Review 3 - Medical Micro

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1

In Griffith’s experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough non-encapsulated Streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated Streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated Streptococci. What is the term that describes this process?

  1. Transduction
  2. Transformation
  3. Conjugation
  4. Cloning

Transformation

2

Which of the following addition have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology?

  1. DNA codes for proteins
  2. RNA can be used to regulate gene function
  3. DNA information cannot be converted into DNA information
  4. All of these

RNA can be used to regulate gene function

3

Which of the following is not true of transposons?

  1. Are always part of plasmids
  2. Can transfer drug resistance
  3. Can change the genome
  4. Can change pigmentation
  5. Can replace damaged DNA

Are always part of plasmids

4

The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by __________.

  1. Conjugation
  2. Transmission
  3. Transformation
  4. Transduction
  5. Transposons

Transposons

5

A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of __________.

  1. Conjugation
  2. Creation of an Hfr cell
  3. Generalized transduction
  4. Specialized transduction
  5. None of these choices are correct

Generalized transduction

6

The development of a virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in __________.

  1. Generalized transduction
  2. Transformation
  3. Specialized transduction
  4. Bacterial conjugation
  5. All of the choices are correct

Specialized transduction

7

The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is __________.

  1. Transmission
  2. Transduction
  3. Conjugation
  4. Mitosis
  5. Transformation

Transformation

8

Hfr transfer involves all of the following except __________.

  1. F factor is part of the F+ donor chromosome
  2. High frequency transfer
  3. A pilus connection between F+ and F- cells
  4. Gene integration into the bacterial chromosome
  5. Plasmid gene transfer

Plasmid gene transfer

9

Which of the following is not true of conjugation?

  1. Transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules
  2. Transfers genes for drug resistance
  3. Transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule
  4. Involves direct contact between cells
  5. The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes

Transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule

10

Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?

  1. Mitosis
  2. Transduction
  3. Conjugation
  4. Transformation
  5. None of the above

Mitosis

11

Which cell can transfer the most DNA?

  1. B cell
  2. Hfr cell
  3. F+ cell
  4. F- cell
  5. R cell

Hfr cell

12

Bacterial conjugation involves __________.

  1. New progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells
  2. Bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell
  3. Naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell are taken up by a recipient cell
  4. A donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus
  5. None of the choices are correct

A donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus

13

The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called __________.

  1. Excision repair
  2. Transformation
  3. Frameshift
  4. Back-mutation
  5. Transduction

Excision repair

14

A screening system called the _________ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.

  1. Ames
  2. Iowa
  3. Mutation
  4. Cancer
  5. Koch

Ames

15

What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for?

  1. Missense
  2. Silent
  3. Point
  4. Nonsense
  5. Back

Silent

16

A frameshift is caused by __________ mutations?

  1. Deletion and insertion
  2. Insertion and nonsense
  3. Missense and nonsense
  4. Missense and insertion
  5. Nonsense and deletion

Deletion and insertion

17

If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)?

  1. Deletion
  2. Insertion
  3. Missense
  4. Nonsense
  5. Silent

Nonsense

18

If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT?

  1. Deletion
  2. Missense
  3. Nonsense
  4. Silent
  5. Insertion

Missense

19

If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CATE ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequences to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T?

  1. Insertion
  2. Nonsense
  3. Silent
  4. Missense
  5. Deletion

Insertion

20

The most serious type of mutation is a __________.

  1. Frameshift mutation
  2. Silent mutation
  3. All the choices are equally serious
  4. Back mutation
  5. Point mutation

Frameshift mutation

21

A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a __________.

  1. Missense mutation
  2. Silent mutation
  3. Back mutation
  4. Nonsense mutation
  5. Point mutation

Nonsense mutation

22

Repressible operons require that __________ bind to the repressor before it can bind to the operator.

  1. The substrate
  2. A coenzyme
  3. The reactant
  4. The product
  5. A cofactor

The product

23

Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks __________ from initiating transcription.

  1. rRNA
  2. DNA polymerase III
  3. RNA polymerase
  4. DNA polymerase I
  5. mRNA

RNA polymerase

24

The lactose repressor _________.

  1. Is transcribed with the structure lac genes
  2. Is inactivated by binding lactose
  3. Requires lactose for its transcription
  4. Is activated by binding lactose
  5. None of the choices are correct

Is inactivated by binding lactose

25

Full induction of the lactose operon requires _________.

  1. Lactose and glucose present
  2. Lactose present
  3. Lactose and arabinose present
  4. Lactose present without glucose
  5. All of the choices induce the lactose operon

Lactose present without glucose

26

Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by _________.

  1. Substrate bound to promoter
  2. Corepressor and repressor binding to operator
  3. Repressor alone bound to operator
  4. Substrate bound repressor
  5. None of the choices are correct

Corepressor and repressor binding to operator

27

Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires _________.

  1. Repressor alone bound to operator
  2. Co repressor and repressor binding to operator
  3. Substrate bound to repressor
  4. Substrate bound to promoter
  5. None of the choices are correct

Substrate bound to repressor

28

The gene of an operon that codes for a protein repressor is called the _________.

  1. Promoter
  2. Structural locus
  3. Regulator
  4. Operator
  5. None of the choices are correct

Regulator

29

Which is incorrect about inducible operons?

  1. Are often for catabolic pathways
  2. Include the lac operon
  3. Are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme
  4. Have genes turned off by a buildup of end product
  5. Are normally turned off

Have genes turned off by a buildup of end product

30

Split genes _________.

  1. Are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
  2. Only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA
  3. Use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons
  4. Have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region
  5. All of the choices are correct

Use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons

31

A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an _________.

  1. Exon
  2. Intron
  3. Promoter
  4. Operon
  5. Operator

Intron

32

Which of the following is not associated with a prokaryotic ribosome?

