biology chapter 15 Flashcards


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1

*Messenger RNA molecules contain information that is used to synthesize ___________.
A. nucleotides
B. amino acids
C. polypeptides(proteins)
D. fatty acids

polypeptides

2

*To begin transcription, RNA polymerase must bind to a segment of DNA called the ____.
A. initiation site
B. primer
C. inducer
D. promoter
E. transcription bubble

promoter

3

*The sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule is called the ________ code.
A. protein
B. ribosomal
C. translation
D. genetic
E. amino acid

genetic

4

*Most eukaryotic genes contain noncoding sequences called ________ that are interspersed with the coding sequences.
A. introns
B. exons
C. codons
D. spacers
E. spliceosomes

introns

5

*The polypeptide-making organelles, which consist of protein combined with RNA, are called
A. ribosomes.
B. Golgi bodies.
C. lysosomes.
D. centrosomes.
E. mitochondria.

ribosomes

6

*During translation, amino acids are carried to the ribosome by
A. mRNA.
B. tRNA.
C. snRNA.
D. rRNA.
E. miRNA.‚Äč

tRNA

7

*A codon is composed of how many bases?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. 64

three

8

*The A, P, and E sites are progressively occupied by amino acids being assembled into a polypeptide. These sites are part of
A. DNA.
B. the large ribosomal subunit.
C. mRNA.
D. tRNA.
E. the spliceosome.

B. the large ribosomal subuni

9

*

Eukaryotes have ____ type(s) of RNA polymerase.
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. one
E. 64

three

10

1. DNA affects the traits of an organism by providing the instructions for synthesizing _______.
A. proteins
B. nucleotides
C. codons
D. amino acids

A. proteins

11

2. Gene expression involves two phases, ___________ and translation.
A. replication
B. transcription
C. initiation
D. condensation

B. transcription

12

4. To begin transcription, RNA polymerase must bind to a segment of DNA called the ____.
A. initiation site
B. primer
C. inducer
D. promoter
E. transcription bubble

D. promoter

13

5. The strand of DNA that is not transcribed is called the ______ strand.
A. coding
B. non-coding
C. template
D. complementary

A. coding

14

6. During ________, a ribosome assembles a polypeptide whose amino acid sequence is specified by the nucleotide sequence in a molecule of mRNA.
A. transcription
B. translation
C. replication
D. posttranscriptional modification

B. translation

15

7. The sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule is called the ________ code.
A. protein
B. ribosomal
C. translation
D. genetic
E. amino acid

D. genetic

16

8. Crick and his colleagues proposed that the genetic code consists of a series of blocks of information, called ______, each corresponding to one amino acid in an encoded protein.
A. alleles
B. codons
C. genes
D. polypeptides

B. codons

17

9. Gene ________ refers to the combined processes of transcription and translation.
A. expression
B. replication
C. modification
D. regulation

expression

18

10. During transcription of mRNA in eukaryotes, some sequences are cut out of the primary transcript and the remaining sequences are joined together. This processing of mRNA is called _________.
A. termination
B. translation
C. splicing
D. capping
E. elongation

splicing

19

11. Most eukaryotic genes contain noncoding sequences called ________ that are interspersed with the coding sequences.
A. introns
B. exons
C. codons
D. spacers
E. spliceosomes

introns

20

12. To remove noncoding sequences in the pre-mRNA of eukaryotes, multiple snRNPs combine with proteins to form a larger complex called the ___________ .
A. 5' cap
B. introsome
C. ribosome
D. spliceosome
E. 3' poly-A tail

spliceosome

21

13. The connection that exists between genes and hereditary traits is based on using the information encoded in genes to synthesize
A. codons.
B. nucleotides.
C. proteins.
D. histones.
E. complementary bases.

proteins

22

14. Both DNA and RNA are made up of building blocks known as
A. nucleotides.
B. nucleic acids.
C. amino acids.
D. genes.
E. codons.

nucleotides

23

15. The "one-gene/one-enzyme" hypothesis was proposed by
A. Watson and Crick.
B. Griffith.
C. Garrod.
D. Franklin.
E. Beadle and Tatum.

beadle and tatum

24

16. The polypeptide-making organelles, which consist of protein combined with RNA, are called
A. ribosomes.
B. Golgi bodies.
C. lysosomes.
D. centrosomes.
E. mitochondria.

