Pathophysiology: Pathophysiology 370 - BSN West Coast University (ONT): 201608 FAI Flashcards
The study of specific characteristics and functions of a living organism and its parts is called:
Restoration of effective function is the goal of which level of prevention?
Which organ shrinks with age?
Which statement is true about the normal biological variations related to age?
There is less thirst perception in the elderly
Which statement is true?
Women have a lower hemoglobin level than men
Which term means “cause of the disease?"
When the cause of a disease is due to unintended or unwanted medical treatment, the term to describe this is
Signs and symptoms of a disease first occur during the
Which term is used to describe an objectively identifiable aberration of the disease?
Which term refers to a state of tension that can lead to disruption or threaten physical stability
Which is not one of the recognized components of the general adaptation syndrome?
What stage is defined by “fight or flight”?
Which is true regarding catecholamines?
They include epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Which statement is true regarding epinephrine?
It results in increased cardiac output.
Which is a true statement regarding cortisol?
It produces stress response effects similar to those of epinephrine.
On which area does cortisol have an anabolic effect?
Which hormone is responsible for lactation and interferes with ovulation?
Which cardiovascular disorder has not been linked to excessive catecholamine levels in the blood?
Heart valve disfunction
Which is a false statement?
Endorphins decrease with stress, resulting in an increase in pain perception.
Which condition occurs in the presence of cellular damage?
Sodium and water move into the cell.
An increase in which of these characteristics would be present in cells that demonstrate hypertrophy?
Size of cells
Cellular hypoxia results in
Failure of the sodium-potassium pump
Which cellular response is maladaptive?
Change in the shape or arrangement of cells
A critical event in the death of a cell is caused by
Disruption of the plasma membrane’s permeability barrier
A client develops weakness in both lower extremities following a prolonged period of bed rest. This condition is most likely caused by
A heart that has to pump harder in order to effectively circulate blood is likely to undergo which type of cellular adaptation?
Which type of cellular adaptation is most likely to occur as the result of chronic ischemia to a region?
Viruses injure cells differently than other causes of cellular injury because they
Are incorporated into the cell, where it uses the cell’s RNA or DNA for self-replication
What is the mechanism of cellular injury that occurs when deep sea divers get “the bends”?
Gas bubbles form in the blood, blocking circulation and resulting in ischemia.
In muscle hypertrophy, the hypertrophied cells increase in
Which type of cellular adaptation would create the greatest concern if found on a biopsy report?
Which is a theory of aging? Select all that apply
- Free radical
- Programmed senescence
Necrosis is the result of cellular injury that does not allow for cellular adaptation because it is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Too severe
- Too prolonged
- A result of a disrupted blood supply
Abnormal new cellular growth is referred to as
Which gene has been identified as specifically contributing to some types of breast cancer?
Which is the oncogene that allows cells to grow indefinitely?
Which is a true statement regarding metastasis?
Cells must first escape the basement membrane of tissue.
Which term is used to describe the histologic characterization of tumor cells?
Which term is used to describe the deficiency in circulating platelets?
A patient diagnosed with cancer presents with Cushing syndrome secondary to excessive adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion. This syndrome is described as
Which offers the best prognosis for the cure of cancer?
Which statement accurately describes the proliferation of cancer cells?
The number of developing cells exceeds the number of dying cells.
Which is a characteristic of cancer cells?
Which of these statements best describes the purpose of the TNM classification system?
It provides tumor data for the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
In what way do proto-oncogenes become activated oncogenes?
Certain retroviruses enter host cells, altering their DNA structure.
Which condition explains the genetic basis for cancer development?
Loss of or defect in tumor suppressor genes
Which statement is true regarding cancer? (Select all that apply.)
- The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer.
- Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.
Which statement about oncogene activation is true? (Select all that apply.)
- Oncogenes may be introduced into the host cell by a retrovirus.
- Proto-oncogenes may undergo a mutation thus becoming overly active.
- DNA sequences that normally suppress proto-oncogene expression may be inactivated.
- An error may occur in the replication of the chromosome such that extra copies are produced.
Which retrovirus is believed to cause cancer? (Select all that apply.)
- Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
- Human T-lymphocyte virus type I
- Epstein-Barr virus
Which statement regarding cancer deaths is true? (Select all that apply.)