  1. Small unit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds
  2. Has an amino acid (A) site
  3. Is a 70s
  4. Has a peptide (P) site
  5. Has an exit site

Small unit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds

33

Which of the following is incorrect about termination of codons?

  1. Are also called nonsense codons
  2. Include UAA, UAG, UGA
  3. Do not have corresponding tRNA
  4. Include AUG
  5. Where the bond between the final tRNA and the growing polypeptide is broken

Include AUG

34

The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except _________.

  1. Participate only in translation
  2. Contain codons within their rRNA molecules
  3. Use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding
  4. Shift toward the 3’ end of the mRNA strand from one codon to the next
  5. Bind to the 5’ end of mRNA

Contain codons within their rRNA molecules

35

If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is _________.

  1. ACG
  2. GCA
  3. UGC
  4. CGT
  5. CGU

CGU

36

Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?

  1. Contains a binding site for an amino acid
  2. Has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon
  3. Initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC
  4. Initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan
  5. An anticodon is complementary to a codon

Initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan

37

RNA polymerase binds to the _________.

  1. Termination sequence
  2. Start codon
  3. Promoter sequence
  4. Regulation sequence
  5. None of the choices are correct

Promoter sequence

38

The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate _________.

  1. Operon
  2. Exon
  3. Intron
  4. Promoter
  5. Operator

Promoter

39

All of the following pertain to transcription except _________.

  1. Requires RNA polymerase
  2. Is a process of protein synthesis
  3. Occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm
  4. Requires a template DNA strand
  5. Occurs before translation

Occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm

40

RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because on RNA _________.

  1. Has uracil
  2. Does not have thymine
  3. Has ribose
  4. Is typically one strand of nucleotides
  5. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

41

This molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene of the DNA template strand _________.

  1. Primer RNA
  2. Ribozymes
  3. Ribosomal RNA
  4. Messenger RNA
  5. Transfer RNA

Messenger RNA

42

The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called _________.

  1. Primer RNA
  2. Ribosomal RNA
  3. Transfer RNA
  4. Ribozymes
  5. Messenger RNA

Transfer RNA

43

The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a(n) _________.

  1. Intron
  2. Triplet
  3. Exon
  4. Codon
  5. Anticodon

Codon

44

Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one _________.

  1. Nucleotide
  2. Protein
  3. Purine
  4. Amino acid
  5. None of the choices are correct

Amino acid

45

A primer of _________ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.

  1. Polymerase III
  2. DNA
  3. RNA
  4. Helicase
  5. Polymerase I

RNA

46

Replication of DNA begins at a(n) _________.

  1. Uracil-adenine rich area
  2. Guanine-cytosine rich area
  3. Adenine-cytosine rich area
  4. Guanine-adenine rich area
  5. Adenine-thymine rich area

Adenine-thymine rich area

47

A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n) _________.

  1. Regeneration
  2. Translation
  3. Alteration
  4. Mutation
  5. Transcription

Mutation

48

DNA Polymerase III _________.

  1. Synthesizes primer
  2. Removes primer
  3. Proofreads new DNA
  4. Joins Okazaki fragments
  5. Unzips the DNA helix

Proofreads new DNA

49

DNA Polymerase I _________.

  1. Adds bases to new DNA chain
  2. Proofreads DNA chain
  3. Removes primers
  4. Seals DNA gaps
  5. All of the choices are correct

Removes primers

50

Helicase __________.

  1. Unwinds DNA
  2. Unwinds RNA
  3. Winds RNA
  4. Supercoils DNA
  5. None of the choices are correct

Unwinds DNA

51

Helicase _________.

  1. Unwinds RNA
  2. Supercoils DNA
  3. Unwinds DNA
  4. Winds RNA
  5. None of the choices are correct

Unwinds DNA

52

DNA gyrase _________.

  1. Cleaves DNA
  2. Supercoils DNA
  3. Unwinds DNA
  4. Joins free DNA ends
  5. None of the choices are correct

Cleaves DNA

53

The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the _________.

  1. Replication fork
  2. Primer
  3. Okazaki fragment
  4. Template
  5. Rolling circle

Replication fork

54

The enzyme that can proofreads replicating DNA, detects incorrect bases, excises them, and correctly replaces them is _________.

  1. DNA gyrase
  2. Primase
  3. DNA ligase
  4. DNA helicase
  5. DNA polymerase

DNA polymerase

55

The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is _________.

  1. DNA gyrase
  2. DNA polymerase
  3. DNA helicase
  4. DNA ligase
  5. Primase

DNA gyrase

56

DNA polymerase III _________.

  1. Is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis
  2. Synthesizes new DNA only in the 5’ to 3’ direction
  3. Synthesizes an RNA primer
  4. Cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand
  5. All of the choices are correct

Synthesizes new DNA only in the 5’ to 3’ direction

57

Semiconservative replication refers to _________.

  1. One helix strand that runs from 5’ to 3’ direction and the other strand runs from the 3’ to the 5’ direction
  2. Each base bonding at the 1’ position of the sugar
  3. An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule
  4. A purine always bonding to the pyrimidine
  5. None of the choices are correct

An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule

58

During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _________ for synthesis of new DNA strands.

  1. Copy point
  2. Template
  3. Scaffold
  4. Reservoir
  5. Comparison molecule

Template

59

Structural genes code for _________.

  1. Ribosomal RNA molecules
  2. Transfer RNA molecules
  3. Gene expression elements
  4. Cellular proteins
  5. All of the choices are correct

Cellular proteins

60

The duplication of a cell’s DNA is called _________.

  1. Transcription
  2. Mutation
  3. Replication
  4. Translation
  5. Mitosis

Replication

61

Base pairs in DNA are held together by _________ bonds.