ribosomes

25

17. During translation, amino acids are carried to the ribosome by
A. mRNA.
B. tRNA.
C. snRNA.
D. rRNA.
E. miRNA.

tRNA

26

18. During _______, RNA polymerase synthesizes a molecule of RNA using DNA as a template.
A. mRNA splicing
B. translation
C. transcription
D. gene sequencing
E. termination

transcription

27

19. Which base in an anticodon will pair with the base adenine in a codon?
A. thymine
B. cytosine
C. guanine
D. uracil

uracil

28

20. A codon is composed of how many bases?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. 64

three

29

21. In eukaryotes, translation takes place
A. on the plasma membrane.
B. inside the nucleus.
C. on ribosomes.
D. on the nuclear membrane.
E. on spliceosomes.

on ribosomes

30

22. Ribosomes are complex aggregates of
A. RNA and DNA.
B. RNA and proteins.
C. RNA and sugars.
D. DNA and proteins.
E. nucleosomes and RNA.

RNA and proteins

31

23. The A, P, and E sites are progressively occupied by amino acids being assembled into a polypeptide. These sites are part of
A. DNA.
B. the large ribosomal subunit.
C. mRNA.
D. tRNA.
E. the spliceosome.

the large ribosomal subunit

32

24. In eukaryotic cells, transcription occurs
A. on the surface of the nuclear membrane.
B. on ribosomes.
C. on spliceosomes.
D. inside the nucleus.
E. on the surface of the plasma membrane.

inside the nucleus

33

25. In prokaryotes, the form of RNA polymerase that can accurately initiate synthesis of RNA is called
A. the holoenzyme.
B. the core polymerase.
C. RNA polymerase II.
D. RNA polymerase III.
E. the sigma subunit.

the holoenzyme

34

26. During _________, nucleotide sequence information is changed into amino acid sequence information.
A. replication
B. sequencing
C. transcription
D. translocation
E. translation

translation

35

27. The genetic code uses _________ nucleotide(s) to specify one amino acid.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. 64

three

36

28. Which statement about the genetic code is false?
A. There is no punctuation or spacing between codons.
B. Nucleotides are always read in groups of three.
C. Every codon codes for one amino acid.
D. Some amino acids are specified by more than one codon.
E. The genetic code is almost universal, but not quite.

C. Every codon codes for one amino acid.

37

29. How many unique mRNA codons can be constructed from the four different RNA nucleotides?
A. four
B. 12
C. 16
D. 61
E. 64

64

38

30. During translation, the nucleotides that make up the mRNA are read in groups of three. These groups are called
A. codons.
B. anticodons.
C. exons.
D. introns.
E. templates.

codons

39

31. The tRNA nucleotide sequence that pairs with bases on the mRNA is called a(n)
A. intron.
B. exon.
C. codon.
D. initiation factor.
E. anticodon.

anticodon

40

32. Ribosome movement along the mRNA is called
A. transcription.
B. initiation.
C. replication.
D. translocation.
E. activation.

transolcation

41

33. Specific amino acids are attached to tRNA molecules by
A. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases.
B. hydrogen bonds.
C. anticodons.
D. deactivating enzymes.
E. initiation factors.

A. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases.

42

34. Codons that serve as "stop" signals for translation are recognized by
A. tRNA.
B. release factors.
C. anticodons.
D. translation terminators.
E. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases

release factors

43

35. When a polypeptide is being assembled, the bond that forms between a newly added amino acid and the previous amino acid in the chain is a _________ bond.
A. hydrogen
B. hydrophobic
C. terminal
D. phosphodiester
E. peptide

peptide

44

36. During translation in prokaryotes, formation of the initiation complex requires all of the following except
A. a small ribosomal subunit.
B. mRNA.
C. tRNA charged with N-formylmethionine.
D. RNA polymerase.
E. initiation factors.

RNA polymerase

45

37. Eukaryotic mRNA molecules may contain non-coding sequences that must be removed before translation. These are called
A. anticodons.
B. introns.
C. exons.
D. nucleosomes.
E. noncodons.

introns

46

38. The location of translation in prokaryotic cells is
A. in the nucleoid.
B. on ribosomes.
C. on the plasma membrane.
D. on mesosomes.
E. on chromosomes

on ribosomes

47

39. In eukaryotes, pre-mRNA processing may involve all of the following except
A. removal of exons from the pre-mRNA.
B. addition of a 5' cap.
C. addition of a 3' poly-A tail
D. pre-mRNA splicing by the spliceosome.