- The 5-year combined survival rate for cancer is 68%.
- Men have a 1 in 2 lifetime risk of developing cancer.
- Women have a 1 in 3 lifetime risk of developing cancer.
Which statement regarding tobacco use and lung cancer is true? (Select all that apply.)
- Lung cancer accounts for 30% of all cancer deaths.
- Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths in men and women.
- The survival rate of patients with lung cancer is the lowest among all cancers.
- Tobacco use has been linked to cancer of the pancreas, bladder, and kidneys as well.
Patients who have advanced cancer develop cachexia because of which of the following reasons? (Select all that apply.)
- They have an increased basal metabolic rate.
- Nausea and vomiting are common complications.
- Cancer cells produce an enzyme that robs normal cells of nutrients.
- Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and other immune cytokines are produced.
Which type of hypersensitivity response is mediated by T cells?
Hypersensitivity type IV
A severe life-threatening type I hypersensitivity reaction is
Which immunodeficiency disorder is a primary immunodeficiency disorder?
Immunodeficiency associated with DiGeorge syndrome
The health history of a 6-month-old breastfed child reveals serious, recurrent bacterial and fungal infections. The most likely cause of these infections is
A 39-year-old patient who has been taking a specific antibiotic for years without problems develops tachycardia, lowered blood pressure, wheezing, and urticaria when given this antibiotic in the clinic. The most likely explanation for this occurrence is that the patient
Is experiencing an anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction to the antibiotic
What is the pathophysiologic abnormality underlying systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
It is true that the Epstein-Barr virus is
Considered a cause of Burkitt lymphoma
Which term best describes a condition that presents with the symptoms of petechiae, easy bruising, bleeding gums, occult hematuria, or retinal hemorrhages?
When a patient receives bone marrow from a closely matched relative, it is referred to as what type of transplant?
Which statement regarding myelodysplastic syndromes and acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is true?
Neoplastic cells are functionally abnormal.
Which statement regarding chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is a true statement?
Affected persons carry the Philadelphia chromosome.
It is true that acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) is
Primarily diagnosed in children
Which is a malignant disorder of mature antibody-secreting B lymphocytes or plasma cells?
Which disease has the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells on histologic examination?
Which is the stage when spread of lymphoma has reached extralymphatic organs and tissues?
It is true that non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Is more common in men than in women
What assists in the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
Bence Jones proteins
What gene is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?
Which cell is from myeloid lineage? (Select all that apply.)
Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is characterized by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Elevated granulocyte count
- Abdominal discomfort
- Weight loss
Which is a lymphoid neoplasm category? (Select all that apply.)
- B-cell neoplasm
- Hodgkin disease
- Natural killer cell neoplasm
The movement of nutrients and O2 as well as the removal of metabolic wastes occurs in
Which statement regarding the lymphatic system is true?
It allows for leakage from the vascular system to be reabsorbed into the body’s circulation system.
Which statement is true regarding the streamlined nature of laminar blood flow?
A thrill can be palpated when blood flows over a roughened intimal surface.
What are the main causes of edema?
When the adjacent lymphatic system develops an impaired lymphatic flow or when the capillaries themselves become more permeable and “leak” fluid into the cell
What is the difference between capillary fluid pressure and plasma colloid osmotic pressure?
Capillary fluid pressure is the fluid pressure inside the capillary and is the force pushing fluid from the capillary into the interstitium; plasma colloid osmotic pressure is the primary force because of the presence of plasma proteins, which results in fluid remaining in the capillary.
Contraction of vascular smooth muscle (referred to as vasomotor tone) is mostly accomplished via the extrinsic mechanism of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in which receptor response?
What is the specific terminology to describe the formation of a blood clot in a vein?
Thrombosis in the microcirculation throughout the body is called
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
What are the upper acceptable values for cholesterol within the blood?
Total cholesterol level of 200 mg/dl, HDL of 40 mg/dl, and LDL of 160 mg/dl
Which is a modifiable risk factor for prevention of atherosclerosis?
The role of the circulatory system is to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Transport O2 and nutrients throughout the body
- Remove waste products found within the body
An accurate comparison of arterial and venal vessels would include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Vein walls are thinner than those of arteries.