  1. Hydrogen
  2. Sulfhydryl
  3. Non polar covalent
  4. Polar covalent
  5. Peptide

Hydrogen

62

Each nucleotide is composed of _________.

  1. One phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, one sugar
  2. Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, one sugar
  3. One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar
  4. Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars
  5. One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, two sugars

One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar

63

All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except _________.

  1. Allows variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information
  2. Adenine pairs with thymine
  3. Cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines
  4. Form pairs by hydrogen bonding
  5. Guanine pairs with uracil

Guanine pairs with uracil

64

The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to _________.

  1. A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine
  2. Each base bonding at the 1’ position of the sugar
  3. One helix strand that runs from the 5’ to 3’ direction and the other strand runs from the 3’ to 5’ direction
  4. An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule
  5. None of the choices are correct

One helix strand that runs from the 5’ to 3’ direction and the other strand runs from the 3’ to 5’ direction

65

Which is incorrect about purines?

  1. Are nitrogenous bases
  2. Only found in DNA, not in RNA
  3. Always paired with a specific pyrimidine
  4. Include adenine and guanine
  5. Found within nucleotides

Only found in DNA, not in RNA

66

The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits are called _________.

  1. Histones
  2. mRNA
  3. Nucleotides
  4. Amino acids
  5. Polymerases

Nucleotides

67

The expression genetic traits is the __________.

  1. Phenotype
  2. Genotype
  3. Proteome
  4. Genome
  5. Proteotype

Phenotype

68

Each _________ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one functional product.

  1. Intron
  2. Exon
  3. Operator
  4. Gene
  5. Triplet

Gene

69

A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the _________.

  1. rRNA
  2. Nucleolus
  3. Nuclear membrane
  4. mRNA
  5. Histone

Histone

70

The _________ is all of the genetic material of a cell.

  1. Prophage
  2. Proteome
  3. Chromosome
  4. Plasmid
  5. Genome

Genome

71

Which of the following is not true of an organism’s genotype?

  1. Are the expressed traits governed by the genes
  2. Is inherited
  3. Are regulatory genes controlling gene expression
  4. Are structural genes coding for proteins
  5. Are genes coding for RNA

Are the expressed traits governed by the genes

72

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have _________.

  1. Chromosomes in a nucleus
  2. Elongated, not circular, chromosomes
  3. Several to many chromosomes
  4. Histone proteins
  5. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

73

Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include _________.

  1. Chromosomes
  2. Chloroplast DNA
  3. Plasmids
  4. Mictochondrial DNA
  5. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

74

If you have the sequence of mRNA that is AUAUGC, then the DNA antisense strand is _________.

  1. TATACG
  2. UAUACG
  3. AUAUGC
  4. CGUAUA

TATACG

75

The enzyme _________ adds three nucleotides of DNA in the _________ direction when DNA is being semi-conservatively replicated.

  1. DNA polymerase III, 5’ --> 3’
  2. DNA polymerase I, 5’ --> 3’
  3. DNA polymerase III, 3’ --> 5’
  4. DNA polymerase I, 3’ --> 5’
  5. None of the above

DNA polymerase III, 5’ --> 3’

76

When determining the sequence of nucleotides in an unknown sample of DNA, which method is used to sequence the DNA?

  1. PCR
  2. Southern blot hybridization
  3. Microarray analysis
  4. Cloning
  5. The Sanger Method

The Sanger Method

77

All of the following are correct about DNA fingerprinting, except _________.

  1. It cannot be used on specimens older than five years
  2. It can be used on hair and saliva
  3. It can be used to analyze evidence when only minute amounts of DNA are found
  4. It displays the unique pattern of an individual’s DNA fragments
  5. It is routine to use it as trial evidence in the U.S.

It cannot be used on specimens older than five years

78

When DNA is heated to just below boiling (90oC – 95oC).

  1. The two DNA strands separate completely
  2. The sugar, phosphate and base come apart in each nucleotide
  3. The helix unwinds but hydrogen bonds between the bases remain intact
  4. The sugar phosphate backbone of the DNA strands break
  5. Nothing happens until the boiling point is reached (100oC)

The two DNA strands separate completely

79

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields, except _________.

  1. Medicine
  2. Gene mapping
  3. Forensics
  4. Evolutionary studies
  5. None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields

None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields

80

All of the following are characteristics that make plasmids good cloning vectors, except _________.

  1. They can be transferred into appropriate host cells
  2. They are well characterized
  3. The can accept a relatively large amount of foreign DNA
  4. The are small
  5. They can carry genetic markers, such as antibiotic resistance genes

The can accept a relatively large amount of foreign DNA

81

The Southern Blot technique detects _________.

  1. RNA
  2. Recombinant DNA
  3. Specific genetic marker sequence on genes
  4. DNA
  5. Proteins

Specific genetic marker sequence on genes

82

Which of the following methods determines which genes are actively transcribed in a cell under a variety of conditions?

  1. Western blot
  2. Gene mapping
  3. Microarray analysis
  4. DNA fingerprinting
  5. Antisense therapy

Microarray analysis

83

Which technique will hopefully be used to identify and devise treatments for diseases based on the genetic profile of the disease?

  1. DNA sequencing
  2. Microarray analysis
  3. Antisense technology
  4. PCR
  5. Genetic engineering

Microarray analysis

84

Which of the following is less subject to degradation than is chromosomal DNA and is used as an evolutionary time clock?

  1. mRNA
  2. tRNA
  3. mitochondrial DNA
  4. rRNA
  5. chloroplast DNA

mitochondrial DNA

85

Which of the following drugs is/are produced by genetic engineering and approved for human use?

  1. Factor VIII
  2. Human growth hormone
  3. Insulin
  4. Tissue plasminogen activator
  5. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

86

All of the following are desirable features in a microbial cloning host, except it _________.

