1. What is the average weight of the adult human liver?
3 to 4 pounds or 1/36 of total body weight
2. Which abdominal quadrant contains the gallbladder?
Right upper quadrant
3. What is the name of the soft tissue structure that separates the right from the left lobe of the liver?
4. Which lobe of the liver is larger, the right or the left?
5. List the other two lobes of the liver (in addition to right or the left)?
6. True or False: the liver performs more than 100 functions?
7. True or False: The average healthy adult liver produces 1 gallon, or 3000 to 4000 mL, of bile per day.
8. List the three primary functions of the gallbladder?
Store bile, concentrate bile, contracts to release bile into duodenum
9. True or False: Concentrated levels of cholesterol in bile may lead to gallstones?
10. What is a common site for impaction, or lodging, of gallstones?
11. True or False: In about 40% of individuals, the end of the common bile duct and the end of the pancreatic duct are totally separated into two ducts rather than combining into one single passageway into the duodenum?
12. True or False: An older term for the main pancreatic duct is the duct of Vater.
13. The gallbladder is located more (posteriorly or anteriorly) within the abdomen?
14. Which imaging modality produces cholescintigraphy?
15. True or False: Acute cholecystitis may produce a thickened gallbladder wall?
condition of having gallstones
Inflammation of the gallbladder
18. Biliary stenosis
Narrowing of the biliary ducts
Surgical removal of the gallbladder
benign or malignant tumors
enlargement or narrowing of the biliary ducts because of the presence of stones.
22. List the seven main components of the alimentary canal
mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small & large intestine, anus, salivary glands, pancreas, liver, gallbladder
23. List the four accessory organs of digestion
salivary glands, pancreas, liver, gallbladder
24. The three primary functions of the digestive system
intake and digestion of food, absorption of digested food particles, elimination of solid waste.
25. What two terms refer to a radiographic examination of the pharynx and esophagus?
esophagram or barium swallow
26. Which terms describes the radiographic study of the distal esophagus, stomach, and duodenum?
Upper gastrointestinal series or upper GI
27. Which three pairs of salivary glands are accessory organs of digestion associated with the mouth?
parotid, sublingual, submadibular
28. The act of swallowing is called?
29. List the three divisions of the pharynx
nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
30. What structures create the two indentations seen along the lateral border of the esophagus?
aortic arch, left primary bronchus
31. List the three structures that pass through the diaphragm
esophagus, inferior vena cava, aorta
32. What part of the upper GI tract is a common site for the ulcer disease?
duodenal bulb or cap
33. What term describes the junction between the duodenum and jejunum?
duodenojejunal flexure (suspensory muscle of the duodenum or ligament of Treitz)
34. The C-loop of the duodenum and pancreas are (intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal) structures.
35. The three main subdivisions of the stomach are?
Fundus, body, pylorus
36. Another term for mucosal folds of the stomach is?
37. True or False: Mechanical digestion includes movement of the entire gastrointestinal tract?
38. Peristaltic activity is not found in which of the following structures ( Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach, Small Intestine)?
39. Stomach contents are churned into a semifluid mass called?
40. A churning or mixing activity present in the small bowl is called?
41. List the three classes of substances that ingested and must be chemically digested.
carbohydrates, proteins, lipids
42. Biologic catalysts that speed up the process of digestion are called?
43. List the end products of digestion for the following classes of food carbohydrates (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins)
simple sugars, fatty acids and glycerol, amino acids
44. What is the name of the liquid substance that aids in digestion and is manufactured in the liver and stored in the gallbladder?
45. How does bile assist in emulsification in fat?
large fat droplets are broken down to small fat droplets, which have greater access for the breakdown of lipids
46. Absorption of nutrients primarily takes place in the ____________, although some substances are absorbed through the lining of the ___________.
small intestine, of the stomach
47. Any residues of digestion or unabsorbed digestive products are eliminated from the ________ as a component of feces.
48. Peristalsis is an example of which type of digestion.
49. Which term describes food once it is mixed with gastric secretions in the stomach?
50. A high and transverse stomach would be found in a (hypersthenic, sthenic, hyposthenic, asthenic)
51. A J-shaped stomach that is more vertical and lower in the abdomen with the duodenal bulb at the level of L3-L4 would be found in a(n) (hyperstenic, sthenic, hyposthenic/asthenic or none of the above)
52. On the average, how much will abdominal organs drop in the erect position?
1 to 2 inches
53. Name the two abdominal organs most dramatically affected, in relation to location, by body habitus?
Stomach and gallbladder
54. Would the fundus of the stomach be more superior or more inferior when one takes in a deep breath? Why?
Inferior, because of its proximity to the diaphragm
55. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in oral cavity
mastication and deglutition
56. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in pharynx
57. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in Esophagus
58. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in stomach
peristalsis and mixing
59. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in the small intestine
peristalsis and rhythmic segmentation
60. True or False: With the use of digital fluoroscopy, the number of postfluoroscopy radiographs ordered has greatly diminished.