A. removal of exons from the pre-mRNA.

48

40. During translation, uncharged tRNA molecules leave the ribosome from the _________ site.
A. E
B. P
C. A
D. termination
E. release

release

49

41. The Central Dogma of biology can be stated as
A. proteins RNA DNA.
B. RNA DNA proteins.
C. DNA proteins RNA.
D. DNA RNA proteins.

DNA RNA proteins

50

42. If the sequence of bases in the template strand of a DNA molecule is 3' ATCGCTCC 5', what is the sequence of bases in the RNA that is transcribed from this molecule?
A. 3' UAGCGAGG 5'
B. 3' TAGCGAGG 5'
C. 5' UAGCGAGG 3'
D. 5' TAGCGAGG 3'
E. 5' AUCGCUCC 3'

C. 5' UAGCGAGG 3'

51

43. The template strand of a DNA segment that codes for mRNA has the sequence: ATGCGT. Which tRNA anticodons would pair with the mRNA that is coded for by this sequence?
A. AUG CGU.
B. ATG CGT.
C. UAC GCA.
D. UAG CGU.

A. AUG CGU.

52

44. Although 61 different codons code for amino acids, cells contain fewer than 61 different tRNAs. Why?
A. Because the 5' base on the tRNA anticodon has some flexibility (wobble); thus, some tRNA anticodons can pair with more than one mRNA codon.
B. Although 61 different codons code for amino acids, any given cell contains fewer than 61.
C. Because the 5' base on the mRNA codon has some flexibility (wobble); thus, some mRNA codons can pair with more than one tRNA anticodon.
D. Because each amino acid is coded for by just one codon.

A. Because the 5' base on the tRNA anticodon has some flexibility (wobble); thus, some tRNA anticodons can pair with more than one mRNA codon.

53

45. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms differ in how they process genetic information. Which statements best explain one of these differences?
A. In prokaryotes, translation of the mRNA begins before transcription is complete. In eukaryotes, transcription and modification of the mRNA is completed before translation begins.
B. In prokaryotes, genes are transcribed directly into polypeptides. In eukaryotes, genes are transcribed into RNA which is used to assemble polypeptides.
C. In prokaryotes, translation occurs before genes are transcribed into mRNA. In eukaryotes, genes are transcribed into mRNA which is then translated into polypeptides.
D. In prokaryotes, introns are removed before genes are transcribed into mRNA. In eukaryotes, introns are removed after genes are transcribed into mRNA.

A. In prokaryotes, translation of the mRNA begins before transcription is complete. In eukaryotes, transcription and modification of the mRNA is completed before translation begins.

54

46. What is the first step during transcription initiation in prokaryotes?
A. the transcription bubble is formed
B. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter
C. the DNA double helix is unwound
D. RNA polymerase synthesizes a short primer
E. transcription factors bind to the TATA box sequence

B. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter

55

47. Initiation of transcription differs from initiation of DNA replication in several ways. One difference is that initiation of transcription does not require
A. a promoter.
B. enzymes.
C. a primer.
D. a DNA template strand.

a primer

56

48. Transcription in prokaryotes is carried out by ______, which unwind(s) and transcribe(s) the gene.
A. RNA synthetase
B. RNA polymerase II
C. RNA polymerase III
D. transcription factors
E. RNA polymerase

RNA polymerase

57

49. Eukaryotes have ____ type(s) of RNA polymerase.
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. one
E. 64

three

58

50. In eukaryotes, each type of RNA polymerase recognizes a different
A. start codon
B. stop codon
C. promoter
D. release factor
E. transcription factor

promoter

59

51. Eukaryotic pre-mRNA molecules are modified
A. in the cytoplasm.
B. at the ribosome.
C. inside the nucleus.
D. as they pass through the nuclear membrane.
E. at the transcription bubble.

inside the nucleus

60

52. In eukaryotes, the 3' poly-A tail is attached to
A. poly-A polymerase.
B. mRNA.
C. tRNA.
D. the ribosome.
E. the template strand of DNA.

mRNA

61

53. Why are there fewer tRNA anticodons than the 61 needed to match each mRNA codon that codes for an amino acid?
A. There is some flexibility in pairing between the 5' base of the codon and the 3' base of the anticodon.
B. There is some flexibility in pairing between the middle base of the codon and the middle base of the anticodon.
C. There is some flexibility in pairing between the 3' base of the codon and the 5' base of the anticodon.
D. There is some flexibility in pairing between all 3 bases of the codon and all 3 bases of the anticodon.