  1. Has a slow growth rate
  2. Has a genome that is well delineated
  3. Can be grown in large quantities
  4. Is capable of accepting plasmid vectors
  5. Will secrete a high yield of proteins from expressed foreign genes

Has a slow growth rate

87

This is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequences of the strands at specific loci _________.

  1. Gene therapy
  2. Cloning
  3. DNA fingerprinting
  4. Antisense therapeutic
  5. None of the choices are correct

DNA fingerprinting

88

Both DNA sequencing and polymerase chain reactions require special _________ to initiate synthesis of a new DNA molecule.

  1. RNA promotes
  2. Primers
  3. Fluorescent nucleotides
  4. Thermophilic polymerases
  5. Endonucleases

Primers

89

When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the techniques is called _________.

  1. Gene therapy
  2. Antisense therapeutic
  3. Cloning
  4. DNA fingerprinting
  5. None of the choices are correct

Gene therapy

90

Transgenic animals _________.

  1. Can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins
  2. Will pass the genes on to their offspring
  3. Are often obtained from germ line engineering
  4. Commonly include mice
  5. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

91

Recombinant strains of this organism are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects _________.

  1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Thermus aquatieus
  4. Pseudomonas fluorescens
  5. Pseudomonas syringae

Pseudomonas fluorescens

92

The commercial product Frostban contains a genetically engineered strain of _________.

  1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Thermus aquatieus
  4. Pseudomonas syringae
  5. Pseudomonas fluorescens

Pseudomonas syringae

93

Which of the following is a serious concern when performing PCR?

  1. It is a very time consuming process
  2. Exposure to radiation by the lab personnel
  3. Restriction enzymes are difficult to obtain in adequate quantities
  4. High temperature needed may denature the DNA
  5. Introduction and amplification of contaminating DNA

Introduction and amplification of contaminating DNA

94

Which step involves transformation?

  1. Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
  2. Target DNA removed from cells and isolated
  3. Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host
  4. Cloning host takes up plasmid
  5. Desired protein is produced by cloning host

Cloning host takes up plasmid

95

In order to ensure compatibility between the target DNA and the plasmid DNA _________.

  1. Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
  2. Target DNA removed from cells and isolated
  3. Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host
  4. Cloning host is treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid
  5. Desired protein is produced by cloning host

Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease

96

The primers in PCR are _________.

  1. DNA polymerases
  2. Short RNA strands
  3. Synthetic DNA oligonucleotides
  4. Reverse transcriptases
  5. Bacterial enzymes

Synthetic DNA oligonucleotides

97

Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are _________.

  1. Used as cloning vectors
  2. Principal sources of restriction endonucleases
  3. Sources of heat stable DNA polymerases
  4. Genetically engineered bacteria
  5. None of the choices are correct

Sources of heat stable DNA polymerases

98

The fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of _________.

  1. DNA
  2. Specific genetic marker sequence on genes
  3. RNA
  4. Proteins
  5. Recombinant DNA

Specific genetic marker sequence on genes

99

The Western Blot technique detects _________.

  1. RNA
  2. Recombinant DNA
  3. DNA
  4. Specific genetic marker sequences on genes
  5. Proteins

Proteins

100

The function of the didcoxy (dd) nucleotides that are used in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing is to _________.

  1. Denature DNA into single strands
  2. Incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation
  3. Be a fluorescent tag
  4. Serve as primers
  5. None of the choices are correct

Incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation

101

Which PCR step synthesizes complementary DNA strands?

  1. Heat target DNA to 94oC
  2. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72oC
  3. Cool DNA to between 50oC and 65oC
  4. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling
  5. Add primers

Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72oC

102

Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

  1. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72oC
  2. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling
  3. Add primers
  4. Heat target DNA to 94oC
  5. Cool DNA to between 50oC and 65oC

Heat target DNA to 94oC

103

DNA polymerases used in PCR _________.

  1. Include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase
  2. Must remain active at very cold temperatures
  3. Are labeled with fluorescent dyes
  4. Use an RNA template to make complementary DNA
  5. All of the choices are correct

Are labeled with fluorescent dyes

104

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by _________.

  1. Southern blot
  2. Polymerase chain reaction
  3. Gene probes
  4. DNA sequencing
  5. All of the choices are correct

Polymerase chain reaction

105

Gene probes can be labeled for detection with _________.

  1. Fluorescent dyes
  2. Radioisotopes
  3. Enzymes
  4. All of the choices are correct
  5. None of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

106

Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5’ to 3’ direction on one strand and the 3’ to 5’ direction on the other strand are _________.

  1. Reverse transcriptases
  2. Ligases
  3. Palindromes
  4. Dna polymerases
  5. Restriction endonucleases

Palindromes

107

EcoRI and HindIII are _________.

  1. Reverse transcriptases
  2. DNA polymerases
  3. Restriction endonucleases
  4. Palindromes
  5. Ligases

Restriction endonucleases

108

Geneticists can make complimentary DNA copies of messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA by using _________.

  1. Palindromes
  2. DNA polymerases
  3. Reverse transcriptases
  4. Restriction endonucleases
  5. Ligases

Reverse transcriptases

109

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called _________.

  1. Palindromes
  2. Restriction endonucleases
  3. Reverse transciptases
  4. DNA polymerases
  5. Ligases

Restriction endonucleases

110

A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is _________.

  1. Gel electrophoresis
  2. Biotechnology
  3. Gene probes
  4. Recombinant DNA
  5. Genetic engineering

Gel electrophoresis

111

Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are _________.

  1. Biotechnology
  2. Recombinant DNA
  3. Genetic engineering
  4. Gel electrophoresis
  5. Gene probes

Gene probes

112

The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called _________.

  1. Gel electrophoresis
  2. Genetic engineering
  3. Gene probes
  4. Biotechnology
  5. Recombinant DNA

Recombinant DNA

113

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called _________.