- Venules are composed primarily of connective tissue
- The principle tissue found in arterioles is smooth muscle
- With increasing age, the intimal arterial wall looses elasticity.
Which statement(s) are true regarding circulatory hemodynamics? (Select all that apply.)
- As blood flow increases, resistance decreases.
- Resistance decreases as the radius of a vessel increases.
- As the pressure difference in the vessels increases, the blood flow increases.
Which statement is true regarding the process of autoregulation? (Select all that apply.)
- This process is responsible for maintaining a relatively constant flow of blood in the body.
- As vascular smooth muscle is stretched, it contracts, which produces vasoconstriction.
- The process takes blood flow within a range that is unique to a specific organs needs.
- In instances of decreased metabolic demand, blood flow to the tissue is reduced.
Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of arterial thrombosis? (Select all that apply.)
- Pain is increased with activity in the affected limb.
- The limb is usually cool to the touch and cyanotic.
- A late sign is an ulcer around the toe.
- Intermittent claudication and pain.
A contributing factor to the formation of an embolus includes which of the following?(Select all that apply.)
- Dislodged fat after long-bone surgery
- Air bolus introduced by IV therapy
- Foreign object in the blood stream
- An infected blood vessel
Which condition can produce signs and symptoms of a stroke? (Select all that apply.)
- Cerebral aneurysm
- Cerebral AV fistula
A true statement regarding atherosclerosis is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Atherosclerosis usually affects the coronary, cerebral, carotid, femoral arteries and the aorta.
- Atherosclerosis is a result of medium and large arteries being occluded.
- Atherosclerosis is the dominant type of arteriosclerosis.
A skin assessment of the legs of a client diagnosed with chronic venous insufficiency would show which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Reddish pigmented areas
- Reports of legs cramping
- Edema increasing as the day progresses
- An ulcer on the ankle of the affected leg
Which is a major determinant of diastolic blood pressure?
Which best defines systolic blood pressure?
Occurs during ventricular contraction
Which term is determined by stroke volume, speed of ejection, and arterial distensibility?
Cardiac output is the product of both
Stroke volume and heart rate
Which receptor is responsible for innervation of the arterioles?
Which statement is true about baroreceptors?
An increase in pressure causes an increase in impulse discharge.
What is another name for vasopressin?
Which term is used to identify hypertension that has a specific disease as its cause?
Which situation causes an increase in blood pressure?
Which statement is true regarding hypertension during pregnancy?
Cardiac output (CO) is reduced by 40% to 60% during pregnancy.
Which statement is true regarding hypertension?
High blood pressure can be associated with headache and seizures.
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) can be indirectly estimated with the use of which blood pressure measurement?
Aortic and carotid baroreceptors are activated by ___________, resulting in ___________.
decreased blood pressure; an increase in cardiac output (CO), systemic vascular resistance (SVR), heart rate (HR), and blood pressure
The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) alters blood pressure in response to
Decreased perfusion to the kidney
What stimulates the release of renin? (Select all that apply.)
- Renal hypoperfusion
- Sympathetic activation
- Decreased sodium delivery
What causes vasodilation? (Select all that apply.)
- Nitric oxide
Which is a risk factor associated with hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
- African-American race
- History of tobacco smoking
Which condition is an endocrine disorder that causes elevated blood pressure? (Select all that apply.)
- Cushing disease
Systemic blood pressure is determined by which factor(s)? (Select all that apply.)
- Heart rate (HR)
- Stroke volume (SV)
- Cardiac output (CO)
- Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
Risk factors for the development of high blood pressure are which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
High blood pressure can be treated with lifestyle modification related to which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Decreased sodium intake
- Relaxation techniques
- Weight management
Atherosclerosis predisposes to a number of processes that are factors in myocardial ischemia. These processes include
Abnormal vascular regulation by endothelial cells in small vessels of the heart contributes to
Ischemic heart disease
What is the marker of choice for detecting a myocardial infarction?
Elevated serum levels of cardiac troponin
In a patient with mitral stenosis, cardiac catheterization findings would indicate increased pressure in the
Which condition may result in chronic pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right-sided heart failure?
Mitral valve stenosis
The primary cause of sudden cardiac death is usually due to
What factor causes a congenital heart disease to produce cyanosis?
