes of cancer death in the United States, in order of frequency, are lung, prostate, and colorectal cancer in men and lung, breast, and colorectal cancer in women, so smoking cessation is the health promotion initiative directly related to lung cancer.


2. A nurse who works in an oncology clinic is assessing a patient who has arrived for a 2-month follow-up appointment following chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the patient’s skin appears yellow. Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign?
A) Liver function tests (LFTs)
B) Complete blood count (CBC)
C) Platelet count
D) Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

Ans: A
Yellow skin is a sign of jaundice and the liver is a common organ affected by metastatic disease. An LFT should be done to determine if the liver is functioning. A CBC, platelet count and tests of renal function would not directly assess for liver disease.


3. The school nurse is teaching a nutrition class in the local high school. One student states that he has heard that certain foods can increase the incidence of cancer. The nurse responds, “Research has shown that certain foods indeed appear to increase the risk of cancer.” Which of the following menu selections would be the best choice for potentially reducing the risks of cancer?
A) Smoked salmon and green beans
B) Pork chops and fried green tomatoes
C) Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli
D) Liver, onions, and steamed peas

Ans: C
Fruits and vegetables appear to reduce cancer risk. Salt-cured foods, such as ham and processed meats, as well as red meats, should be limited.


4. Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?
A) Yearly Pap tests
B) Testicular self-examination
C) Teaching patients to wear sunscreen
D) Screening mammograms

Ans: C
Primary prevention is concerned with reducing the risks of cancer in healthy people through practices such as use of sunscreen. Secondary prevention involves detection and screening to achieve early diagnosis, as demonstrated by Pap tests, mammograms, and testicular exams.


5. The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery?
A) Salvage surgery
B) Palliative surgery
C) Prophylactic surgery
D) Reconstructive surgery

Ans: C
Prophylactic surgery is used when there is an extensive family history and nonvital tissues are removed. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect.


6. The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing patient education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient?
A) Impaired nutritional status
B) Cognitive changes
C) Diarrhea
D) Alopecia

Ans: A
Alterations in oral mucosa, change and loss of taste, pain, and dysphasia often occur as a result of radiotherapy to the head and neck. The patient is at an increased risk of impaired nutritional status. Radiotherapy does not cause cognitive changes. Diarrhea is not a likely concern for this patient. Radiation only results in alopecia when targeted at the whole brain; radiation of other parts of the body does not lead to hair loss.


7. While a patient is receiving IV doxorubicin hydrochloride for the treatment of cancer, the nurse observes swelling and pain at the IV site. The nurse should prioritize what action?
A) Stopping the administration of the drug immediately
B) Notifying the patient’s physician
C) Continuing the infusion but decreasing the rate
D) Applying a warm compress to the infusion site

Ans: A
Doxorubicin hydrochloride is a chemotherapeutic vesicant that can cause severe tissue damage. The nurse should stop the administration of the drug immediately and then notify the patient’s physician. Ice can be applied to the site once the drug therapy has stopped.


8. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
A) Pruritis (itching)
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Altered glucose metabolism
D) Confusion

Ans: B
Nausea and vomiting, the most common side effects of chemotherapy, may persist for as long as 24 to 48 hours after its administration. Antiemetic drugs are frequently prescribed for these patients. Confusion, alterations in glucose metabolism, and pruritis are not common adverse effects.


9. A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?
A) Interrupted sleep pattern
B) Hot flashes
C) Epistaxis (nose bleed)
D) Increased weight

Ans: C
Patients with thrombocytopenia are at risk for bleeding due to decreased platelet counts. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not exhibit interrupted sleep pattern, hot flashes, or increased weight.


10. The nurse is orienting a new nurse to the oncology unit. When reviewing the safe administration of antineoplastic agents, what action should the nurse emphasize?
A) Adjust the dose to the patient’s present symptoms.
B) Wash hands with an alcohol-based cleanser following administration.
C) Use gloves and a lab coat when preparing the medication.
D) Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle.

Ans: D
The nurse should use surgical gloves and disposable long-sleeved gowns when administering antineoplastic agents. The antineoplastic wastes are disposed of as hazardous materials. Dosages are not adjusted on a short-term basis. Hand and arm hygiene must be performed before and after administering the medication.