  1. Biotechnology
  2. Recombinant DNA
  3. Gene probes
  4. Genetic engineering
  5. Gel electrophoresis

Genetic engineering

114

The use of an organism’s biochemical processes to create a product is _________.

  1. Genetic engineering
  2. Recombinant DNA
  3. Gel electrophoresis
  4. Biotechnology
  5. Gene probes

Biotechnology

115

Commercial products containing which types of chemicals are more effective at killing microorganisms?

  1. Bacteriostatic
  2. Lead
  3. Bacteriocidal
  4. Carbohydrate
  5. None of these are correct

Bacteriocidal

116

Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation to inanimate surfaces only removes or kills vegetative bacteria. The term that best describes this action is _________.

  1. Disinfection
  2. Sterilization
  3. Antisepsis
  4. Degermation
  5. None of these are correct

Disinfection

117

Which of these metals have antimicrobial properties associated with them?

  1. Silver
  2. Gold
  3. Aluminum
  4. Tin
  5. Both A and B are correct

Both A and B are correct

118

Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation?

  1. Alcohol
  2. Hydrogen peroxide
  3. Ultraviolet light
  4. Detergents
  5. Crystal violet

Alcohol

119

All of the following are correct about the autoclave, except _________.

  1. Sterilization is achieved when steam condenses against the objects in the chamber and raises their temperatures
  2. It is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances
  3. It is the temperature that kills the microbes, not the pressure itself
  4. The duration of the process depends on how full the chamber is
  5. It is important not to overload the chamber

It is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances

120

Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?

  1. Salmonella
  2. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. Hemophilus influenza
  5. Pseudomonas

Pseudomonas

121

Historically, which of the following was instilled into the eyes of newborn infants to prevent gonococcal infections?

  1. Mercurochrome
  2. Triclosan
  3. Silver nitrate
  4. Phenol
  5. Formaldehyde

Silver nitrate

122

All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization, except _________.

  1. Lyophilization
  2. Gamma radiation
  3. Ethanol
  4. Dry oven
  5. Triclosan

Lyophilization

123

All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except _________.

  1. It can inhibit the sprouting of white potatoes
  2. It makes the food less nutritious
  3. It can kill bacterial pathogens on the food
  4. In can reduce the number of food-borne deaths each year
  5. It can kill insects on the food

It makes the food less nutritious

124

ll of the following are correct about food irradiation, except _________.

  1. The World Health Organization does not endorse this process
  2. No irradiated food can be sold without clear labeling
  3. food is not made radioactive by the process
  4. it is approved in the U.S. for beef, chicken, and pork
  5. it can lead to a longer shelf life for the irradiated food

The World Health Organization does not endorse this process

125

Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant?

  1. Cresol
  2. Glutaraldehyde
  3. Silver nitrate
  4. Benzalkonium chloride
  5. Triclosan

Glutaraldehyde

126

Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses?

  1. Hypochlorite
  2. Hydrogen peroxide
  3. Hexachlorophene
  4. Glutaraldehyde
  5. Alcohol

Hydrogen peroxide

127

Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced?

  1. Hydrogen peroxide
  2. Chloramines
  3. Sodium iodide
  4. Quaternary ammonium compounds
  5. Fluorine

Chloramines

128

Ethylene oxide is _________.

  1. Used as an antiseptic against anaerobes
  2. The active agent in house hold bleach
  3. Only effective with high heat
  4. Sporicidal
  5. A halogen

Sporicidal

129

All of the following are correct about detergents, except _________.

  1. They are active in the presence of organic matter
  2. They are ineffective against the tuberculosis bacteria
  3. They are polar molecules that act as surfactants
  4. The most effective ones are positively charged.
  5. In low concentrations, they are bacteriostatic

They are active in the presence of organic matter

130

The chemical agents that produce highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O­2 gas is _________.

  1. Cationic detergents
  2. Hydrogen peroxide
  3. Iodophors
  4. Chlorohexidine
  5. Cidex

Hydrogen peroxide

131

The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is _________.

  1. Glutaraldehyde
  2. Iodophor
  3. Chlorine dioxide
  4. Ethylene oxide
  5. Formaldehyde

Ethylene oxide

132

All of the following are correct about iodophors, except _________.

  1. It is less prone to staining or irritating tissue
  2. This formulation allows a quick release of free iodine
  3. A common iodophor is Betadine
  4. They are complexes of iodine and a neutral polymer
  5. This formulation increases its penetration

This formulation allows a quick release of free iodine

133

Which is mismatched?

  1. Formalin – formaldehyde
  2. Benzalkonium chloride – quaternary ammonium compound
  3. Iodophor – iodine
  4. Sodium hypochlorite – chlorine
  5. Merthiolate – silver

Merthiolate – silver

134

Alcohols _________.

  1. At 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids
  2. Denature proteins when in a 50-95% solution
  3. Are used to disinfect items by soaking
  4. Are skin degerming agents
  5. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

135

The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings and is used increasingly for hand scrubbing, neonatal washes, wound degerming, and prepping surgical skin sites is _________.

  1. Quarternary ammonium compounds
  2. Chlorhexidine
  3. Triclosan
  4. Formalin
  5. Carbolic acid

Chlorhexidine

136

Iodophors include _________.

  1. Betadine
  2. Chloramines
  3. Alcohols
  4. Tincture iodine
  5. Chlorhexidine

Betadine

137

Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic?

  1. Chlorhexidine
  2. 3% hydrogen peroxide
  3. Merthiolate
  4. Aqueous glutaraldehyde
  5. Iodophor

Aqueous glutaraldehyde

138

All of the following pertain to hypochlorites except _________.

  1. Cause denaturation of enzymes
  2. Used to disinfect dairy, restaurant, and medical equipment
  3. Found in iodophors
  4. Found in common household bleach
  5. Release hypochlorous acid in solution

Found in iodophors

139

Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacteria in a capped culture tube?