Right-to-left shunting of blood
Which clinical manifestation differentiates myocardial infarction (MI) from angina pectoris? (Select all that apply.)
- Radiating chest pain
- ST-segment changes on the ECG
- Elevated serum levels of troponin
The pathologic changes that occur in the development of coronary atherosclerotic lesions include cell damage resulting from which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- The effects of oxidized lipids
- An inflammatory response
- The formation of plaques
Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- A ventricular septal defect
- Right ventricular hypertrophy
- Obstructed right ventricular outflow
- An aorta positioned above the ventricular septal opening
Which medication classification is used to decrease preload in patients with heart failure?
A patient with heart failure reports awakening intermittently with shortness of breath. Which terms appropriately describes this clinical manifestation?
Which left atrial pressure readings indicates a risk of increased capillary filtration that results in the clinical manifestations of pulmonary edema?
25 mm Hg
A patient has a regular heart rate of 54 beats/min. The nurse would document this rhythm as
Atrial fibrillation is best described as when
Disorganized and irregular atrial waves are accompanied by an irregular ventricular rate
A common cause of heart failure is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Coronary artery disease
A patient is admitted to the hospital with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.)
- Crackles in lungs
Which diagnostic analysis is used to identify patients with heart failure? (Select all that apply.)
- BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide)
- Chest x-ray film
What effect does stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system have on the arterioles and resulting systemic reaction? (Select all that apply.)
- In increased vascular resistance
- Increased blood pressure
- Increased afterload
The nurse includes what information when educating a client concerning a first-degree heart block? (Select all that apply.)
- An electrocardiogram is used to identify this conduction disorder.
- Congenital heart defects are often the cause of the disorder.
- The condition is monitored, but not actively managed.
A patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is given a drug to lyse the clot in the coronary artery. What is the best explanation for the sudden development of a serious arrhythmia once circulation is restored?
The return of oxygen perfusion resulted in reperfusion injury.
For the patient in hypovolemic shock, what compensatory mechanism will help preserve adequate circulation?
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade.
What is the underlying problem common among all types of shock?
Inadequate cellular oxygenation
What is the pathophysiologic phenomenon underlying disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Clotting that leads to bleeding
Which describes a pathologic manifestation of neurogenic shock?
Loss of sympathetic activation of arteriolar smooth muscle
Early compensation for hypovolemic shock includes
Release of epinephrine from adrenal glands
Circulatory shock is best defined as
Inadequate tissue perfusion
The shift to anaerobic metabolism in shock results in
Increased lactate production
Uncontrolled massive bleeding causes what type of shock?
Activation of the renin-angiotensin system in shock causes
The vasoactive mediators released in septic shock contribute to increase
Which type of shock is characterized by generalized vasodilation and peripheral pooling of blood? (Select all that apply.)
Which statement is true regarding asthma?
It is characterized by airway inflammation.
What describes an asthma that is common in children and adolescents, with bronchospasm occurring within 3 minutes of physical exertion?
Which is a characteristic of intrinsic (non-allergic) asthma?
Attacks are often severe.
The most common cause of chronic bronchitis is
Which cellular change is seen with chronic bronchitis?
Destruction of bronchial walls from dilation of airway sacs is a result of
COPD type A is referred to as
Which statement regarding bronchiectasis is true?
It is common in cystic fibrosis.
Which statement is true regarding cystic fibrosis?
It is the most common genetic disease in the United States.
What is the primary cause of airway obstruction in patients with chronic bronchitis?
In extrinsic asthma the immune system responds to the presence of allergens by causing
What physiologic abnormality is characteristic of emphysema?
Trapping of air in the distal air sacs
Which are major obstructive airway diseases? (Select all that apply.)
Which medication that may be required for status asthmaticus? (Select all that apply.)
- Oral corticosteroids
- Terbutaline (Brethine)
- Aminophylline (Phyllocontin)
- Terbutaline (Brethine)
- Aminophylline (Phyllocontin)
Acute bronchitis can be caused by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Influenza A
- Coxsackie virus
- Staphylococcus pneumoniae
Which pathogenetic change is associated with acute bronchitis? (Select all that apply.)