11. A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is preparing a female patient for a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) the following day. What information should the nurse emphasize to the patient’s family and friends?
A) “Your family should likely gather at the bedside in case there’s a negative outcome.”
B) “Make sure she doesn’t eat any food in the 24 hours before the procedure.”
C) “Wear a hospital gown when you go into the patient’s room.”
D) “Do not visit if you’ve had a recent infection.”

Ans: D
Before HSCT, patients are at a high risk for infection, sepsis, and bleeding. Visitors should not visit if they have had a recent illness or vaccination. Gowns should indeed be worn, but this is secondary in importance to avoiding the patient’s contact with ill visitors. Prolonged fasting is unnecessary. Negative outcomes are possible, but the procedure would not normally be so risky as to require the family to gather at the bedside.


12. A nurse is creating a plan of care for an oncology patient and one of the identified nursing diagnoses is risk for infection related to myelosuppression. What intervention addresses the leading cause of infection-related death in oncology patients?
A) Encourage several small meals daily.
B) Provide skin care to maintain skin integrity.
C) Assist the patient with hygiene, as needed.
D) Assess the integrity of the patient’s oral mucosa regularly.

Ans: B
Nursing care for patients with skin reactions includes maintaining skin integrity, cleansing the skin, promoting comfort, reducing pain, preventing additional trauma, and preventing and managing infection. Malnutrition in oncology patients may be present, but it is not the leading cause of infection-related death. Poor hygiene does not normally cause events that result in death. Broken oral mucosa may be an avenue for infection, but it is not the leading cause of death in an oncology patient.


13. You are caring for an adult patient who has developed a mild oral yeast infection following chemotherapy. What actions should you encourage the patient to perform? Select all that apply.
A) Use a lip lubricant.
B) Scrub the tongue with a firm-bristled toothbrush.
C) Use dental floss every 24 hours.
D) Rinse the mouth with normal saline.
E) Eat spicy food to aid in eradicating the yeast.

Ans: A, C, D
Stomatitis is an inflammation of the oral cavity. The patient should be encouraged to brush the teeth with a soft toothbrush after meals, use dental floss every 24 hours, rinse with normal saline, and use a lip lubricant. Mouthwashes and hot foods should be avoided.


14. The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a patient with cancer who is preparing for HSCT. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A) Fatigue related to altered metabolic processes
B) Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to anorexia
C) Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response
D) Body image disturbance related to weight loss and anorexia

Ans: C
A priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is risk for infection related to altered immunologic response. Because the patient’s immunity is suppressed, he or she will be at a high risk for infection. The other listed nursing diagnoses are valid, but they are not as high a priority as is risk for infection.


15. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient who has developed erythema following radiation therapy. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
A) Periodically apply ice to the area.
B) Keep the area cleanly shaven.
C) Apply petroleum jelly to the affected area.
D) Avoid using soap on the treatment area.

Ans: D
Care to the affected area must focus on preventing further skin irritation, drying, and damage. Soaps, petroleum ointment, and shaving the area could worsen the erythema. Ice is also contraindicated.


16. The nurse is caring for a patient has just been given a 6-month prognosis following a diagnosis of extensive stage small-cell lung cancer. The patient states that he would like to die at home, but the team believes that the patient’s care needs are unable to be met in a home environment. What might you suggest as an alternative?
A) Discuss a referral for rehabilitation hospital.
B) Panel the patient for a personal care home.
C) Discuss a referral for acute care.
D) Discuss a referral for hospice care.

Ans: D
Hospice care can be provided in several settings. Because of the high cost associated with free-standing hospices, care is often delivered by coordinating services provided by both hospitals and the community. The primary goal of hospice care is to provide support to the patient and family. Patients who are referred to hospice care generally have fewer than 6 months to live. Each of the other listed options would be less appropriate for the patient’s physical and psychosocial needs.


17. The clinic nurse is caring for a 42-year-old male oncology patient. He complains of extreme fatigue and weakness after his first week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse would best reassure this patient?
A) “These symptoms usually result from radiation therapy; however, we will continue to monitor your laboratory and x-ray studies.”
B) “These symptoms are part of your disease and are an unfortunately inevitable part of living with cancer.”
C) “Try not to be concerned about these symptoms. Every patient feels this way after having radiation therapy.”
D) “Even though it is uncomfortable, this is a good sign. It means that only the cancer cells are dying.”

Ans: A
Fatigue and weakness result from radiation treatment and usually do not represent deterioration or disease progression. The symptoms associated with radiation therapy usually decrease after therapy ends. The symptoms may concern the patient and should not be belittled. Radiation destroys both cancerous and normal cells.


18. A 16-year-old female patient experiences alopecia resulting from chemotherapy, prompting the nursing diagnoses of disturbed body image and situational low self-esteem. What action by the patient would best indicate that she is meeting the goal of improved body image and self-esteem?
A) The patient requests that her family bring her makeup and wig.
B) The patient begins to discuss the future with her family.
C) The patient reports less disruption from pain and discomfort.
D) The patient cries openly when discussing her disease.

Ans: A
Requesting her wig and makeup indicates that the patient with alopecia is becoming interested in looking her best and that her body image and self-esteem may be improving. The other options may indicate that other nursing goals are being met, but they do not necessarily indicate improved body image and self-esteem.


19. A 50-year-old man diagnosed with leukemia will begin chemotherapy. What would the nurse do to combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy?
A) Administer an antiemetic.
B) Administer an antimetabolite.
C) Administer a tumor antibiotic.
D) Administer an anticoagulant.

Ans: A
Antiemetics are used to treat nausea and vomiting, the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy. Antihistamines and certain steroids are also used to treat nausea and vomiting. Antimetabolites and tumor antibiotics are classes of chemotherapeutic medications. Anticoagulants slow blood clotting time, thereby helping to prevent thrombi and emboli.


20. A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
A) “Smoking is the reason you are here.”
B) “The doctor left orders for you not to smoke.”
C) “You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?”
D) “Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated.”

Ans: C
Stating “You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?” acknowledges the patient’s feelings and encourages him to assess his previous behavior. Saying “Smoking is the reason you are here” belittles the patient. Citing the doctor’s orders does not address the patient’s anxiety. Sanctioning smoking would be highly detrimental to this patient.


21. An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patient’s wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?
A) Malignant cells contain more fibronectin than normal body cells.
B) Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens.
C) Chromosomes contained in cancer cells are more durable and stable than those of normal cells.
D) The nuclei of cancer cells are unusually large, but regularly shaped.

Ans: B
The cell membranes are altered in cancer cells, which affect fluid movement in and out of the cell. The cell membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called tumor-specific antigens. Malignant cellular membranes also contain less fibronectin, a cellular cement. Typically, nuclei of cancer cells are large and irregularly shaped (pleomorphism). Fragility of chromosomes is commonly found when cancer cells are analyzed.


22. A patient’s most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that his lung cancer has metastasized to his bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the patient’s cancer cells spread?
A) Hematologic spread
B) Lymphatic circulation
C) Invasion
D) Angiogenesis

Ans: B
Lymph and blood are key mechanisms by which cancer cells spread. Lymphatic spread (the transport of tumor cells through the lymphatic circulation) is the most common mechanism of metastasis.


23. The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.
A) Rate of growth
B) Ability to cause death
C) Size of cells
D) Cell contents
E) Ability to spread

Ans: A, B, E
Benign and malignant cells differ in many cellular growth characteristics, including the method and rate of growth, ability to metastasize or spread, general effects, destruction of tissue, and ability to cause death. Cells come in many sizes, both benign and malignant. Cell contents are basically the same, but they behave differently.


24. A 54-year-old has a diagnosis of breast cancer and is tearfully discussing her diagnosis with the nurse. The patient states, “They tell me my cancer is malignant, while my coworker’s breast tumor was benign. I just don’t understand at all.” When preparing a response to this patient, the nurse should be cognizant of what characteristic that distinguishes malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type?
A) Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells
B) Different proteins in the cell membrane
C) Differing size of the cells
D) Different molecular structure in the cells

Ans: B
The cell membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called tumor-specific antigens (e.g., carcinoembryonic antigen [CEA] and prostate-specific antigen [PSA]), which develop over time as the cells become less differentiated (mature). These proteins distinguish malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type.


