Pathophysiology 370 - BSN West Coast University (ONT): 201608 FAI

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Pathophysiology
Chapters 1, 2, 4, 7, 10, 11, 15, 16, 18-20, 22, 27, 31, 33, 36, 44, 52
*REVIEW FOR FINAL TEST* PRACTICE TEST FOR CHAPTERS: 1, 2, 4, 7, 10, 11, 15, 16, 18, 19, 20, 22, 27, 31, 33, 36, 44, 52 *10 TAKE HOME TEST QUESTIONS
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1

CHAPTER 1

The study of specific characteristics and functions of a living organism and its parts is called:

Physiology

2

CHAPTER 1

Restoration of effective function is the goal of which level of prevention?

Tertiary

3

CHAPTER 1

Which organ shrinks with age?

Gums

4

CHAPTER 1

Which statement is true about the normal biological variations related to age?

There is less thirst perception in the elderly

5

CHAPTER 1

Which statement is true?

Women have a lower hemoglobin level than men

6

CHAPTER 1

Which term means “cause of the disease?"

Etiology

7

CHAPTER 1

When the cause of a disease is due to unintended or unwanted medical treatment, the term to describe this is

Iatrogenic

8

CHAPTER 1

Signs and symptoms of a disease first occur during the

Prodromal period

9

CHAPTER 1

Which term is used to describe an objectively identifiable aberration of the disease?

Sign

10

CHAPTER 2

Which term refers to a state of tension that can lead to disruption or threaten physical stability

Stress

11

CHAPTER 2

Which is not one of the recognized components of the general adaptation syndrome?

Allostasis

12

CHAPTER 2

What stage is defined by “fight or flight”?

Alarm

13

CHAPTER 2

Which is true regarding catecholamines?

They include epinephrine and norepinephrine.

14

CHAPTER 2

Which statement is true regarding epinephrine?

It results in increased cardiac output.

15

CHAPTER 2

Which is a true statement regarding cortisol?

It produces stress response effects similar to those of epinephrine.

16

CHAPTER 2

On which area does cortisol have an anabolic effect?

Protein

17

CHAPTER 2

Which hormone is responsible for lactation and interferes with ovulation?

Prolactin

18

CHAPTER 2

Which cardiovascular disorder has not been linked to excessive catecholamine levels in the blood?

Heart valve disfunction

19

CHAPTER 2

Which is a false statement?

Endorphins decrease with stress, resulting in an increase in pain perception.

20

CHAPTER 4

Which condition occurs in the presence of cellular damage?

Sodium and water move into the cell.

21

CHAPTER 4

An increase in which of these characteristics would be present in cells that demonstrate hypertrophy?

Size of cells

22

CHAPTER 4

Cellular hypoxia results in

Failure of the sodium-potassium pump

23

CHAPTER 4

Which cellular response is maladaptive?

Change in the shape or arrangement of cells

24

CHAPTER 4

A critical event in the death of a cell is caused by

Disruption of the plasma membrane’s permeability barrier

25

CHAPTER 4

A client develops weakness in both lower extremities following a prolonged period of bed rest. This condition is most likely caused by

Atrophy

26

CHAPTER 4

A heart that has to pump harder in order to effectively circulate blood is likely to undergo which type of cellular adaptation?

Hypertrophy

27

CHAPTER 4

Which type of cellular adaptation is most likely to occur as the result of chronic ischemia to a region?

Hypertrophy

28

CHAPTER 4

Viruses injure cells differently than other causes of cellular injury because they

Are incorporated into the cell, where it uses the cell’s RNA or DNA for self-replication

29

CHAPTER 4

What is the mechanism of cellular injury that occurs when deep sea divers get “the bends”?

Gas bubbles form in the blood, blocking circulation and resulting in ischemia.

30

CHAPTER 4

In muscle hypertrophy, the hypertrophied cells increase in

Size

31

CHAPTER 4

Which type of cellular adaptation would create the greatest concern if found on a biopsy report?

Dysplasia

32

CHAPTER 4

Which is a theory of aging? Select all that apply

  • Free radical
  • Programmed senescence
33

CHAPTER 4

Necrosis is the result of cellular injury that does not allow for cellular adaptation because it is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Too severe
  • Too prolonged
  • A result of a disrupted blood supply
34

CHAPTER 7

Abnormal new cellular growth is referred to as

Neoplasia

35

CHAPTER 7

Which gene has been identified as specifically contributing to some types of breast cancer?

BRCA1

36

CHAPTER 7

Which is the oncogene that allows cells to grow indefinitely?

Myc

37

CHAPTER 7

Which is a true statement regarding metastasis?

Cells must first escape the basement membrane of tissue.

38

CHAPTER 7

Which term is used to describe the histologic characterization of tumor cells?

Grading

39

CHAPTER 7

Which term is used to describe the deficiency in circulating platelets?

Thrombocytopenia

40

CHAPTER 7

A patient diagnosed with cancer presents with Cushing syndrome secondary to excessive adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion. This syndrome is described as

Paraneoplastic syndrome

41

CHAPTER 7

Which offers the best prognosis for the cure of cancer?

Early detection

42

CHAPTER 7

Which statement accurately describes the proliferation of cancer cells?

The number of developing cells exceeds the number of dying cells.

43

CHAPTER 7

Which is a characteristic of cancer cells?

Poor differentiation

44

CHAPTER 7

Which of these statements best describes the purpose of the TNM classification system?

It provides tumor data for the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

45

CHAPTER 7

In what way do proto-oncogenes become activated oncogenes?

Certain retroviruses enter host cells, altering their DNA structure.

46

CHAPTER 7

Which condition explains the genetic basis for cancer development?

Loss of or defect in tumor suppressor genes

47

CHAPTER 7

Which statement is true regarding cancer? (Select all that apply.)

  • The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer.
  • Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.
48

CHAPTER 7

Which statement about oncogene activation is true? (Select all that apply.)

  • Oncogenes may be introduced into the host cell by a retrovirus.
  • Proto-oncogenes may undergo a mutation thus becoming overly active.
  • DNA sequences that normally suppress proto-oncogene expression may be inactivated.
  • An error may occur in the replication of the chromosome such that extra copies are produced.
49

CHAPTER 7

Which retrovirus is believed to cause cancer? (Select all that apply.)

  • Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
  • Human T-lymphocyte virus type I
  • Epstein-Barr virus
50

CHAPTER 7

Which statement regarding cancer deaths is true? (Select all that apply.)

  • The 5-year combined survival rate for cancer is 68%.
  • Men have a 1 in 2 lifetime risk of developing cancer.
  • Women have a 1 in 3 lifetime risk of developing cancer.
51

CHAPTER 7

Which statement regarding tobacco use and lung cancer is true? (Select all that apply.)

  • Lung cancer accounts for 30% of all cancer deaths.
  • Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths in men and women.
  • The survival rate of patients with lung cancer is the lowest among all cancers.
  • Tobacco use has been linked to cancer of the pancreas, bladder, and kidneys as well.
52

CHAPTER 7

Patients who have advanced cancer develop cachexia because of which of the following reasons? (Select all that apply.)

  • They have an increased basal metabolic rate.
  • Nausea and vomiting are common complications.
  • Cancer cells produce an enzyme that robs normal cells of nutrients.
  • Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and other immune cytokines are produced.
53

CHAPTER 10

Which type of hypersensitivity response is mediated by T cells?

Hypersensitivity type IV

54

CHAPTER 10

A severe life-threatening type I hypersensitivity reaction is

Anaphylaxis

55

CHAPTER 10

Which immunodeficiency disorder is a primary immunodeficiency disorder?

Immunodeficiency associated with DiGeorge syndrome

56

CHAPTER 10

The health history of a 6-month-old breastfed child reveals serious, recurrent bacterial and fungal infections. The most likely cause of these infections is

Immune deficiency

57

CHAPTER 10

A 39-year-old patient who has been taking a specific antibiotic for years without problems develops tachycardia, lowered blood pressure, wheezing, and urticaria when given this antibiotic in the clinic. The most likely explanation for this occurrence is that the patient

Is experiencing an anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction to the antibiotic

58

CHAPTER 10

What is the pathophysiologic abnormality underlying systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

Autoimmunity

59

CHAPTER 11

It is true that the Epstein-Barr virus is

Considered a cause of Burkitt lymphoma

60

CHAPTER 11

Which term best describes a condition that presents with the symptoms of petechiae, easy bruising, bleeding gums, occult hematuria, or retinal hemorrhages?

Thrombocytopenia

61

CHAPTER 11

When a patient receives bone marrow from a closely matched relative, it is referred to as what type of transplant?

Allogenic

62

CHAPTER 11

Which statement regarding myelodysplastic syndromes and acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is true?

Neoplastic cells are functionally abnormal.

63

CHAPTER 11

Which statement regarding chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is a true statement?

Affected persons carry the Philadelphia chromosome.

64

CHAPTER 11

It is true that acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) is

Primarily diagnosed in children

65

CHAPTER 11

Which is a malignant disorder of mature antibody-secreting B lymphocytes or plasma cells?

Multiple myeloma

66

CHAPTER 11

Which disease has the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells on histologic examination?

Hodgkin lymphoma

67

CHAPTER 11

Which is the stage when spread of lymphoma has reached extralymphatic organs and tissues?

Stage IV

68

CHAPTER 11

It is true that non-Hodgkin lymphoma

Is more common in men than in women

69

CHAPTER 11

What assists in the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?

Bence Jones proteins

70

CHAPTER 11

What gene is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?

bcr-abl

71

CHAPTER 11

Which cell is from myeloid lineage? (Select all that apply.)

  • Platelets
  • Monocytes
  • Granulocytes
72

CHAPTER 11

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is characterized by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Elevated granulocyte count
  • Abdominal discomfort
  • Weight loss
73

CHAPTER 11

Which is a lymphoid neoplasm category? (Select all that apply.)

  • B-cell neoplasm
  • Hodgkin disease
  • Natural killer cell neoplasm
74

CHAPTER 15

The movement of nutrients and O2 as well as the removal of metabolic wastes occurs in

Capillaries

75

CHAPTER 15

Which statement regarding the lymphatic system is true?

It allows for leakage from the vascular system to be reabsorbed into the body’s circulation system.

76

CHAPTER 15

Which statement is true regarding the streamlined nature of laminar blood flow?

A thrill can be palpated when blood flows over a roughened intimal surface.

77

CHAPTER 15

What are the main causes of edema?

When the adjacent lymphatic system develops an impaired lymphatic flow or when the capillaries themselves become more permeable and “leak” fluid into the cell

78

CHAPTER 15

What is the difference between capillary fluid pressure and plasma colloid osmotic pressure?

Capillary fluid pressure is the fluid pressure inside the capillary and is the force pushing fluid from the capillary into the interstitium; plasma colloid osmotic pressure is the primary force because of the presence of plasma proteins, which results in fluid remaining in the capillary.

79

CHAPTER 15

Contraction of vascular smooth muscle (referred to as vasomotor tone) is mostly accomplished via the extrinsic mechanism of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in which receptor response?

α-1

80

CHAPTER 15

What is the specific terminology to describe the formation of a blood clot in a vein?

Thrombophlebitis

81

CHAPTER 15

Thrombosis in the microcirculation throughout the body is called

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

82

CHAPTER 15

What are the upper acceptable values for cholesterol within the blood?

Total cholesterol level of 200 mg/dl, HDL of 40 mg/dl, and LDL of 160 mg/dl

83

CHAPTER 15

Which is a modifiable risk factor for prevention of atherosclerosis?

Smoking

84

CHAPTER 15

The role of the circulatory system is to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Transport O2 and nutrients throughout the body
  • Remove waste products found within the body
85

CHAPTER 15

An accurate comparison of arterial and venal vessels would include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Vein walls are thinner than those of arteries.
  • Venules are composed primarily of connective tissue
  • The principle tissue found in arterioles is smooth muscle
  • With increasing age, the intimal arterial wall looses elasticity.
86

CHAPTER 15

Which statement(s) are true regarding circulatory hemodynamics? (Select all that apply.)

  • As blood flow increases, resistance decreases.
  • Resistance decreases as the radius of a vessel increases.
  • As the pressure difference in the vessels increases, the blood flow increases.
87

CHAPTER 15

Which statement is true regarding the process of autoregulation? (Select all that apply.)

  • This process is responsible for maintaining a relatively constant flow of blood in the body.
  • As vascular smooth muscle is stretched, it contracts, which produces vasoconstriction.
  • The process takes blood flow within a range that is unique to a specific organ’s needs.
  • In instances of decreased metabolic demand, blood flow to the tissue is reduced.
88

CHAPTER 15

Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of arterial thrombosis? (Select all that apply.)

  • Pain is increased with activity in the affected limb.
  • The limb is usually cool to the touch and cyanotic.
  • A late sign is an ulcer around the toe.
  • Intermittent claudication and pain.
89

CHAPTER 15

A contributing factor to the formation of an embolus includes which of the following?(Select all that apply.)

  • Dislodged fat after long-bone surgery
  • Air bolus introduced by IV therapy
  • Foreign object in the blood stream
  • An infected blood vessel
90

CHAPTER 15

Which condition can produce signs and symptoms of a stroke? (Select all that apply.)

  • Atherosclerosis
  • Cerebral aneurysm
  • Cerebral AV fistula
91

CHAPTER 15

A true statement regarding atherosclerosis is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Atherosclerosis usually affects the coronary, cerebral, carotid, femoral arteries and the aorta.
  • Atherosclerosis is a result of medium and large arteries being occluded.
  • Atherosclerosis is the dominant type of arteriosclerosis.
92

CHAPTER 15

A skin assessment of the legs of a client diagnosed with chronic venous insufficiency would show which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Reddish pigmented areas
  • Reports of legs “cramping”
  • Edema increasing as the day progresses
  • An ulcer on the ankle of the affected leg
93

CHAPTER 16

Which is a major determinant of diastolic blood pressure?

Vascular resistance

94

CHAPTER 16

Which best defines systolic blood pressure?

Occurs during ventricular contraction

95

CHAPTER 16

Which term is determined by stroke volume, speed of ejection, and arterial distensibility?

Pulse pressure

96

CHAPTER 16

Cardiac output is the product of both

Stroke volume and heart rate

97

CHAPTER 16

Which receptor is responsible for innervation of the arterioles?

α-1

98

CHAPTER 16

Which statement is true about baroreceptors?

An increase in pressure causes an increase in impulse discharge.

99

CHAPTER 16

What is another name for vasopressin?

Antidiuretic hormone

100

CHAPTER 16

Which term is used to identify hypertension that has a specific disease as its cause?

Secondary

101

CHAPTER 16

Which situation causes an increase in blood pressure?

Intracerebral hemorrhage

102

CHAPTER 16

Which statement is true regarding hypertension during pregnancy?

Cardiac output (CO) is reduced by 40% to 60% during pregnancy.

103

CHAPTER 16

Which statement is true regarding hypertension?

High blood pressure can be associated with headache and seizures.

104

CHAPTER 16

Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) can be indirectly estimated with the use of which blood pressure measurement?

Diastolic pressure

105

CHAPTER 16

Aortic and carotid baroreceptors are activated by ___________, resulting in ___________.

decreased blood pressure; an increase in cardiac output (CO), systemic vascular resistance (SVR), heart rate (HR), and blood pressure

106

CHAPTER 16

The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) alters blood pressure in response to

Decreased perfusion to the kidney

107

CHAPTER 16

What stimulates the release of renin? (Select all that apply.)

  • Renal hypoperfusion
  • Sympathetic activation
  • Decreased sodium delivery
108

CHAPTER 16

What causes vasodilation? (Select all that apply.)

  • Nitric oxide
  • Histamine
  • Kinins
109

CHAPTER 16

Which is a risk factor associated with hypertension? (Select all that apply.)

  • Age
  • African-American race
  • History of tobacco smoking
110

CHAPTER 16

Which condition is an endocrine disorder that causes elevated blood pressure? (Select all that apply.)

  • Cushing disease
  • Hyperthyroidism
111

CHAPTER 16

Systemic blood pressure is determined by which factor(s)? (Select all that apply.)

  • Heart rate (HR)
  • Stroke volume (SV)
  • Cardiac output (CO)
  • Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
112

CHAPTER 16

Risk factors for the development of high blood pressure are which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Age
  • Race
  • Diet
  • Weight
113

CHAPTER 16

High blood pressure can be treated with lifestyle modification related to which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Decreased sodium intake
  • Relaxation techniques
  • Weight management
  • Exercise
114

CHAPTER 18

Atherosclerosis predisposes to a number of processes that are factors in myocardial ischemia. These processes include

Thrombus formation

115

CHAPTER 18

Abnormal vascular regulation by endothelial cells in small vessels of the heart contributes to

Ischemic heart disease

116

CHAPTER 18

What is the marker of choice for detecting a myocardial infarction?

Elevated serum levels of cardiac troponin

117

CHAPTER 18

In a patient with mitral stenosis, cardiac catheterization findings would indicate increased pressure in the

Left atria

118

CHAPTER 18

Which condition may result in chronic pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right-sided heart failure?

Mitral valve stenosis

119

CHAPTER 18

The primary cause of sudden cardiac death is usually due to

Ventricular dysrhythmia

120

CHAPTER 18

What factor causes a congenital heart disease to produce cyanosis?

Right-to-left shunting of blood

121

CHAPTER 18

Which clinical manifestation differentiates myocardial infarction (MI) from angina pectoris? (Select all that apply.)

  • Radiating chest pain
  • ST-segment changes on the ECG
  • Elevated serum levels of troponin
122

CHAPTER 18

The pathologic changes that occur in the development of coronary atherosclerotic lesions include cell damage resulting from which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • The effects of oxidized lipids
  • An inflammatory response
  • The formation of plaques
123

CHAPTER 18

Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • A ventricular septal defect
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy
  • Obstructed right ventricular outflow
  • An aorta positioned above the ventricular septal opening
124

CHAPTER 19

Which medication classification is used to decrease preload in patients with heart failure?

Diuretics

125

CHAPTER 19

A patient with heart failure reports awakening intermittently with shortness of breath. Which terms appropriately describes this clinical manifestation?

Paroxysmal nocturnal

126

CHAPTER 19

Which left atrial pressure readings indicates a risk of increased capillary filtration that results in the clinical manifestations of pulmonary edema?

25 mm Hg

127

CHAPTER 19

A patient has a regular heart rate of 54 beats/min. The nurse would document this rhythm as

Bradycardia

128

CHAPTER 19

Atrial fibrillation is best described as when

Disorganized and irregular atrial waves are accompanied by an irregular ventricular rate

129

CHAPTER 19

A common cause of heart failure is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Coronary artery disease
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Hypertension
130

CHAPTER 19

A patient is admitted to the hospital with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.)

  • Cough
  • Dyspnea
  • Crackles in lungs
131

CHAPTER 19

Which diagnostic analysis is used to identify patients with heart failure? (Select all that apply.)

  • BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide)
  • Echocardiogram
  • Chest x-ray film
132

CHAPTER 19

What effect does stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system have on the arterioles and resulting systemic reaction? (Select all that apply.)

  • In increased vascular resistance
  • Increased blood pressure
  • Increased afterload
  • Constriction
133

CHAPTER 19

The nurse includes what information when educating a client concerning a first-degree heart block? (Select all that apply.)

  • An electrocardiogram is used to identify this conduction disorder.
  • Congenital heart defects are often the cause of the disorder.
  • The condition is monitored, but not actively managed.
134

CHAPTER 20

A patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is given a drug to lyse the clot in the coronary artery. What is the best explanation for the sudden development of a serious arrhythmia once circulation is restored?

The return of oxygen perfusion resulted in reperfusion injury.

135

CHAPTER 20

For the patient in hypovolemic shock, what compensatory mechanism will help preserve adequate circulation?

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade.

136

CHAPTER 20

What is the underlying problem common among all types of shock?

Inadequate cellular oxygenation

137

CHAPTER 20

What is the pathophysiologic phenomenon underlying disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

Clotting that leads to bleeding

138

CHAPTER 20

Which describes a pathologic manifestation of neurogenic shock?

Loss of sympathetic activation of arteriolar smooth muscle

139

CHAPTER 20

Early compensation for hypovolemic shock includes

Release of epinephrine from adrenal glands

140

CHAPTER 20

Circulatory shock is best defined as

Inadequate tissue perfusion

141

CHAPTER 20

The shift to anaerobic metabolism in shock results in

Increased lactate production

142

CHAPTER 20

Uncontrolled massive bleeding causes what type of shock?

Hypovolemic

143

CHAPTER 20

Activation of the renin-angiotensin system in shock causes

Fluid retention

144

CHAPTER 20

The vasoactive mediators released in septic shock contribute to increase

Vascular permeability

145

CHAPTER 20

Which type of shock is characterized by generalized vasodilation and peripheral pooling of blood? (Select all that apply.)

  • Septic
  • Neurogenic
  • Anaphylactic
146

CHAPTER 22

Which statement is true regarding asthma?

It is characterized by airway inflammation.

147

CHAPTER 22

What describes an asthma that is common in children and adolescents, with bronchospasm occurring within 3 minutes of physical exertion?

Exercise-induced

148

CHAPTER 22

Which is a characteristic of intrinsic (non-allergic) asthma?

Attacks are often severe.

149

CHAPTER 22

The most common cause of chronic bronchitis is

Smoking

150

CHAPTER 22

Which cellular change is seen with chronic bronchitis?

Increased eosinophils

151

CHAPTER 22

Destruction of bronchial walls from dilation of airway sacs is a result of

Bronchiectasis

152

CHAPTER 22

COPD type A is referred to as

Emphysema

153

CHAPTER 22

Which statement regarding bronchiectasis is true?

It is common in cystic fibrosis.

154

CHAPTER 22

Which statement is true regarding cystic fibrosis?

It is the most common genetic disease in the United States.

155

CHAPTER 22

What is the primary cause of airway obstruction in patients with chronic bronchitis?

Mucous plugs

156

CHAPTER 22

In extrinsic asthma the immune system responds to the presence of allergens by causing

Bronchoconstriction

157

CHAPTER 22

What physiologic abnormality is characteristic of emphysema?

Trapping of air in the distal air sacs

158

CHAPTER 22

Which are major obstructive airway diseases? (Select all that apply.)

  • Asthma
  • Bronchitis
  • Emphysema
  • Bronchiectasis
159

CHAPTER 22

Which medication that may be required for status asthmaticus? (Select all that apply.)

  • β-Blockers
  • Epinephrine
  • Oral corticosteroids
  • Terbutaline (Brethine)
  • Aminophylline (Phyllocontin)
  • Epinephrine
  • Terbutaline (Brethine)
  • Aminophylline (Phyllocontin)
160

CHAPTER 22

Acute bronchitis can be caused by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Influenza A
  • Adenovirus
  • Coxsackie virus
  • Staphylococcus pneumoniae
161

CHAPTER 22

Which pathogenetic change is associated with acute bronchitis? (Select all that apply.)

  • Swelling from exudation of fluid
  • Loss of ciliary function
  • Inflamed airways
162

CHAPTER 22

Which is a classification of emphysema? (Select all that apply.)

  • Centriacinar
  • Panacinar
  • Paraseptal
163

CHAPTER 22

When emphysema is a result of a α1-Antitrypsin disorder, assessment data is likely to include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Client age younger than 50
  • No history of cigarette smoking
  • Enzyme levels that are below normal
164

CHAPTER 22

The characteristics of bronchiolitis include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Thick, tenacious mucus
  • Wheezing
  • Crackles
  • Ear pain
165

CHAPTER 22

Which clinical manifestation suggests epiglottitis? (Select all that apply.)

  • Assumes “sniffing dog” position
  • Throat is “cherry red”
  • Reports dysphagia
  • Sounds hoarse
166

CHAPTER 22

What occurs during an acute asthma attack? (Select all that apply.)

  • Sputum is often thick, tenacious, scant, and viscid.
  • Bronchoconstriction occurs.
  • Residual lung volume increases.
  • Forced expiratory volumes decrease.
167

CHAPTER 27

A patient is admitted to the emergency room complaining of pain located in the costovertebral angle in the back. This supports the suspicion that the pain is most likely a result of a(n)

Renal disorder

168

CHAPTER 27

An infection of the renal pelvis and interstitium is known as

Pyelonephritis

169

CHAPTER 27

A classic manifestation of chronic pyelonephritis is

Atrophic kidneys with diffuse scarring

170

CHAPTER 27

The most common physiologic abnormality found in patients with a renal stone is

Hypercalcemia

171

CHAPTER 27

Glomerulonephritis results from

Antigen-antibody complexes

172

CHAPTER 27

Which of the following statements are true about autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)? (Select all that apply.)

  • It presents with pain being the most frequent client complaint.
  • It results in the formation of cysts that involve the entire nephron.
  • It results in urinary tract infections, often due to Enterobacter organisms.
173

CHAPTER 27

Predisposing factors associated with pyelonephritis include

  • Urinary obstruction
  • Neurogenic bladder
  • Catheterization
  • Pregnancy
  • Diabetes
174

CHAPTER 27

Complete urinary obstruction causes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Increased urinary stasis
  • Increased urinary frequency
  • Decreased glomerular filtration
  • Increased predisposition to infection
175

CHAPTER 27

Which is a clinical manifestation of glomerulonephritis? (Select all that apply.)

  • Proteinuria
  • Periorbital edema
  • Coffee-colored urine.
176

CHAPTER 27

What clinical finding suggests a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome? (Select all that apply.)

  • Hypercoagulability
  • Hypoalbuminemia
  • Hypoproteinemia
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Edema
177

CHAPTER 31

A diagnosis of cryptorchidism indicates that the client has

An undescended testis

178

CHAPTER 31

Which condition constitutes an emergency situation?

Testicular torsion

179

CHAPTER 31

It is most important that the nurse teach the technique for testicular self-examination to males of which age group?

18 to 35 years old

180

CHAPTER 31

Which sexually transmitted infection is manifested by the growth of clusters of warts on the penis and other areas of the genitalia?

Condylomata acuminata

181

CHAPTER 31

A characteristic of benign prostatic hypertrophy includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Hesitancy
  • Weak urine flow
  • Incomplete bladder emptying
182

CHAPTER 31

A patient is diagnosed with Stage III penile cancer. Which is true of this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)

  • There is inguinal node involvement.
  • Surgical removal of the lesion is possible.
183

CHAPTER 31

A client is being evaluated for possible secondary impotence. Which assessment finding would support such a diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)

  • Diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
  • Takes an antidepressant medication.
  • Serum testosterone level is low.
  • Client is borderline obese.
184

CHAPTER 33

A patient reports that she is bleeding between menstrual periods. The nurse would document this as

Metrorrhagia

185

CHAPTER 33

In perimenopausal women, dysfunctional uterine bleeding is commonly associated with

Irregular estrogen production

186

CHAPTER 33

A patient reports a sensation of pressure within the vagina. On examination, an anterior bulge is noted. This finding supports a diagnosis of

Cystocele

187

CHAPTER 33

At what period during the life span would a finding of leiomyomas be less likely?

During the years after menopause

188

CHAPTER 33

Endometriosis is

the presence of endometrial tissue outside the lining of the uterine cavity

189

CHAPTER 33

Which breast condition is a malignant disorder?

Carcinoma

190

CHAPTER 33

Assessment data that would support a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) would include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Palpated pelvis mass
  • Abdominal tenderness
  • Purulent vaginal discharge
  • White blood cell (WBC) count of 11,000/mm4
191

CHAPTER 36

The patient’s perceived difficulty in swallowing, the general inability to initiate swallowing, or even the feeling that swallowed solids or liquids “stick” in the throat is called

Dysphagia

192

CHAPTER 36

In abdominal disorders, the location of “referred” pain felt by the patient is usually

In the same dermatome as the source

193

CHAPTER 36

Which type of colon polyp is most likely to carry the risk of cancer?

Adenomatous

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CHAPTER 36

The term diverticulosis refers to a condition characterized by

Acquired herniations of the muscular colon wall mucosa and submucosa

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CHAPTER 36

Although symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is sometimes similar to those of inflammatory bowel disorder (IBD), one important difference is that

IBD has identifiable pathology of the gastrointestinal tract, whereas IBS has no identifiable pathology

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CHAPTER 36

Which of the following make mechanical obstruction of the intestinal lumen of the small or large bowel an acute emergency?

Distention from accumulating gas and fluid impede venous return, leading to bowel wall ischemia.

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CHAPTER 36

When telescoping or invagination of a portion of the bowel into an adjacent distal portion occurs in an infant, the condition is diagnosed as

Intussusception

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CHAPTER 36

Heartburn is most likely the consequence of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • The backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus
  • Stimulation of the esophageal sensory nerve endings
  • An esophageal spasm
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CHAPTER 36

The strong risk factors for colon cancer include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Aging
  • Heredity
  • Crohn disease
  • High-fat diet
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CHAPTER 36

The factors that increase the risk of developing ulcerative colitis are believed to include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Genetics
  • Environmental risks
  • Immunologic disorders
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CHAPTER 36

Ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease share several similarities. Specific distinctions or differences that are unique to Crohn disease include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Smoking’s increasing the risk
  • Pain that is severe and localized
  • Primary affecting of the proximal portion of the colon
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CHAPTER 36

Appendicitis is one of the most common abdominal conditions requiring emergency surgery. Although its symptoms sometimes overlap with those of other abdominal disorders, appendicitis is initially characterized by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • Nausea
  • Diarrhea
  • Periumbilical pain
  • Migrating lower-right abdomen pain
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CHAPTER 36

Which of the following is a common but serious consequence of progressive inflammation of diverticula (diverticulitis)? (Select all that apply.)

  • Peritonitis
  • Bowel abscesses
  • Intestinal obstruction
  • Bowel wall perforation
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CHAPTER 44

It is true that the neuronal tissue of the brain

Is highly sensitive to oxygen deprivation

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CHAPTER 44

Which adverse event occurs as a result of reperfusion injury?

Free radical formation

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CHAPTER 44

Which statement is true regarding autoregulation in the brain?

Cerebral vessels respond to pH, carbon dioxide, and oxygen levels.

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CHAPTER 44

Which statement is true regarding intracranial pressure (ICP)?

The factors include the brain, CSF, and blood.

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CHAPTER 44

The term that describes increased capillary pressure or damage to capillary endothelium in brain is

Interstitial edema

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Which is associated with early increased intracranial pressure?

Headache

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CHAPTER 44

A patient has an expanding lesion in one hemisphere causing enough of a lateral shift that the cingulate gyrus is being forced under the falx cerebri. This describes which type of herniation?

Subfalcine herniation

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A patient presents with a dilated pupil on the left side, unresponsive to light and has weakness on the right side. These symptoms support a diagnosis of which type of herniation?

Uncal

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Which statement regarding the Glasgow Coma Scale is true?

The lowest score is 3.

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CHAPTER 44

A patient presents with his arms extended with external rotation of the wrist. His legs and feet extend and rotate internally. Which best describes this condition?

Decerebrate posturing

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A patient presents with eye movements that occur with the eye moving in different directions. What is the appropriate term for this finding?

Dysconjugate gaze

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CHAPTER 44

It is true that an epidural hematoma

Can cause the patient to experience a lucid interval

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CHAPTER 44

A patient exposed to herpes simplex virus has been exhibiting symptoms that suggest an inflammation of the brain. This type of infection is referred to as

Encephalitis

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CHAPTER 44

Which are a brainstem reflexes? (Select all that apply.)

  • Oculovestibular reflex
  • Pupil light response
  • Corneal reflex
218

CHAPTER 44

Which of the following is true about ischemic stroke? (Select all that apply.)

  • Has risk factors that include atherosclerosis
  • Can be a result of a hypercoagulable state
219

CHAPTER 52

Which statement is true regarding osteoarthritis?

There is progressive loss of articular cartilage.

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CHAPTER 52

Which statement is true regarding infectious (aseptic) arthritis?

The average duration of antibiotic treatment is 4 to 6 weeks.

221

CHAPTER 52

Which statement is true regarding rheumatoid arthritis?

The majority of the patients test positive for rheumatoid factor.

222

CHAPTER 52

What is responsible for producing rheumatoid factor antibodies?

B cells

223

CHAPTER 52

Which statement is true regarding systemic lupus erythematosus?

It is a chronic inflammatory disease.

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CHAPTER 52

Which statement is true regarding scleroderma?

There is skin thickening with deposition of connective tissue.

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CHAPTER 52

Which statement is true regarding ankylosing spondylitis?

It is more common in men than in women.

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Which statement is true regarding dermatomyositis?

Most patients initially complain of hip and leg weakness.

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CHAPTER 52

Reiter syndrome is commonly characterized with

HLA-B27 antigen

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CHAPTER 52

A 6-year-old boy presents with polyarthritis. His parents report no past medical history except for a sore throat 6 weeks previously. On physical examination, a murmur is noted. The assessment data support a diagnosis of

Acute rheumatic fever

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CHAPTER 52

Lyme disease is caused by

Borrelia burgdorferi

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CHAPTER 52

A 60-year-old client reports pain in the knees. The client denies any previous infection or pain in the spine. The assessment data support a diagnosis of

Osteoarthritis

231

CHAPTER 52

What are the criteria for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? (Select all that apply.)

  • Simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints
  • Soft-tissue swelling of at least three joints
  • Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules
  • Morning stiffness in joints
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CHAPTER 52

A client is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Which assessment data support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)

  • African American female
  • Contractures of the fingers
  • Facial butterfly rash noted
  • Swelling and pain in knees
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CHAPTER 52

A client is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Which assessment data support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)

  • Low back pain
  • 18-year-old men
234

TAKE HOME TEST

A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of

Prostatic enlargement

235

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Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of

Testicular torsion

236

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A patient with gouty arthritis develops renal calculi. The composition of these calculi is most likely to be

Uric acid crystals

237

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Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.

Pessary

238

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The most common types of uterine tumors are known as

Leiomyomas

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Absence of menstruation is called

Amenorrhea

240

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Cryptorchidism is

Associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer

241

TAKE HOME TEST

A major modifiable risk factor for nephrolithiasis is

Dehydration

242

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A common component of renal calculi is

Calcium

243

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A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing

Dysmenorrhea