C. There is some flexibility in pairing between the 3' base of the codon and the 5' base of the anticodon.

62

54. During translation, translocation refers to
A. releasing a tRNA molecule from the ribosome.
B. joining an amino acid to a tRNA molecule.
C. joining an amino acid to the next amino acid in the chain.
D. joining a tRNA molecule to the ribosome.
E. moving the ribosome along the mRNA molecule.

E. moving the ribosome along the mRNA molecule.

63

55. During protein synthesis in eukaryotes, what happens during RNA splicing?
A. The product of translation, called the primary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA.
B. The product of transcription, called the primary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature tRNA.
C. The product of transcription, called the secondary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA.
D. The product of transcription, called the primary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA.
E. The product of transcription, called the primary transcript, is cut and all pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA.

D. The product of transcription, called the primary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA.

64

56. During protein synthesis in eukaryotes, which molecule passes from the nucleus to the cytoplasm and specifies the sequence of amino acids in the new polypeptide?
A. DNA
B. RNA polymerase
C. mRNA
D. rRNA
E. tRNA

mRNA

65

57. Which molecule combines with proteins to form both the large and small ribosomal subunits?
A. DNA
B. RNA polymerase
C. miRNA
D. rRNA
E. tRNA

rRNA

66

58. You are conducting a genetic screen to isolate nutritional mutants in yeast. Specifically, you want to isolate a double mutant that cannot synthesize histidine or leucine, two nutrients essential for growth. You start with a wild type yeast strain and mutagenize it with a UV light. Which of the following outlines the remaining steps for isolating such a mutant?
A. Grow mutagenized yeast on rich media. Then grow them on minimal media, as well as on minimal media containing histidine, minimal media containing leucine, and minimal media containing both histidine and leucine. Select for yeast that do not grow on minimal media, do not grow on media supplemented with only histidine or leucine, but do grow on minimal media supplemented with both histidine and leucine.
B. Grow mutagenized yeast on minimal media. Then grow them on rich media, as well as on minimal media containing histidine, minimal media containing leucine, and minimal media containing both histidine and leucine. Select for yeast that do not grow on rich media, do not grow on media supplemented with only histidine or leucine, but do grow on minimal media supplemented with both histidine and leucine.
C. Grow mutagenized yeast on rich media. Then grow them on minimal media, as well as on minimal media containing histidine, minimal media containing leucine, and minimal media containing both histidine and leucine. Select for yeast that grow on minimal media, grow on media supplemented with only histidine or leucine, but do not grow on minimal media supplemented with both histidine and leucine.
D. Grow mutagenized yeast on minimal media. Then grow them on rich media, as well as on minimal media containing histidine, minimal media containing leucine, and minimal media containing both histidine and leucine. Select for yeast that grow on rich media, grow on media supplemented with only histidine or leucine, but do not grow on minimal media supplemented with both histidine and leucine.

A. Grow mutagenized yeast on rich media. Then grow them on minimal media, as well as on minimal media containing histidine, minimal media containing leucine, and minimal media containing both histidine and leucine. Select for yeast that do not grow on minimal media, do not grow on media supplemented with only histidine or leucine, but do grow on minimal media supplemented with both histidine and leucine.

67

59. Given the sentence "THE FAT CAT ATE THE RED RAT," which of the following would represent a frameshift mutation?
A. THE FAT RAT ATE THE RED CAT
B. THE CAT ATE THE RED RAT
C. THE FAC ATA TET HER EDR AT
D. THE THE FAT CAT ATE THE RED RAT

. THE FAC ATA TET HER EDR AT

68

60. What would happen if snRNAs did not recognize the branch point within an intron?
A. A lariat would not form.
B. snRNAs would not base-pair with the 5' end of the intron.
C. A 3' poly A tail would not be added to the transcript.
D. A 5' cap would not be added to the transcript.

a lariat would not form

69

61. During the splicing reaction, the intron-exon junctions are recognized by
A. snRNPs.
B. miRNAs.
C. SRP RNAs.
D. the lariat.
E. the branch point.

snRNPs

70

61. During the splicing reaction, the intron-exon junctions are recognized by
A. snRNPs.
B. miRNAs.
C. SRP RNAs.
D. the lariat.
E. the branch point.

a

71

62. In prokaryotes, the RNA polymerase holoenzyme consists of
A. the core polymerase plus two alpha subunits.
B. the core polymerase plus two beta subunits.
C. the core polymerase plus two alpha subunits, two beta subunits, and a sigma subunit.
D. the core polymerase plus a sigma subunit.
E. two alpha subunits, two beta subunits, and two sigma subunits.