25. An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?
A) Adhering to primary tumor cells
B) Inducing mutation of cells of another organ
C) Phagocytizing healthy cells
D) Invading healthy host tissues

Ans: D
Invasion, which refers to the growth of the primary tumor into the surrounding host tissues, occurs in several ways. Malignant cells are less likely to adhere than are normal cells. Malignant cells do not cause healthy cells to mutate. Malignant cells do not eat other cells.


26. The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult resident who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurse’s interview with the patient, she admits that she drinks around 20 ounces of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put her at risk for? Select all that apply.
A) Malignant melanoma
B) Brain cancer
C) Breast cancer
D) Esophageal cancer
E) Liver cancer

Ans: C, D, E
Dietary substances that appear to increase the risk of cancer include fats, alcohol, salt-cured or smoked meats, nitrate- and nitrite-containing foods, and red and processed meats. Alcohol increases the risk of cancers of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, esophagus, liver, colorectum, and breast.


27. The clinic nurse is caring for a patient whose grandmother and sister have both had breast cancer. She requested a screening test to determine her risk of developing breast cancer and it has come back positive. The patient asks you what she can do to help prevent breast cancer from occurring. What would be your best response?
A) “Research has shown that eating a healthy diet can provide all the protection you need against breast cancer.”
B) “Research has shown that taking the drug tamoxifen can reduce your chance of breast cancer.”
C) “Research has shown that exercising at least 30 minutes every day can reduce your chance of breast cancer.”
D) “Research has shown that there is little you can do to reduce your risk of breast cancer if you have a genetic predisposition.”

Ans: B
Large-scale breast cancer prevention studies supported by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) indicated that chemoprevention with the medication tamoxifen can reduce the incidence of breast cancer by 50% in women at high risk for breast cancer. A healthy diet and regular exercise are important, but not wholly sufficient preventive measures.


28. A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?
A) Disease prophylaxis
B) Risk reduction
C) Secondary prevention
D) Tertiary prevention

Ans: C
Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection activities that seek to identify early stage cancer in individuals who lack signs and symptoms suggestive of cancer. Primary prevention is concerned with reducing the risks of disease through health promotion strategies. Tertiary prevention is the care and rehabilitation of the patient after having been diagnosed with cancer.


29. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?
A) Lymphadenectomy
B) Needle biopsy
C) Open biopsy
D) Sentinel node biopsy

Ans: D
Sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB), also known as sentinel lymph node mapping, is a minimally invasive surgical approach that, in some instances, has replaced more invasive lymph node dissections (lymphadenectomy) and their associated complications such as lymphedema and delayed healing. SLNB has been widely adopted for regional lymph node staging in selected cases of melanoma and breast cancer.


30. You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?
A) Palliative
B) Reconstructive
C) Salvage
D) Prophylactic

Ans: A
When cure is not possible, the goals of treatment are to make the patient as comfortable as possible and to promote quality of life as defined by the patient and his or her family. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach. Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are at increased risk to develop cancer.


31. The nurse is caring for a patient with an advanced stage of breast cancer and the patient has recently learned that her cancer has metastasized. The nurse enters the room and finds the patient struggling to breath and the nurse’s rapid assessment reveals that the patient’s jugular veins are distended. The nurse should suspect the development of what oncologic emergency?
A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)
C) Spinal cord compression
D) Metastatic tumor of the neck

Ans: B
SVCS occurs when there is gradual or sudden impaired venous drainage giving rise to progressive shortness of breath (dyspnea), cough, hoarseness, chest pain, and facial swelling; edema of the neck, arms, hands, and thorax and reported sensation of skin tightness and difficulty swallowing; as well as possibly engorged and distended jugular, temporal, and arm veins. Increased intracranial pressure may be a part of SVCS, but it is not what is causing the patient’s symptoms. The scenario does not mention a problem with the patient’s spinal cord. The scenario says that the cancer has metastasized, but not that it has metastasized to the neck.


32. The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patient’s risk of hypercalcemia?
A) Stool softeners are contraindicated.
B) Laxatives should be taken daily.
C) Consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily.
D) Restrict calcium intake.

Ans: C
The nurse should identify patients at risk for hypercalcemia, assess for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, and educate the patient and family. The nurse should teach at-risk patients to recognize and report signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia and encourage patients to consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily unless contraindicated by existing renal or cardiac disease. Also, the nurse should explain the use of dietary and pharmacologic interventions, such as stool softeners and laxatives for constipation, and advise patients to maintain nutritional intake without restricting normal calcium intake.


