Reproduction Flashcards

1) All of the following things occur during meiosis I with the exception of one thing. Select the statement below that does not occur during meiosis I.

A) A single diploid (2n) cell has become two haploid (n) cells.

B) Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal chromosomes.

C) The sister chromatids are separated from each other.

D) The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other.

2) Which of the following statements is true of metaphase I of meiosis I?

A) Joined homologous pair uniformly line up on the equatorial spindle with chromosome one at the top and chromosome 23 on the bottom.

B) Tetrads align randomly on the spindle equator with all the maternal homologs on one side and all the paternal homologs on the opposite side.

C) Homologous pairs align randomly on the spindle equator with a mix of paternal and maternal homologs destined for each of the daughter cells.

D) The sister chromatids line up randomly on the spindle equator with some maternal and paternal chromatids on both sides of the equator.

3) Select the statement below that is false.

A) Meiosis results in haploid cells while mitosis results in diploid cells.

B) A cell undergoing meiosis results in 4 cells while a cell undergoing mitosis results in two cells.

C) Meiosis occurs only in stem cells while mitosis can occur in any of the body's cells.

D) Meiosis occurs only after the onset of puberty and produces genetically unique cells while mitosis occurs throughout an entire life time and produces genetically identical cells.

4) Select the statement which is true regarding independent assortment.

A) Its effects are significant in meiosis and in mitosis.

B) It only occurs in meiosis II.

C) It is a significant source of genetic variation only during meiosis I.

D) It is a significant source of genetic variation that occurs in meiosis I and meiosis II.

5) Select the statement which is false.

A) Meiosis II is essential the same process as mitosis except the starting cells are haploid (n).

B) Further genetic variation typically does not occur after meiosis I.

C) Crossing over is a source of genetic variability seen in meiosis while independent assortment is a source of genetic variability seen in mitosis.

D) Meiosis II is essential the same process as mitosis except the genetic material will not replicate before division takes place.

6) All but one of the following statements are true regarding the differences between early and late spermatids. Select the answer below that does not reflect a difference between early and late spermatids.

A) Early spermatids are round and have excessive cytoplasm.

B) Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid.

C) Early spermatids have not undergone spermiogenesis.

D) Early spermatids have not formed a flagella.

7) During spermiogenesis ________.

A) the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for digestion of the excessive cytoplasm around the flagella of the developing sperm

B) the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for penetration when the sperm contacts the egg during fertilization

C) the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its pointy shape helps the sperm to move more efficiently

D) the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because of its ability to propel the flagella moving the sperm through the female reproductive system towards the egg

8) All but one of the events described below occur during spermiogenesis. Select the event that does not occur during spermiogenesis.

A) The centrioles migrate to the posterior end of the developing sperm to form the microtubules that make up the flagellum.

B) Mitochondrial DNA is packaged into the nucleus to be delivered to the egg during fertilization.

C) Excessive cytoplasm will be shed to reduce unneeded mass of the maturing sperm.

D) Mitochondria form around the proximal end of the flagellum. They will provide the ATP to drive the motion of the flagellum.

9) All but one of the following statements is true with regard to the blood testis barrier. Select the one statement that is false.

A) The barrier is made up of astrocytes that surround blood vessels in the testis.

B) The barrier marks the border between the basal compartment and the adluminal compartment.

C) The barrier separates the spermatocytes dividing by meiosis from exposing their unique antigens to the immune system.

D) Sustentocytes form the barrier with tight junctions.

10) All but one of the following statements is true of uterine function. Select the statement that is not true of uterine function.

A) The endometrium has a functional layer that the embryo will implant into.

B) Its rhythmic, reverse peristalsis can propel sperm toward the egg.

C) The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization.

D) The myometrium contracts to expel the fetus during child birth.

11) The oral contraceptive pill, informally called "the pill" contains an estrogen and progesterone or a synthetic mimic of this hormone. The combination of these two hormones taken in the pill and circulating in the blood work because.

A) The hormones cause the woman's body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation.

B) The hormones create an acid condition in the vagina that acts as a spermicide.

C) The hormones prevent the proliferative or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle and the embryo will have no place to implant.

D) The hormones cause a thickening of the mucus plug at the cervix that prevents sperm from penetrating the womb and reaching the ovulated egg.

12) All but one of the following statements describes the necessity of the blood testis barrier. Select the one statement that does not describe a necessity of the blood testis barrier.

A) Spermatogenesis produces new combinations of genes and chromosomes that results in unique antigens that the immune system may see as foreign.

B) Spermatocytes undergo meiosis only during puberty, well after the immune system has come to recognize "self" from "non-self" cells.

C) Sperm can only be produced at temperatures lower than body temperature. Inflammation in the testis could raise the temperature too high to produce sperm.

D) Foreign antigens produced by the newly formed sperm could initiate an autoimmune response against the developing sperm.

18) The genetic determinate for male reproductive development is ________.

A) inhibition of estrogen

B) the SRY gene

C) presence of testosterone

D) lack of an X chromosome

19) The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the ________.

A) infundibula

B) fallopian tubes

C) Graafian follicles

D) fimbriae

20) If gametes were diploid like somatic cells, how many chromosomes would the zygote contain?

A) Twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur.

B) Half the diploid number with no change in development.

C) Triple the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to triple and normal development would not occur.

D) There is no relationship between gametes and somatic cells.

21) Human egg and sperm are similar in that ________.

A) about the same number of each is produced per month

B) they have the same degree of motility

C) they are about the same size

D) they have the same number of chromosomes

22) Fertilization generally occurs in the ________.

A) uterus

B) fallopian tubes

C) vagina

D) ovary

23) In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the production of twins, which in this case would be ________.

A) genetically identical

B) fraternal

C) dizygotic

D) potentially of different sexes

24) How do the testes respond to exposure to excessive body warmth?

A) They move away from the pelvic cavity.

B) Excessive warmth is actually beneficial in that it speeds up the maturation of sperm.

C) They move close to the pelvic cavity.

D) Excessive warmth has no effect on the testicles because of their location in the scrotum.

25) Effects of estrogen include ________.

A) growth of the larynx

B) deepening of the voice

C) growth of the breasts at puberty

D) increased oiliness of the skin

26) Secretion of progesterone stimulates ________.

A) contraction of uterine muscles

B) development of the female secondary sex characteristics

C) preparation of the mammary glands for lactation

D) proliferation of the uterine myometrium

27) The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________.

1. A) spermatogonia
2. B) sustentacular cells
3. C) interstitial endocrine cells

D) spermatocytes

28) Which of the following occurs as a result of undescended testes?

A) Inadequate blood supply will retard the development of the testes.

B) Inadequate or nonviable sperm will be produced.

C) Sperm will have no means of exit from the body.

D) Male sex hormones will not be circulated in the body.

30) Which of the choices below is not a function of the vagina?

A) serves as the birth canal

B) receives semen from the penis during sexual intercourse

C) serves as a passageway for menstrual flow

D) serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte

31) Select the correct statement about male sexual response.

A) Expansion of the penile tissues results in dilation of the venous outflow.

B) Erection is the result of vascular spaces in the erectile tissues filling with blood.

C) Ejaculation is the result of parasympathetic stimulation.

D) Sympathetic impulses are responsible for causing penile arteriolar dilation, resulting in erection.

32) Which of the choices below is not a function of testosterone?

A) stimulates the male pattern of development

B) stimulates protein synthesis

C) contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis

D) stimulates mammary gland development

33) Which male hormone inhibits the secretion of FSH?

A) GnRH

B) ACTH

C) inhibin

D) ICSH

34) During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle ________.

A) LH reaches its highest levels

B) the Graafian follicle forms

C) estrogen reaches its highest levels

D) progesterone levels are at their highest

35) Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle.

A) During the secretory phase, estrogen levels are at their highest.

B) The menstrual phase of the cycle is normally from day 1 to day 8.

C) During the proliferative phase, levels of progesterone rise as the follicle begins to produce more hormone.

D) If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo.

36) Which of the choices below is not a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis?

A) thalamus

B) hypothalamus

C) anterior pituitary gland

D) interstitial cells

37) Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females?

1. A) The only time hormones target breast tissue is during pregnancy and lactation.
2. B) All lumps identified in breast tissue are malignant.
3. C) The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary system.