  1. 121oC at 15 psi for 15 minutes
  2. Ultraviolet (germicidal) light
  3. 160oC for 2 hours
  4. Gamma rays
  5. All of the choices are correct

Ultraviolet (germicidal) light

140

The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are _________.

  1. Protozoan cysts
  2. Endospores
  3. Vegetative bacteria and fungi
  4. Mycobacterium and Staphylococcus
  5. Naked viruses

Vegetative bacteria and fungi

141

All of the following are phenols or phenolics, except _________.

  1. Cresols
  2. Chloramines
  3. Lysol
  4. Hexachlorophene
  5. Triclosan

Chloramines

142

HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from _________.

  1. Human tissues
  2. Liquids
  3. Air
  4. Medical instruments
  5. All of the choices are correct

Air

143

Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by _________.

  1. Pasteurization
  2. Chlorination
  3. Moist heat autoclave
  4. Boiling water
  5. Filtration

Pasteurization

144

The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the __________.

  1. Sporicidal time
  2. Death phase point
  3. Thermal death point (TDP)
  4. Thermal death time (TDT)
  5. None of the choices are correct

Thermal death time (TDT)

145

Dry heat _________.

  1. Is used in devices called autoclaves
  2. Is less efficient than moist heat
  3. Includes tyndallization
  4. Cannot sterilize
  5. Will sterilize at 121oC for 15 minutes

Is less efficient than moist heat

146

Sterilization is achieved by _________.

  1. Flash pasteurization
  2. Steam autoclave
  3. Boiling water
  4. Hot water
  5. All of the choices are correct

Steam autoclave

147

Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is _________.

  1. Sanitization
  2. Degermation
  3. Sterilization
  4. Disinfection
  5. Antisepsis

Degermation

148

The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is _________.

  1. Sterilization
  2. Degermation
  3. Antisepsis
  4. Sanitization
  5. Disinfection

Antisepsis

149

Microbiological contaminants are best described as _________.

  1. Vegetative microbes present on or in a substance
  2. Any and all microbes present on or in a substance
  3. Pathogenic microbes present on or in a substance
  4. Unwanted microbes present on or in a substance
  5. None of the choices are correct

Unwanted microbes present on or in a substance

150

What does Vancomycin target?

  1. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Clostridium difficile
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. Streptococcus pyrogenes
  5. Both A & B are correct choices

Both A & B are correct choices

151

Which bacteria does Levaquin target?

  1. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Moraxella catarrhalis
  3. Haemophilus influenzae
  4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  5. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

152

All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except _________.

  1. The inhibit fusion and uncoating of the virus
  2. They are effective prophylactics for influenza
  3. They should be given early in an infections
  4. They are used to treat infection by influenza A and B
  5. The prevent assembly and release of the virus

The prevent assembly and release of the virus

153

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for AZT?

  1. It inhibits the assembly of HIV particles
  2. It inhibits fusion of the viral envelope and host cell envelope
  3. It is a thymine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis
  4. It directly binds to reverse transcriptase and prevents reverse transcription of HIV RNA
  5. It prevents the viral DNA from integrating in the host chromosome

It is a thymine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis

154

Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds?

  1. Because it raises the price of the meat too high
  2. Because it makes the animals grow too large
  3. Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem
  4. Because it causes infections in the cows and poultry fed them
  5. All of the choices are correct

Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem

155

Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent tooth discoloration?

  1. Penicillin G
  2. Erythomycin
  3. Gentamicin
  4. Vancomycin
  5. Tetracycline

Tetracycline

156

Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs?

  1. Kidneys
  2. Liver
  3. Stomach
  4. Gall bladder
  5. Spleen

Liver

157

All of the following are correct about allergic reactions to drugs, except _________.

  1. Allergic reactions generally will occur the first time a person takes the drug
  2. Anaphylaxis can occur
  3. The drug acts as an antigen
  4. The greatest number of antimicrobic allergies are to penicillins
  5. Hives may be the result after the drug is taken

Allergic reactions generally will occur the first time a person takes the drug

158

All of the following could be reason why antimicrobic treatment fails except _________.

  1. A disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic
  2. Not completing the full course of treatment
  3. The inability of the drugs to diffuse into the infected body compartment
  4. Diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age
  5. A mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant

A disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic

159

Which of the following will influence a physician’s decision to prescribe and antimicrobial?

  1. Pregnancy
  2. Patient age
  3. Alcohol use
  4. Liver function
  5. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

160

A “shotgun” approach to antimicrobial therapy involves _________.

  1. Using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination
  2. Performing the dis diffusion assay
  3. Using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater
  4. Giving a narrow spectrum drug
  5. Culturing the pathogen and identifying it

Using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater

161

Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed _________.

  1. Semisynthetic drugs
  2. Synthetic drugs
  3. Antibiotics
  4. Broad-spectrum drugs
  5. Narrow-spectrum drugs

Narrow-spectrum drugs

162

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the _________.

  1. Antibiogram
  2. Kirby-Bauer technique
  3. Therapeutic index (TI)
  4. E-test
  5. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

Therapeutic index (TI)

163

A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, and the incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient’s isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?

  1. Therapeutic index (TI)
  2. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
  3. E-test
  4. Antibiogram
  5. Kirby-Bauer technique

Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

164

Drug susceptibility testing _________.

  1. Determines the pathogen’s identity
  2. Determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient
  3. Determines the pathogen’s response to various antimicrobics
  4. Determines if the normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics
  5. Determines the patient’s response to various antimicrobics

Determines the pathogen’s response to various antimicrobics

165

A superinfection results from _________.

  1. Decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of the unaffected species
  2. An immune system reaction to the drug
  3. Build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient
  4. The wrong drug administered to the patient
  5. All of the choices are correct

Decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of the unaffected species

166

Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following, except _________.

  1. Deafness
  2. Development of resistance to the drug
  3. Hepatotoxicity
  4. Diarrhea
  5. Nephrotoxicity

Development of resistance to the drug

167

The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause _________.

  1. Prevention of drug entry into the cell
  2. Alteration of drug receptors on cell targets
  3. Synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure
  4. Bacterial chromosomal mutations
  5. All of the choices are correct

Prevention of drug entry into the cell

168

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include _________.

  1. Prevention of drug entry into the cell
  2. Synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure
  3. Bacterial chromosomal mutations
  4. Alteration of drug receptors on cell targets
  5. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

169

Acyclovir is used to treat _________.

  1. HIV
  2. Hepatitis C virus
  3. Shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes
  4. Respiratory syncytial virus
  5. Influenza A virus

Shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes

170

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat _________.

  1. Hepatitis C virus
  2. HIV
  3. Respiratory syncytial virus
  4. Influenza A virus
  5. Herpes zoster virus

HIV

171

An antiviral that is a guanin analog would have an antiviral mode of action that _________.

  1. Inhibits peptidoglycan cross linking
  2. Bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane
  3. Blocks DNA replication
  4. Blocks mutation
  5. Block penetration

Blocks DNA replication

172

Which of the following is not a mode of action of an antiviral?

  1. Inhibit DNA synthesis
  2. Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane
  3. Block transcription and translation
  4. Block penetration
  5. Block mutation

Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

173

There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because these organisms _________.

  1. Do not cause many human infections
  2. Are parasites found inside human cells
  3. Are not affected by antimicrobics
  4. Are so similar to human cells that selective drug toxicity is difficult to achieve
  5. Have fewer target sites compared to bacteria

Are so similar to human cells that selective drug toxicity is difficult to achieve

174

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _________ infections.

  1. Helminthic
  2. Bacterial
  3. Fungal
  4. Protozoan
  5. virus

Fungal

175

Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _________ infections.

  1. Fungal
  2. Protozoan
  3. Bacterial
  4. Helminthic
  5. Virus

Helminthic

176

The drug used for several protozoan infections is _________.

  1. Metronidazole
  2. Sulfa drugs
  3. Amphotericin B
  4. Griseofulvin
  5. Nystatin

Metronidazole

177

The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is _________.

  1. Griseofulvin
  2. Sulfa drugs
  3. Amphotericin B
  4. Nystatin
  5. Metronidazole

Amphotericin B

178

The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic associated colitis is _________.

  1. Gentamicin
  2. Bacitracin
  3. Ciprofloxacin
  4. Chloramphenicol
  5. Clindamycin

Clindamycin

179

The drug that can cause aplastic anemia, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is _________.

  1. Ciprofloxacin
  2. Gentamicin
  3. Clindamycin
  4. Chloramphenicol
  5. Bacitracin

Clindamycin

180

Antimicrobics that are macrolides _________.

  1. Include tetracyclines
  2. Are very narrow-spectrum drugs
  3. Include azithromycin, clarithromycin and erythromycin
  4. Are hepatotoxic
  5. Disrupt cell membrane function

Include azithromycin, clarithromycin and erythromycin

181

Salvarsan was _________.

  1. Discovered in the mid-1900’s
  2. Formulated from the red dye prontosil
  3. Used to treat syphilis
  4. Discovered by Robert Koch
  5. First discovered as a product of ­Penicillium notatum

Used to treat syphilis

182

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called _________.

  1. Semisynthetic drugs
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Narrow-spectrum drugs
  4. Synthetic drugs
  5. Broad-spectrum drugs

Antibiotics

183

Antibiotics are derived from all the following, except _________.

  1. Staphylococcus
  2. Bacillus
  3. Streptomyces
  4. Cephalosporium
  5. Penicillium

Staphylococcus

184

Drug-resistant population of microbes arise when _________.

  1. Resistant cells become numerous in a population due to their greater vigor
  2. Exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells allowing overgrowth of resistant cells
  3. Synergy between medications occurs
  4. Exposure to drugs causes mutation that produce resistance
  5. That patient becomes immune to the drug

Exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells allowing overgrowth of resistant cells

185

Ribavirin is an antiviral that interferes with _________.

  1. Viral attachment
  2. Cell wall synthesis
  3. Cell membrane component synthesis
  4. Protein synthesis
  5. Nucleic acid synthesis

Nucleic acid synthesis

186

Antiviral medication can best be described as _________.

  1. Extremely narrow spectrum antimicrobials
  2. Synthetic antimicrobials
  3. Broad spectrum antimicrobials
  4. Extremely narrow spectrum synthetic antimicrobials
  5. Antibiotics produced by bacteria

Extremely narrow spectrum antimicrobials

187

The mechanisms of action of erythromycin is _________.

  1. Inhibition of protein synthesis
  2. Inhibition of a metabolic pathway.
  3. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  4. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
  5. Disruption of cytoplasmic membranes

Inhibition of protein synthesis

188

Pentamidine is an example of an antimicrobial that _________.

  1. Binds to DNA
  2. Inhibits metabolic pathways
  3. Binds to ribosomes
  4. Disrupts cytoplasmic membranes
  5. Inhibits cell wall synthesis

Binds to DNA

189

Several antiviral medications used to treat HIV interfere with _________.

  1. Protein synthesis
  2. Nucleic acid synthesis
  3. Cell wall synthesis
  4. Folic acid synthesis
  5. Assembly of membranes

Nucleic acid synthesis

190

The mechanism of action of the antibiotic vancomycin is _________.

  1. Inhibition of a metabolic pathway
  2. Disruption of cytoplasmic membranes
  3. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
  4. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

191

How does resistance to drugs spread in bacterial populations?