33. The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse’s assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?
A) Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)
B) Syndrome of inappropriate antiduretic hormone (SIADH)
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D) Hypercalcemia

Ans: A
TLS is a potentially fatal complication that occurs spontaneously or more commonly following radiation, biotherapy, or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia, lymphoma, and small cell lung cancer. DIC, SIADH and hypercalcemia are less likely complications following this treatment and diagnosis.


34. The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?
A) Cognitive deficits
B) Impaired wound healing
C) Cardiac tamponade
D) Tumor lysis syndrome

Ans: B
Combining other treatment methods, such as radiation and chemotherapy, with surgery contributes to postoperative complications, such as infection, impaired wound healing, altered pulmonary or renal function, and the development of deep vein thrombosis.


35. An oncology patient has just returned from the postanesthesia care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patient’s plan of nursing care should prioritize which of the following?
A) Assess the patient hourly for signs of compartment syndrome.
B) Assess the patient’s fine motor skills once per shift.
C) Assess the patient’s wound for dehiscence every 4 hours.
D) Maintain the patient’s head of bed at 45 degrees or more at all times.

Ans: C
Postoperatively, the nurse assesses the patient’s responses to the surgery and monitors the patient for possible complications, such as infection, bleeding, thrombophlebitis, wound dehiscence, fluid and electrolyte imbalance, and organ dysfunction. Fine motor skills are unlikely to be affected by surgery and compartment syndrome is a complication of fracture casting, not abdominal surgery. There is no need to maintain a high head of bed.


36. The hospice nurse has just admitted a new patient to the program. What principle guides hospice care?
A) Care addresses the needs of the patient as well as the needs of the family.
B) Care is focused on the patient centrally and the family peripherally.
C) The focus of all aspects of care is solely on the patient.
D) The care team prioritizes the patient’s physical needs and the family is responsible for the patient’s emotional needs.

Ans: A
The focus of hospice care is on the family as well as the patient. The family is not solely responsible for the patient’s emotional well-being


37. A 60-year-old patient with a diagnosis of prostate cancer is scheduled to have an interstitial implant for high-dose radiation (HDR). What safety measure should the nurse include in this patient’s subsequent plan of care?
A) Limit the time that visitors spend at the patient’s bedside.
B) Teach the patient to perform all aspects of basic care independently.
C) Assign male nurses to the patient’s care whenever possible.
D) Situate the patient in a shared room with other patients receiving brachytherapy.

Ans: A
To limit radiation exposure, visitors should generally not spend more than 30 minutes with the patient. Pregnant nurses or visitors should not be near the patient, but there is no reason to limit care to nurses who are male. All necessary care should be provided to the patient and a single room should be used.


38. An oncology patient has begun to experience skin reactions to radiation therapy, prompting the nurse to make the diagnosis Impaired Skin Integrity: erythematous reaction to radiation therapy. What intervention best addresses this nursing diagnosis?
A) Apply an ice pack or heating pad PRN to relieve pain and pruritis
B) Avoid skin contact with water whenever possible
C) Apply phototherapy PRN
D) Avoid rubbing or scratching the affected area

Ans: D
Rubbing and or scratching will lead to additional skin irritation, damage, and increased risk of infection. Extremes of hot, cold, and light should be avoided. No need to avoid contact with water.


39. A patient with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to tolerate oral food and fluid intake and her tumor location precludes the use of enteral feeding. What intervention should the nurse identify as best meeting this patient’s nutritional needs?
A) Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV
B) TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter
C) Insertion of an NG tube for administration of feeds
D) Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration until treatment completion

Ans: B
If malabsorption is severe, or the cancer involves the upper GI tract, parenteral nutrition may be necessary. TPN is administered by way of a central line, not a peripheral IV. An NG would be contraindicated for this patient. Long-term NPO status would result in malnutrition.


40. An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means?
A) Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes
B) Focusing the patient’s immune system exclusively on the tumor
C) Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy
D) Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient

Ans: D
BRFs alter the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the cancer patient (host) to provide a therapeutic benefit. They do not necessarily increase white cell production or focus the immune system solely on the tumor. BRFs do not potentiate radiotherapy and chemotherapy.