D. the core polymerase plus a sigma subunit.

72

63. Two 6-base sequences are present in bacterial promoters: TATAAT (located 10 nt upstream from the start site) and TTGACA (located 35 nt upstream from the start site). What is the significance of the fact that these two base sequences are different?
A. Binding sites for both the holoenzyme and ATP are provided.
B. Both the location of the start site and the direction of transcription can be established.
C. Binding sites for both the core polymerase and holoenzyme are provided.
D. The transcription bubble can be properly formed.
E. It allows RNA polymerase to distinguish between the template strand and the coding strand of the DNA molecule.

B. Both the location of the start site and the direction of transcription can be established.

73

64. Within the transcription bubble, the 9 most recently added nucleotides in the newly synthesized RNA strand temporarily form a helix with the template DNA strand. How might transcription be affected if helix formation did not occur?
A. Rewinding the DNA molecule would be inhibited.
B. Unwinding the DNA molecule would be inhibited.
C. The position of the 5' end of the RNA would be unstable, inhibiting elongation.
D. The position of the 3' end of the RNA would be unstable, inhibiting elongation.
E. The position of the 5' end of the RNA would be unstable, stimulating elongation.

D. The position of the 3' end of the RNA would be unstable, inhibiting elongation.

74

65. Cells conserve energy and resources by making active proteins only when they are needed. If a protein is not needed, which of the following methods of control would be the most energy-efficient?
A. block transcription
B. degrade the mRNA after it is made
C. prevent translation of the mRNA
D. degrade the protein after it is made

A. block transcription

75

66. What is required for formation of the transcription initiation complex in eukaryotes?
A. binding of a transcription factor to the TATA box, followed by recruitment of additional transcription factors and recruitment of RNA polymerase II
B. binding of a transcription factor to the transcription bubble, followed by recruitment of additional transcription factors and recruitment of RNA polymerase III
C. binding of the sigma subunit to the start site followed by recruitment of RNA polymerase II
D. binding of RNA polymerase II to the TATA box, followed by recruitment of transcription factors
E. binding of the sigma subunit to promoter elements at -35 and -10, followed by recruitment of the core polymerase

A. binding of a transcription factor to the TATA box, followed by recruitment of additional transcription factors and recruitment of RNA polymerase II

76

67. What is the likely consequence of a mutation that alters the branch point within an intron?
A. no effect, since introns are not expressed
B. failure to form a lariat
C. failure of snRNPs to recognize the 5' end of intron
D. no exon shuffling
E. failure of snRNPs to combine with protein and form the spliceosome

B. failure to form a lariat

77

68. You are working to characterize a novel protein in mice. Analysis shows that high levels of the primary transcript that codes for this protein are found in tissue from the brain, muscle, liver, and pancreas. However, an antibody that recognizes the C-terminal portion of the protein indicates that the protein is present in brain, muscle, and liver, but not in the pancreas. What is the most likely explanation for this result?
A. The gene that codes for this protein is not transcribed in the pancreas.
B. There is no modification of the primary transcript in the pancreas.
C. There is no modification of the primary transcript in the brain, muscle, and liver.
D. Alternative splicing in the pancreas yields a protein that is missing the portion that the antibody recognizes.
E. Alternative splicing in the brain, muscle, and liver increases the level of translation.

D. Alternative splicing in the pancreas yields a protein that is missing the portion that the antibody recognizes.

78

69. The mutation responsible for Huntington's disease is a
A. missense mutation.
B. nonsense mutation.
C. frameshift mutation.
D. triplet repeat expansion mutation.

D. triplet repeat expansion mutation.

79

70. How would a large chromosomal inversion affect the expression of a gene if the gene is located between the two break points but no breaks occur within the gene?
A. The inversion would probably have no effect on gene expression.
B. The gene would not be transcribed because it would be oriented in the wrong direction.
C. The gene would be transcribed in the 3' to 5' direction.
D. The gene would be transcribed normally but the mRNA would be translated in the 3' to 5' direction.

A. The inversion would probably have no effect on gene expression.

80

71. How does DNA polymerase differ from RNA polymerase?
A. Only RNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing chain.
B. Only RNA polymerase requires a primer.
C. Only DNA polymerase uses a template DNA strand to direct synthesis of a new nucleotide strand.
D. Only DNA polymerase has a proofreading ability.

D. Only DNA polymerase has a proofreading ability.

81

72. A scientist makes three artificial mRNA strands:
(x) 5' AAAUUUAAAUUUAAAUUUAAAUUUAAA 3'
(y) 5' UUUCCCUUUCCCUUUCCCUUUCCCUUU 3'
(z) 5' AUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAU 3'

When he analyzes the polypeptides produced, he finds that:
x produces a polypeptide that is 50% phenylalanine and 50%lysine.
y produces a polypeptide that is 50% phenylalanine and 50% proline.
z produces a polypeptide that is 50% isoleucine and 50% tyrosine.

Based on these results only, the best conclusion to make is that

A. AUA codes for isoleucine
B. AAA codes for phenylalanine
C. AAA codes for lysine
D. AAA codes for lysine and AUA codes for isoleucine
E. AAA codes for phenylalanine and AUA codes for isoleucine

C. AAA codes for lysine

82

73. A bacterial cell has a nonsense mutation that prevents it from producing a functional sigma subunit for RNA polymerase. Inability to synthesize a functional sigma subunit would have the most direct effect on
A. transcription initiation.
B. transcription elongation.
C. transcription termination.
D. translation initiation.
E. translation termination.

A. transcription initiation.

83

74. What is the best way to describe our current understanding of the one-gene/one-polypeptide hypothesis?
A. It applies to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
B. It applies to prokaryotes but not to eukaryotes.
C. It applies to eukaryotes but not to prokaryotes.
D. It has been replaced by the one-gene/one-enzyme hypothesis.

B. It applies to prokaryotes but not to eukaryotes.

84

76. You are studying an individual with very low levels of insulin in her blood. Further analysis indicates that cells of her pancreas are producing normal levels of this protein, but most of it is accumulating in the cytoplasm rather than being secreted from the cells. Which hypothesis to explain this observation makes the most sense?
A. A small deletion has removed the nucleotides that code for the signal sequence at the amino terminus of the protein.
B. A missense mutation has caused premature termination during translation of this protein.
C. A chromosomal segment that includes the gene for insulin has been inverted.
D. A two-base deletion near the middle of the gene has altered the reading frame during translation of the protein.
E. A missense mutation has altered the ribosome-binding sequence at the 5' end of the mRNA.

A. A small deletion has removed the nucleotides that code for the signal sequence at the amino terminus of the protein.

85

75. You are attempting to synthesize rRNA in a test tube using DNA isolated from mouse cells. In addition to the template DNA, ribonucleotides, and the necessary transcription factors, you should also add _________ to the test tube.
A. poly-A polymerase
B. RNA polymerase III
C. RNA polymerase II
D. RNA polymerase I

D. RNA polymerase I

86

77. A gene that codes for a protein was removed from a eukaryotic cell and inserted into a prokaryotic cell. Although the gene was successfully transcribed and translated, it produced a different protein than it produced in the eukaryotic cell. What is the most likely explanation?
A. There are slight differences in the genetic code for prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
B. Unlike eukaryotes, which have three different RNA polymerases, prokaryotes have a single RNA polymerase.
C. Eukaryotic genes often contain introns while prokaryotic genes do not.
D. Eukaryotic transcripts have a 5' cap while prokaryotic transcripts do not.

C. Eukaryotic genes often contain introns while prokaryotic genes do not.

87

78. What is the base sequence, in the DNA template strand, of the intron that is closest to the 3' end of this strand?
Shown below is a hypothetical DNA sequence from a virus. Also shown is the sequence of the RNA that is synthesized from this DNA.

DNA sequence:

5'-AGCACCTGCCGAATGGGCCAAATCCTGCCGAATAAA-3'
3'-TCGTGGACGGCTTACCCGGTTTAGGACGGCTTATTT -5'

RNA sequence (G* = G cap):

5'-G*AGCACCUGCCGCCUGCCGAAUAAAAAAA....-3'

78. What is the base sequence, in the DNA template strand, of the intron that is closest to the 3' end of this strand?
A. TCGTGGACGGC
B. TTACCCGGTTTA
C. GGACGGCTTATTT
D. GCTTACCCGGTT

A. TCGTGGACGGC
B. TTACCCGGTTTA
C. GGACGGCTTATTT
D. GCTTACCCGGTT

B. TTACCCGGTTTA

88

79. The RNA was most likely transcribed by
A. RNA polymerase holoenzyme.
B. RNA polymerase I.
C. RNA polymerase II.
D. RNA polymerase III.

B. RNA polymerase I.