- Swelling from exudation of fluid
- Loss of ciliary function
- Inflamed airways
Which is a classification of emphysema? (Select all that apply.)
When emphysema is a result of a α1-Antitrypsin disorder, assessment data is likely to include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Client age younger than 50
- No history of cigarette smoking
- Enzyme levels that are below normal
The characteristics of bronchiolitis include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Thick, tenacious mucus
- Ear pain
Which clinical manifestation suggests epiglottitis? (Select all that apply.)
- Assumes “sniffing dog” position
- Throat is “cherry red”
- Reports dysphagia
- Sounds hoarse
What occurs during an acute asthma attack? (Select all that apply.)
- Sputum is often thick, tenacious, scant, and viscid.
- Bronchoconstriction occurs.
- Residual lung volume increases.
- Forced expiratory volumes decrease.
A patient is admitted to the emergency room complaining of pain located in the costovertebral angle in the back. This supports the suspicion that the pain is most likely a result of a(n)
An infection of the renal pelvis and interstitium is known as
A classic manifestation of chronic pyelonephritis is
Atrophic kidneys with diffuse scarring
The most common physiologic abnormality found in patients with a renal stone is
Glomerulonephritis results from
Which of the following statements are true about autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)? (Select all that apply.)
- It presents with pain being the most frequent client complaint.
- It results in the formation of cysts that involve the entire nephron.
- It results in urinary tract infections, often due to Enterobacter organisms.
Predisposing factors associated with pyelonephritis include
- Urinary obstruction
- Neurogenic bladder
Complete urinary obstruction causes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Increased urinary stasis
- Increased urinary frequency
- Decreased glomerular filtration
- Increased predisposition to infection
Which is a clinical manifestation of glomerulonephritis? (Select all that apply.)
- Periorbital edema
- Coffee-colored urine.
What clinical finding suggests a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A diagnosis of cryptorchidism indicates that the client has
An undescended testis
Which condition constitutes an emergency situation?
It is most important that the nurse teach the technique for testicular self-examination to males of which age group?
18 to 35 years old
Which sexually transmitted infection is manifested by the growth of clusters of warts on the penis and other areas of the genitalia?
A characteristic of benign prostatic hypertrophy includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Weak urine flow
- Incomplete bladder emptying
A patient is diagnosed with Stage III penile cancer. Which is true of this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
- There is inguinal node involvement.
- Surgical removal of the lesion is possible.
A client is being evaluated for possible secondary impotence. Which assessment finding would support such a diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
- Diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
- Takes an antidepressant medication.
- Serum testosterone level is low.
- Client is borderline obese.
A patient reports that she is bleeding between menstrual periods. The nurse would document this as
In perimenopausal women, dysfunctional uterine bleeding is commonly associated with
Irregular estrogen production
A patient reports a sensation of pressure within the vagina. On examination, an anterior bulge is noted. This finding supports a diagnosis of
At what period during the life span would a finding of leiomyomas be less likely?
During the years after menopause
the presence of endometrial tissue outside the lining of the uterine cavity
Which breast condition is a malignant disorder?
Assessment data that would support a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) would include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Palpated pelvis mass
- Abdominal tenderness
- Purulent vaginal discharge
- White blood cell (WBC) count of 11,000/mm4
The patient’s perceived difficulty in swallowing, the general inability to initiate swallowing, or even the feeling that swallowed solids or liquids “stick” in the throat is called
In abdominal disorders, the location of “referred” pain felt by the patient is usually
In the same dermatome as the source
Which type of colon polyp is most likely to carry the risk of cancer?
The term diverticulosis refers to a condition characterized by
Acquired herniations of the muscular colon wall mucosa and submucosa
Although symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is sometimes similar to those of inflammatory bowel disorder (IBD), one important difference is that
IBD has identifiable pathology of the gastrointestinal tract, whereas IBS has no identifiable pathology
Which of the following make mechanical obstruction of the intestinal lumen of the small or large bowel an acute emergency?
Distention from accumulating gas and fluid impede venous return, leading to bowel wall ischemia.