61. Another term for a negative contrast medium is ____
Radiolucent contrast medium
62. What substance is most commonly ingested to produce carbon dioxide gas as a negative contrast medium for gastrointestinal system?
calcium or magnesium citrate
63. Is a mixture of barium sulfate a suspension or a solution?
64. True or False: Barium sulfate never dissolves is water.
65. True or False: Certian salts of barium are poisonous to humans, so barium contrast studies require a pure sulfate salt of barium for human consumption during GI studies.
66. What is the ratio of water to barium for a thin mixture of barium sulfate
67. What is the chemical symbol for barium sulfate?
68. When is the use of barium sulfate contraindicated?
when the mixture may escape the peritoneal cavity
71. What patient condition prevents the use of a water-soluble contrast medium for an upper GI?
sensitivity to iodine
72. What is the major advantage for using a double-contrast medium technique for esophagrams and upper GI?
better coating and visibility of the mucosa. Polyps, diverticula, and ulcers are better demonstrated.
73. The speed with which barium sulfate passes through the GI tract is called gastric
74. What is the purpose of the gas with a double-contrast media technique
It forces the barium sulfate against the mucosa for better coating
75. Which of the following devices on a digital fluoroscopy system converts the analog into a digital signal (PACS, Light converter, CCD, OTS)
76. What device (found beneath the radiographic table when correctly positioned) greatly reduces exposure to the technologist from the fluoroscopic x-ray tube?
bucky slot shield
77. How is the bucky slot shield activated or placed in its correct position for fluoroscopy?
by moving the bucky tray all the way to the end of the table
78. What is the minimum level of protective apron worn during fluoroscopy?
0.5 mm Pb/Eq apron
79. What is the major benefit of using a compression paddle during an upper GI study?
reduces exposure to arms and hands of radiologist
80. List the three cardinal principles of radiation protection.
time, distance, shielding
81. Which one of the three cardinal principles is most effective in reducing exposure to the technologist during a fluoroscopic procedure?
82. Which capability on most digital fluoroscopy systems demonstrates dynamic flow of contrast media through the GI Tract.
cine loop capability
83. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: Difficulty in swallowing
84. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: Replacement of normal squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium
85. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: May lead to esophagitis
86. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: Large outpouching of the esophagus?
87. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: also called cardiospasm
88. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: most common form is adenocarcinoma
carcinoma of the esophagus
89. What pathology for upper GI series is: Blood in vomit
90. What pathology for upper GI series is: inflammation of lining of stomach
91. What pathology for upper GI series is: blind outpouching of the mucosal wall
92. What pathology for upper GI series is: undigested material trapped in stomach
93. What pathology for upper GI series is: synonymous with gastric or duodenal ulcer
94. What pathology for upper GI series is: portion of stomach protruding through the diaphragmatic opening
95. What pathology for upper GI series is: only 5% of ulcers lead to this condition
96. What pathology for upper GI series is: Double - contrast upper GI is recommended for this type of tumor
97. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Its presence indicates a possible sliding hiatal hernia
98. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Speckled appearance of gastric mucus
99. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: "wormlike" appearance of esophagus
100. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Stricture of esophagus
101. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Gastric bubble above diaphragm
102. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Irregular filling defect within stomach
103. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Enlarged recess in proximal esophagus
104. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: "Lucent-halo" sign during upper GI
105. Which procedure is often performed to detect early signs of GERD
106. Which specific structure of the gastrointestinal system is affected by HPS
antral muscle at the orifice of the plyorus
107.Which imaging modality is most effective in diagnosing HPS while reducing dose to the patient?
108. What does the acronym NPO stand for and what does it mean
non per os, nothing by mouth
109. True or False: The patient must be NPO 4-6 hours before an esophagram
False 8 hours
110. True or False: The esophagogram usually begins with fluoroscopy with the patient in the erect position
111. What materials may be used for swallowing to aid in the diagnosis of radiolucent foreign bodies in the esophagus?
barium soaked cotton balls, barium pills, or marshmallows followed by thin barium
112. A breathing technique in which the patient takes in a deep breath and bears down is called the _____?
113. What position is the patient usually placed in during the water test?
114. Which region of the GI tract is better visualized when the radiologist uses a compression paddle during an esopagram
115. What type of contrast medium should be used if the patient has a history of bowl perforation?
oral, water soluble iodinated contrast media
116. What is the minimum amount of time that the patient should be NPO before an upper GI
117. True or False: The body of the stomach curves inferiorly and posteriorly from the fundus
118. What is the most common form of positive contrast medium used for studies of the gastrointestinal system