  1. Exposure to drugs causes mutations in bacterial genes
  2. Both horizontal gene transfer and the growth of biofilms spread drug resistance
  3. The formation of biofilms protects bacteria from the effects of drugs
  4. Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmas
  5. Exposure to drugs alters gene expression in bacteria

The formation of biofilms protects bacteria from the effects of drugs

192

The β-lactams are narrow spectrum antibacterials because _________.

  1. The outer membrane prevents their entry into cells
  2. They block a synthetic step unique to Gram-positive bacteria
  3. They are analogs for a unique cell membrane lipid
  4. The thick peptidoglycan walls prevent their entry into cells
  5. They are analogs for a compound metabolized only by Gram-negative bacteria

The outer membrane prevents their entry into cells

193

Disruption of the normal microbiota can result in infections caused by which of the following microbes?

  1. Clostridium difficile
  2. Mycobacterium
  3. Candida albicans
  4. Both Mycobacterium and Clostridium difficile
  5. Candida albicans, Mycobacterium, and Clostridium difficile

Candida albicans, Mycobacterium, and Clostridium difficile

194

Which of the following is measured in the broth dilution test?

  1. Lack of turbidity
  2. Cell lysis
  3. Presence of turbidity and cell lysis
  4. The zone of inhibition
  5. Lack of turbidity and zone of inhibition

Lack of turbidity

195

Infection of the _________ would be hardest to treat with antimicrobial drugs.

  1. Kidneys
  2. Brain
  3. Colon
  4. Heart
  5. Liver

Brain

196

Antimicrobial sugar analogs are effective for _________.

  1. Preventing cell membrane synthesis
  2. Preventing virus attachment
  3. Preventing bacterial protein synthesis
  4. Preventing nucleic acid synthesis
  5. Blocking a metabolic pathway

Preventing virus attachment

197

The therapeutic range of an antimicrobial is the _________.

  1. Ratio of the dose a patient can tolerate to the effective dose
  2. Ratio of the concentration of antimicrobial in the blood to the oral dose
  3. Range of microorganisms the antimicrobial effects
  4. Length of time the medication persists in the body after a single dose
  5. Range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic

Range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic

198

The E-test determines which of the following?

  1. MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)
  2. MBC (minimum bacterial concentration)
  3. Susceptibility
  4. Both susceptibility and MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)
  5. Both MBC (minimum bacterial concentration) and MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)

Both susceptibility and MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)

199

Bacterial DNA replication requires the enzyme gyrase, but eukaryotic replication does not. Ciprofloxacin (“Cipro”) inhibits gyrase activity. This is an example of _________.

  1. Use of an analog
  2. An antimetabolite
  3. Synergism
  4. Selective toxicity
  5. Antimicrobial resistance

Selective toxicity

200

Synthetic antimicrobials that block protein synthesis by binding to the mRNA are _________.

  1. Macrolides
  2. Aminoglycosides
  3. Nucleic acid analogs
  4. Antisense nucleic acids
  5. Beta-lactams

Antisense nucleic acids

201

Which of the following pathways is specifically inhibited by trimethoprim?

  1. The conversion of dihydrofolic acid to PABA
  2. The conversion of tetrahydrofolic acid to PABA
  3. The conversion of PABA to tetrahydrofolic acid
  4. The conversion of PABA to dihydrofolic acid
  5. The conversion of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid

The conversion of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid

202

A medication that inhibits synthesis of ergosterol would be effective in treating _________.

  1. Viral disease
  2. Fungal infections
  3. Protozoal infections
  4. Mycobacterial disease
  5. Bacterial infections

Fungal infections

203

Most drugs that inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall act by _________.

  1. Disrupting the formation of the mycolic acid layer of the cell wall
  2. Preventing the formation of the alanine-alanine bridges
  3. Preventing the cross-linkage of NAM subunits
  4. Blocking the secretion of cell wall molecules from the cytoplasm
  5. Prevent the formation of β-lactamases

Preventing the cross-linkage of NAM subunits

204

The CDC issued alerts about a bacterial strain known as NDM1 (New Delhi metalo-lactamase 1). What type of antibiotic resistance is indicated by the name?

  1. Removal of the drug via a pump
  2. Alteration of the target of the drug
  3. Change in the permeability of the drug
  4. Overproduction of an enzyme in a key metabolic pathway
  5. Inactivation of the drug

Inactivation of the drug

205

In the compound lamivudine, an –SH group replaces an –OH group found in cytosine. When used as a medication it will _________.

  1. Disrupt lipid membrane structure
  2. Disrupt membrane structure
  3. Interfere with nucleic acid synthesis
  4. Interfere with cell wall synthesis
  5. Interfere with protein synthesis

Interfere with nucleic acid synthesis

206

The first synthetic antimicrobial widely available for treatment of infections _________

  1. Was an attachment antagonist
  2. Disrupted cytoplasmic membranes
  3. Interfered with bacterial cell wall synthesis
  4. Was a nucleotide analog
  5. Was an antimetabolite

Was an attachment antagonist

207

Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs?

  1. They work faster
  2. They are not readily absorbed, so they persist longer
  3. They must be administered intravenously
  4. They are less stable and consequently have fewer side effects
  5. They have a broader spectrum of action

They have a broader spectrum of action

208

Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on which of the following types of cells?

  1. Bacterial cells
  2. Virus-infected cells
  3. Animal cells
  4. Fungal cells
  5. Both animal and fungal cells

Bacterial cells

209

An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?

  1. Cells cannot attach to their hosts
  2. The replication of cell, including cancer cells slows down.
  3. Ribosomes lose their function
  4. Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure
  5. The sterols in the cell wall become nonfunctional

Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure

210

Which of the following antibiotics disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane function?

  1. Tetracycline
  2. Erythromycin
  3. Streptomycin
  4. Amphotericin B
  5. Penicillin

Amphotericin B