When telescoping or invagination of a portion of the bowel into an adjacent distal portion occurs in an infant, the condition is diagnosed as
Heartburn is most likely the consequence of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- The backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus
- Stimulation of the esophageal sensory nerve endings
- An esophageal spasm
The strong risk factors for colon cancer include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Crohn disease
- High-fat diet
The factors that increase the risk of developing ulcerative colitis are believed to include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Environmental risks
- Immunologic disorders
Ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease share several similarities. Specific distinctions or differences that are unique to Crohn disease include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Smoking’s increasing the risk
- Pain that is severe and localized
- Primary affecting of the proximal portion of the colon
Appendicitis is one of the most common abdominal conditions requiring emergency surgery. Although its symptoms sometimes overlap with those of other abdominal disorders, appendicitis is initially characterized by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Periumbilical pain
- Migrating lower-right abdomen pain
Which of the following is a common but serious consequence of progressive inflammation of diverticula (diverticulitis)? (Select all that apply.)
- Bowel abscesses
- Intestinal obstruction
- Bowel wall perforation
It is true that the neuronal tissue of the brain
Is highly sensitive to oxygen deprivation
Which adverse event occurs as a result of reperfusion injury?
Free radical formation
Which statement is true regarding autoregulation in the brain?
Cerebral vessels respond to pH, carbon dioxide, and oxygen levels.
Which statement is true regarding intracranial pressure (ICP)?
The factors include the brain, CSF, and blood.
The term that describes increased capillary pressure or damage to capillary endothelium in brain is
Which is associated with early increased intracranial pressure?
A patient has an expanding lesion in one hemisphere causing enough of a lateral shift that the cingulate gyrus is being forced under the falx cerebri. This describes which type of herniation?
A patient presents with a dilated pupil on the left side, unresponsive to light and has weakness on the right side. These symptoms support a diagnosis of which type of herniation?
Which statement regarding the Glasgow Coma Scale is true?
The lowest score is 3.
A patient presents with his arms extended with external rotation of the wrist. His legs and feet extend and rotate internally. Which best describes this condition?
A patient presents with eye movements that occur with the eye moving in different directions. What is the appropriate term for this finding?
It is true that an epidural hematoma
Can cause the patient to experience a lucid interval
A patient exposed to herpes simplex virus has been exhibiting symptoms that suggest an inflammation of the brain. This type of infection is referred to as
Which are a brainstem reflexes? (Select all that apply.)
- Oculovestibular reflex
- Pupil light response
- Corneal reflex
Which of the following is true about ischemic stroke? (Select all that apply.)
- Has risk factors that include atherosclerosis
- Can be a result of a hypercoagulable state
Which statement is true regarding osteoarthritis?
There is progressive loss of articular cartilage.
Which statement is true regarding infectious (aseptic) arthritis?
The average duration of antibiotic treatment is 4 to 6 weeks.
Which statement is true regarding rheumatoid arthritis?
The majority of the patients test positive for rheumatoid factor.
What is responsible for producing rheumatoid factor antibodies?
Which statement is true regarding systemic lupus erythematosus?
It is a chronic inflammatory disease.
Which statement is true regarding scleroderma?
There is skin thickening with deposition of connective tissue.
Which statement is true regarding ankylosing spondylitis?
It is more common in men than in women.
Which statement is true regarding dermatomyositis?
Most patients initially complain of hip and leg weakness.
Reiter syndrome is commonly characterized with
A 6-year-old boy presents with polyarthritis. His parents report no past medical history except for a sore throat 6 weeks previously. On physical examination, a murmur is noted. The assessment data support a diagnosis of
Acute rheumatic fever
Lyme disease is caused by
A 60-year-old client reports pain in the knees. The client denies any previous infection or pain in the spine. The assessment data support a diagnosis of
What are the criteria for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? (Select all that apply.)
- Simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints
- Soft-tissue swelling of at least three joints
- Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules
- Morning stiffness in joints
A client is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Which assessment data support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
- African American female
- Contractures of the fingers
- Facial butterfly rash noted
- Swelling and pain in knees
A client is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Which assessment data support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
- Low back pain
- 18-year-old men
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A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of
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Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of
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A patient with gouty arthritis develops renal calculi. The composition of these calculi is most likely to be
Uric acid crystals
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Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.
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The most common types of uterine tumors are known as
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Absence of menstruation is called
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Associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer
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A major modifiable risk factor for nephrolithiasis is
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A common component of renal calculi is
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A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing