Makukutu Review 2

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1

Which of the following reagents reacts with crystal violet as the mordant?

Gram's iodine

2

In a cell that has a diploid number of 8 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present at the beginning of mitosis?

16

3

The metabolic processes called fermentation

use an organic molecule as a final electron acceptor

4

A unique feature of cytokinesis in algae is

the formation of a cell plate between daughter cells

5

a microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Esherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation?

the culture medium must be selective

6

The step involving ATP, hexokinase and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is

an example of substrate-level phosphorylation

7

Classification of viruses includes

orders and families

8

which of the following is an indirect method for estimating the number of microbes in a sample?

viable plate counts

9

the property of organisms to integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called

anabolism

10

which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

nervous

11

the shape of a virion is a function of the ____ of the virus.

capsid

12

A single celled eukaryote that is both photosynthetic and a chemoheterotroph is an

euglenid

13

The even that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is

injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.

14

Observing and characterizing colonial growth for size, shape, edge, elevation, color, odor, and texture is part of

Inspection

15

Bacteria described as "Low G + C"

have DNA composed of more that 50% AT pairs

16

Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but NOT in the lysogenic cycle?

digestion of host DNA

17

The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus?

both protection and recognition

18

Which of the following is not true of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

Generates glucose from CO2 and H20

19

Identify the processes of glucose metabolism represented in figure 5-1

A=glycolysis, B=fermentation, C=Kreb's cycle, D=electron transport chain

20

Which of the following explains why honey can be stored at room temperature for years without spoiling?

osmotic pressure

21

A flexible, spiral-shaped bacterium is called a

spirochete

22

A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a

photoheterotroph

23

The viruses of fungi have RNA genomes and lack a capsid. They are therefore similar to

prions

24

Each of the following are electron carriers except

FADP

25

Which of the following are not photosynthetic pigments?

Leukophylls

26

Eukaryotic sexual reproduction requires the process known as

meiosis

27

Mixed acid fermentation

produces several different acids plus CO2 and H2 gases

28

When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means

the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent

29

The correct sequence for the phases indicated by the letters A, B, C, and D is

lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, death phase

30

Which of the following quantification techniques can distinguish living cells from dead cells in a culture?

metabolic activity

31

Which of the following is an approach to preventing the formation of biofilms?

increasing quorum sensing

32

Which of the following is present in cells only during virus infection?

ssDNA

33

Which of the following processes utilize inorganic phosphate?

both photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation

34

A soil sample dilution spread on a plate containing carbohydrate-based medium yields a wide variety of colonies. One colony has no other bacterial colonies growing near it.Further investigation reveals the bacteria in the colony are Gram-positive and filamentous. The bacteria in the colony may be a member of the genus

acetobacter

35

The process known as ____ is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses

budding

36

Virus replication results in the death of the cell in ___ infections

a lytic

37

Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are

either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes

38

A Petroff-Hauser counting chamber is a

glass slide containing an etched grid for counting microbes directly using a microscope

39

When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, what is the net production of ATP?

2 ATP

40

Students in a microbiology lab are provided plates of medium to use in their bacterial culturing. The growth of organisms that can metabolize mannose sugar will result in the agar turning yellow, while the agar color remains unchanged if the mannose is not metabolized. The plates contain a ___ medium.

differential

41

What feature of mycobacteria is responsible for the unusually slow growth of these bacteria?

the mycolic acid in their cell walls requires signification metabolic investment.

42

A plasmodium is a coenocytic structure associated with

slime mold

43

The best method for preserving bacterial cells in storage for decades is

lyophilization

44

Diploid cell cultures and continuous cell cultures differ in which of the following ways?

both longevity and source of cells

45

Creating conditions in the laboratory that promote the growth of some microbes while inhibiting the growth of others is called

selective enrichment culturing

46

Microaerophiles are microbes that grow best at low

oxygen levels

47

Microbial growth rates are controlled in a chemostat by

controlling the amount of a limiting nutrient

48

The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection cycle?

entry and release

49

A laboratory protocol lists the following ingredients: 1 g sucrose, 16.4 g Na2HPO4, 1.5 g (NH4)3PO4, 0.02 g CaCO3, KNO3, water to 1 liter and autoclave. This recipe is for a

defined broth

50

A single-celled eukaryote with two nuclei and cilia are classified as

...

51

In which stage of aerobic respiration is water produced?

electron transport system

52

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by Gram-negative tiny bacilli that are intracellular parasites. They are in the genus

Rickettsia

53

Phototrophic bacteria that use chlorophyll a are in the phylum

cyanobacteria

54

A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media?

enriched media

55

A microorganism found living under conditions of high ____ is a barophile.

hydrostatic pressure

56

When conditions become inhospitable, members of the genus Clostridium produce an internal durable, dormant form by the process of

sporulation

57

Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope?

the nucleur and cytoplasmic membranes, and the endoplasmic reticulum

58

In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the

cell membrane

59

A 100 ul sample containing 1000 bacterial cells/ ul in log phase growth is added to 9.9 ml of fresh culture medium broth. Assuming no nutrients are limited supply, and a generation time of 30 minutes, how many bacteria will be present in the entire broth culture after six hours?

4.096 x 10 8

60

What is one of the most difficult aspects of studying animal viruses?

the use of animals is expensive, and unethical to many people

61

The Gram-positive coccus _____ grows in irregular clusters, and is frequently found in the human nasal cavity. When it invades other parts of the body it can cause serious disease.

Staphylococcus aureas

62

Termites are dependent on protozoa of the genus

trichonympha

63

Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration?

Involves glycolysis

64

Prions cause disease in

mammals

65

Changes in temperature or pH can cause enzymes to lose activity. What is a common feature of these two effects?

temperature and pH both induce an enzyme to lose its precise three-dimensional shape

66

The arrow indicates the only protein component of this complex. This illustration represents a(n)

apoenzyme

67

Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversation of a prophage to the lytic cycle?

both UV light and X-rays

68

Single-celled algae that are major producers of oxygen and whose silica cell walls are useful in a variety of products for humans are the

diatoms

69

Pleomorphic bacteria

vary in size and shape

70

Oncogenic viruses include all the following except

measles virus

71

The "giant" bacterium Epulopiscium reproduces by means of

viviparity

72

During ___, viral synthesis is suspended.

latency

73

Members of the genus Chamydia are

intracellular parasites

74

The majority of reduced NAD is produced in

Krebs cycle

75

Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to ___ ATP.

3

76

The Six I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except

infection

77

Which virus is CORRECTLY matched with its method of entry?

HIV, membrane fusion

78

The reactions of fermentation function to produce _____ molecules for use in glycolysis.

NAD

79

Prokaryotes of the genus Pyrodictium are

thermophiles

80

What bacterial structure is responsible for separating the daughter DNA molecules after replication?

cytoplasmic membrane

81

FAD, NADP, NAD, and coenzyme A are all ____ carriers.

electron

82

In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated?

38 ATP

83

Which of the following products of glucose catabolism is a substrate for fatty acid synthesis?

acetyl-CoA

84

Fungi called Deuteromycetes are not known to reproduce sexually. Nonetheless, most of them are considered members of the ____ on the basis of genetic sequences.

Ascomycota

85

The Gram-negative diplococci ____ are pathogenic members of the betaproteobacteria that infect mammalian mucous membranes.

Neisseria

86

Joan wants to discover a microbe capable of degrading an environmental contaminant. Which of the following is the process she should use?

enrichment culture

87

Low G + C bacilli in the genus _____ are beneficial to humans as probiotics.

lactobacillus

88

Which of the following is a protozoan with two nuclei and no mitochondria?

Giardia

89

An oxidase detection test can be used to identify certain bacteria because they lack

...

90

The production of NADH takes place during the _____ stage(s) of glycolysis.

energy-conservation

91

Some human viruses are difficult to study because

they only grow in normal human cells

92

Non-motile members of the Alveolata are

the Apicomplexans

93

Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an

facultative anaerobe

94

In aerobic non-photosynthetic organisms, the majority of ATP is generated by

oxidation-reduction reactions

95

Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is MOST accurate?

A diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells

96

Pleomorphic Gram-negative members of the Firmicules that colonize mammalian respiratory mucous membranes are the

mycoplasmas

97

Classification of bacteria into different phyla is based on comparisons involving which of the following?

both DNA and protein sequences

98

Zones of clearing in cell cultures that are the result of virus infection are called plaques. Sometimes "cloudy plaques" are seen on bacterial cultures infected with bacteriophage. What type of viral infection might cause this appearance?

lysogenic

99

During the synthesis of acetyl-CoA from pyruvic acid, ____ is produced.

NADH

100

In what way do algae differ from plants?

All algae are unicellular (best guess)

101

Many metabolites for anabolic pathways are produced by the _____ pathway.

pentose-phosphate

102

When cells are metabolically active but not dividing, they are in the ____ phase.

lag

103

Each FADH2 from the Krebs cycle enters the electron transport system and gives rise to ___ ATP's.

2

104

Recombination of genetic material between homologous chromosomes occurs during

early prophase 1 of meiosis

105

Chemical reactions that are reversible, proceeding anabolically or catabolically, are called

amphibolic

106

Host specificity of a virus is due to

interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules

107

How are fungal viruses different from viruses that infect other organisms?

they have no extracellular state

108

When mitosis occurs without cytokinesis, which of the following is produced?

coenocytes

109

Replication of the DNA occurs during

interphase

110

Bacterial binary fission results in _____ growth

exponential

111

The chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell during

metaphase

112

In contrast to most dsDNA animal viruses, the poxviruses replicate solely in the cytoplasm of the host cell. This fact implies that the viral genome may encode

a DNA polymerase

113

Glycolysis

uses 2 ATP, produces 4 ATP and requires oxygen (best guess)

114

A material useful in microbiological media is derived from

...

115

The envelope portion of an enveloped virus is composed of

host cell membranes containing virus-encoded glycoproteins

116

A pure culture contains only

one species of microorganism

117

During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?

electron transport

118

The Gram-positive obligate anaerobe ____ causes a severe diarrhea.

Clostridium difficile

119

Which of the following is not involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?

Pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH

120

Halophiles are found living in high _____ conditions.

salt concentration

121

The anaerobic Clostridium species are troublesome pathogens in part because of their capacity for

endospore production

122

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the structure and function of enzymes?

After an enzyme has catalyzed a reaction, it resumes its original shape and can interact with a new substrate molecule.

123

A species of the genus Streptococcus is the leading cause of

"flesh-eating" bacterial infections

124

During which growth phase do antimicrobial drugs have the greatest inhibitory effect?

the susceptibility is the same for all phases

125

What is the major product of the Calvin-Benson cycle that can then be used to form glucose?

glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P)

126

How will E. coli appear if the mordant is not applied?

Gram-negative

127

Protozoa that have a single large mitochondrion and are found living in animals are

kinetoplastids

128

Which of the following types of animal virus requires RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to be replicated?

-ssRNA

129

How many ATP molecules can theoretically be produced from the NADH generated by the catabolism of a molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration?

30

130

Plaque assays are used for

determining the density of a phage in a culture

131

The redox carriers of the electron transport chain that have a tightly bound metal atom responsible for accepting and donating electrons are

the cytochromes

132

Sodium thioglycollate is found in which of the following types of media?

reducing media

133

Infection with ____ is likely to result in destruction of the host cell by lysis.

naked viruses

134

Gram-negative nitrogen-fixing bacteria found in association with plant roots are

alphaproteobacteria

135

How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda-phage prophage?

the HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA

136

Sister chromatids separate during _____ of meiosis

anaphase II

137

Fermentation

requires an organic electron acceptor

138

The psychrophilic Gram-positive bacillus ____ can become an intracellular parasite of white blood cells

...

139

Which of the following is involved in the attachment of a bacteriophage to a bacterial cell?

random collisions, chemical attractions, and receptor specificity

140

The principle sites of amphibolic interaction occur during

glycolysis and Krebs cycle

141

An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria inside tissue cells in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the bacteria in the lab. What culture conditions are most likely to be successful?

inoculation of cell cultures

142

High G + C Gram-positive filamentous bacteria of the genus _____ are capable of metabolizing a diverse range of environmental contaminants.

Nocardia

143

Which of the following is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?

oxygen

144

The genus Mycobacterium includes species responsible for

tuberculosis

145

The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA?

+ssRNA

146

The method of obtaining isolated cultures that utilizes surface area to physically dilute specimens is

the streak-plate technique

147

What is the correct order for the stages of a lytic replication cycle, from earliest to latest stages?

Attachment, Entry, Synthesis, Assembly, Release

148

Protozoa that move by means of lobe-like pseudopods and lack shells are classified as

amoebozoa

149

A ____ is a mass of neoplastic cells

tumor

150

A microbiologist inoculates a growth medium with 100 bacterial cells/ml. If the generation time of the species is 1 hour, and there is no lag phase, how long will it be before the culture contains more than 10,000 cells/ml?

7 hours

151

Retrovirus require the activity of ______ to complete their infection cycle.

reverse transcriptase

152

Which of the following may occur in a lysogenic infection, but NOT a latent one?

the inserted viral DNA may leave the host DNA

153

Asexual reproduction within a hypha produces

chlamydospores

154

Cocci which divide along alternating planes may stick together to form

tetrads

155

Multicellular organisms with hard exoskeletons, segmented bodies and four pairs of jointed legs in the adult stage are

arachnids

156

The development of a cancerous cell is said to require "multiple hits" This means

a series of separate events over time lead to the loss of cell cycle regulation

157

The arrangement represented in the figure is typical of which of the following genera of bacteria?

Corynebacterium

158

Which of the following statements regarding virus taxomony is TRUE?

some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family

159

Which of the following is associated with meiosis but NOT with mitosis?

a tetrad

160

Naked capsid animal viruses gain entry to host cells by

both endocytosis and direct penetration

161

In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's ____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____.

nucleus, cytoplasm

162

MacConkey agar plates represent _____ medium.

both a differential and a selective

163

Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called

fastidious

164

All of the following is correct about treating viral diseases except

viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria

165

Which of the following is a cell type produced during sexual reproduction in fungi?

dikaryon

166

Mycloplasmas are pleomorphic because they

have no cell walls

167

Which of the following oxidizing agents is sometimes produced during aerobic respiration?

superoxide radical

168

A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of

simple staining

169

All of the following pertain to glycolysis except

degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O

170

Gram-negative facultative anaerobes that metabolize carbohydrates via glycolysis are members of

gammaproteobacteria

171

The ____ is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism.

mycelium

172

Simple eukaryotes that carry out oxygenic photosynthesis and reproduce by means of alternation of generations are known as

algae

173

A ____ is a virus that infects bacterial cells

bacteriophage

174

The current taxonomy of the bacteria as described in Bergey's Manual of Systemic Bacteriology

is primarily based on genetic sequences

175

In reactions catalyzed by oxidoreductases an electron donor is

oxidized

176

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes that archaea from the bacteria?

cell wall composition, cytoplasmic membrane lipids, and 16S rRNA sequences

177

Which of the following is an accurate description of a virion?

an infectious particle of protein and nucleic acid outside a host cell

178

The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins

the Krebs cycle

179

The conversion of amino acids to carbohydrates is an example of

gluconeogenesis

180

Hydrolases are generally involved in ______ reactions

catabolic

181

Small circular RNA molecules without capsids are characteristic of

viroids

182

All of the following are examples of basic dyes except

nigrosin

183

The process of metastasis results from

malignant tumors

184

One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the genetic regulatory sequences of repressor proteins. Which of the following types of viruses is most likely to be involved in causing cancer by this mechanism?

retroviruses

185

An aligned pair of homologous chromosomes is called a

tetrad

186

All of the following are ways in which cells regulate metabolism EXCEPT

use of the same coenzymes for anabolic and catabolic reactions that share substrate molecules

187

A change in one partner in a close relationship that leads to a change in the other partner is

coevolution

188

Which of the following types of microbes might be found in a boiling hot spring?

hyperthermophiles

189

Which of the following is a feature shared by viruses and living organisms?

possession of a genome that directs synthesis of materials necessary for replication

190

Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage?

the genetic material of the bacteriophage is amplified many times over that seen in a lytic phage.

191

Multiple mitoses followed by a single cytokinetic event is known as

schizogony

192

How are prions different from all other known infectious agents?

they lack nucleic acid

193

Which type of media can be used to determine if a bacteria is motile?

SIM

194

Which process is represented by this figure?

meiosis

195

Single-celled eukaryotes lacking a cell wall are

protozoa

196

In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate

ADP

197

A cell is infected with a virus carrying an oncogene sequence in its genome. What process may occur if the oncogene is expressed in the infected cell?

neoplasia

198

Aerobic free-living Gram-negative bacilli in the phylum Proteobacteria that are capable of metabolizing a wide range of organic compounds are members of the genus

pseudomonas

199

Mites are responsible for the spread of

diseases are caused by Rickettsias

200

Cultures of bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of 37 degrees celsius, and 50 degrees celcius, slight growth out on the bench top and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?

psychrophilic