D) Both sexes are equally prone to breast cancer

38) Normally menstruation occurs when ________.

A) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease

B) blood levels of FSH fall off

C) the corpus luteum secretes estrogen

D) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase

39) The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that ________.

A) in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell

B) during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced

C) the mature ovum is n, while the sperm is 2n

D) spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only

40) Occasionally three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from an unequal division of the ovum, but from where did the other two arise?

A) One is an undeveloped primary oocyte that failed to mature.

B) There were originally four polar bodies and one disappeared.

C) What you really see are two polar bodies and the sperm that will fertilize the egg.

D) The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies.

41) Which of the following will occur after ovulation?

A) The corpus luteum prepares to become a corpus albicans.

B) The endometrium enters its secretory phase.

C) The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only.

D) The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins is enhanced.

42) Why doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation?

A) The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes.

B) There is no urge to urinate during sexual intercourse because of the suppression of LH by testosterone buildup in the blood.

C) Ejaculation is a parasympathetic reflex resulting in no response by urinary contraction muscles.

D) There is no common duct between the reproductive system and the urinary system.

43) Spermatogenesis ________.

A) results in the formation of diploid cells

B) is the process of releasing mature sperm cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule

C) involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes

D) uses mitosis to produce gamete cells

44) The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis ________.

A) involves FSH and LH release

B) involves a positive feedback loop control of spermatogenesis

C) is the tight relationship between the cortex and the control of testicular function

D) involves posterior pituitary release of regulating hormones

45) Select the correct statement about testosterone control.

A) Inhibin and testosterone exert positive feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary.

B) FSH stimulates testicular production of testosterone.

C) The pineal gland is believed to be the gland that exerts the most influence in testosterone control.

D) GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.

46) Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes?

A) The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.

B) The isthmus is the normal site of fertilization.

C) The mesometrium supports the uterine tubes along their entire length.

D) The ampulla is the narrow constricted region.

47) Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle.

A) The LH surge stimulates further development of the secondary oocyte.

B) High estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release.

C) The follicle begins to secrete progesterone in response to estrogen stimulation.

D) Rising levels of estrogen start follicle development.

48) Which of these statements about sexually transmitted infections is false?

A) Genital herpes is caused by a virus that may cause intermittent lesions.

B) Chlamydia is caused by bacteria that can often be asymptomatic or bring on a wide variety of symptoms.

C) Syphilis is caused by a virus that may lead to death if untreated.

D) Gonorrhea is caused by a bacterium that can bring on painful discharges in males.

49) Which of the following statements about spermatogenesis is not true?

1. A) Each spermatid forms two sperm.
2. B) The secondary spermatocytes each form two spermatids.
3. C) The spermatogonium forms the primary spermatocyte.

D) The primary spermatocyte forms two secondary spermatocytes

50) A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would ________.

A) be unable to produce viable sperm

B) be impotent (unable to have an erection)

C) have impaired function of interstitial cells

D) not develop secondary sex characteristics

51) Which of the following statements about the female reproductive process is not true?

A) Rebuilding the endometrium is under the control of prolactin.

B) The monthly discharge of the uterus (menses) is initiated by the decrease in secretion of female hormones.

C) Ovulation usually occurs 14 days after the beginning of menses.

D) Fertilization usually occurs in the fallopian tube.

52) A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause ________.

A) shrinkage of the anterior pituitary gland

B) decreased testosterone secretion

C) increased spermatogenesis

D) excessive beard growth

53) All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except ________.

A) the corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation

B) FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium

C) a decrease in the levels of ovarian hormones signals menstruation

D) estrogen is secreted by the developing follicle in the follicular phase of the cycle

54) Which of the following phases or processes in the monthly reproductive cycle of the female occur simultaneously?

A) regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion

B) maximal steroid secretion by the corpus luteum and menstruation

C) early follicular development and the secretory phase in the uterus

D) maximal LH secretion and menstruation

55) The duct system of the male reproductive system includes all but which of the following?

A) epididymis

B) ductus deferens

C) urethra

D) corpus spongiosum

56) Prostate cancer is ________.

A) sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient

B) the number-one cause of death in men

C) often the result of a distortion of the urethra

D) most common in Asians