Campbell Biology: Final Prep Flashcards
Catastrophism, meaning the regular occurrence of geological or
meteorological disturbances (catastrophes), was Cuvier's attempt to
explain the existence of
B) the fossil record.
D) the origin of new species.
E) natural selection.
With what other idea of his time was Cuvier's theory of catastrophism
most in conflict?
B) the fixity of species
C) island biogeography
E) the scala naturae
What was the prevailing belief prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin?
A) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging.
B) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change.
C) Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change.
D) Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging.
E) Earth is millions of years old, and populations gradually change.
Charles Darwin was the first person to propose
A) that evolution occurs.
B) a mechanism for how evolution occurs.
C) that Earth is older than a few thousand years.
D) a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence.
E) that population growth can outpace the growth of food resources.
Which of the following represents an idea that Darwin learned from
the writings of Thomas Malthus?
A) Technological innovation in agricultural practices will permit exponential growth of the human population into the foreseeable future.
B) Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply normally allows.
C) Earth changed over the years through a series of catastrophic upheavals.
D) The environment is responsible for natural selection.
E) Earth is more than 10,000 years old.
Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the
correct sequence of the following events, under the influence of
1. Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring than do poorly adapted individuals.
2. A change occurs in the environment.
3. Genetic frequencies within the population change.
4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.
A) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3
B) 4 → 2 → 1 → 3
C) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3
D) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
E) 2 → 4 → 3 → 1
Which of the following must exist in a population before natural
selection can act upon that population?
A) genetic variation among individuals
B) variation among individuals caused by environmental factors
C) sexual reproduction
D) Three of the responses are correct.
E) Two of the responses are correct.
Which of Darwin's ideas had the strongest connection to Darwin having
read Malthus's essay on human population growth?
A) descent with modification
B) variation among individuals in a population
C) struggle for existence
D) the ability of related species to be conceptualized in "tree thinking"
E) that the ancestors of the Galápagos finches had come from the South American mainland
Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the
bones in the wing of a bird?
A) cartilage in the dorsal fin of a shark
B) bones in the hind limb of a kangaroo
C) chitinous struts in the wing of a butterfly
D) bony rays in the tail fin of a flying fish
E) bones in the flipper of a whale
If two modern organisms are distantly related in an evolutionary
sense, then one should expect that
A) they live in very different habitats.
B) they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related organisms.
C) their chromosomes should be very similar.
D) they shared a common ancestor relatively recently.
E) they should be members of the same genus.
Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin
flippers contain many of the same bones, these bones having developed
from very similar embryonic tissues. How do biologists interpret these
A) by identifying the bones as being homologous structures
B) by the principle of convergent evolution
C) by proposing that humans, bats, and dolphins share a common ancestor
D) Three of the statements above are correct.
E) Two of the statements above are correct.
Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the
common origin of all life on Earth?
A) All organisms require energy.
B) All organisms use essentially the same genetic code.
C) All organisms reproduce.
D) All organisms show heritable variation.
E) All organisms have undergone evolution.
During an individual organism's lifetime, which of these is most
likely to help the organism respond properly to changes in its
B) change in allele or gene frequency
C) change in gene expression
D) change in average heterozygosity
Which of these variables is likely to undergo the largest change in
value as the result of a mutation that introduces a brand-new allele
into a population's gene pool at a locus that had formerly been fixed?
A) average heterozygosity
B) nucleotide variability
C) geographic variability
D) average number of loci
Although each of the following has a better chance of influencing
gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations, which
one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition
for its occurrence?
B) nonrandom mating
C) genetic drift
D) natural selection
E) gene flow
In modern terminology, diversity is understood to be a result of
genetic variation. Which of the following is a recognized source of
variation for evolution?
A) mistakes in translation of structural genes
B) mistakes in protein folding
C) rampant changes to the dictionary of the genetic code
D) binary fission
E) recombination by crossing over in meiosis
Which statement about variation is true?
A) All phenotypic variation is the result of genotypic variation.
B) All genetic variation produces phenotypic variation.
C) All nucleotide variability results in neutral variation.
D) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability.
E) All geographic variation results from the existence of clines.
In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies,
the 2 in the term 2pq is necessary because
A) the population is diploid.
B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways.
C) the population is doubling in number.
D) heterozygotes have two alleles.
In the formula for determining a population’s genotype frequencies,
the pq in the term 2pq is necessary because
A) the population is diploid.
B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways.
C) the population is doubling in number.
D) heterozygotes have two alleles.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium must occur in populations wherein
A) an allele remains fixed.
B) no genetic variation exists.
C) natural selection is not operating.
D) All three of the responses above are correct.
E) Only two of the responses above are correct.
A) must happen, due to organisms’ innate desire to survive.
B) must happen whenever a population is not well-adapted to its environment.
C) can happen whenever any of the conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are not met.
D) requires the operation of natural selection.
E) requires that populations become better suited to their environments.
What is true of natural selection?
A) Natural selection is a random process.
B) Natural selection creates beneficial mutations.
C) The only way to eliminate harmful mutations is through natural selection.
D) Mutations occur at random; natural selection can preserve and distribute beneficial mutations.
E) Mutations occur when directed by the good of the species; natural selection edits out harmful mutations and causes populations to adapt to the beneficial mutations.
Natural selection changes allele frequencies because some ________
survive and reproduce more successfully than others.
C) gene pools
What is true of macroevolution?
A) It is the same as microevolution, but includes the origin of new species.
B) It is evolution above the species level.
C) It is defined as the evolution of microscopic organisms into organisms that can be seen with the naked eye.
D) It is defined as a change in allele or gene frequency over the course of many generations.
E) It is the conceptual link between irritability and adaptation.
Which of the following statements about species, as defined by the
biological species concept, is (are) correct?
I. Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation.
II. Biological species are the model used for grouping extinct forms of life.
III. The biological species is the largest unit of population in which successful interbreeding is possible.
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
Which of the various species concepts distinguishes two species based
on the degree of genetic exchange between their gene pools?
There is still some controversy among biologists about whether
Neanderthals should be placed within the same species as modern humans
or into a separate species of their own. Most DNA sequence data
analyzed so far indicate that there was probably little or no gene
flow between Neanderthals and Homo sapiens. Which species concept is
most applicable in this example?
You are confronted with a box of preserved grasshoppers of various
species that are new to science and have not been described. Your
assignment is to separate them into species. There is no accompanying
information as to where or when they were collected. Which species
concept will you have to use?
Dog breeders maintain the purity of breeds by keeping dogs of
different breeds apart when they are fertile. This kind of isolation
is most similar to which of the following reproductive isolating
A) reduced hybrid fertility
B) hybrid breakdown
C) mechanical isolation
D) habitat isolation
E) gametic isolation
What does the biological species concept use as the primary criterion
for determining species boundaries?
A) geographic isolation
B) niche differences
C) gene flow
D) morphological similarity
E) molecular (DNA, RNA, protein) similarity
The difference between geographic isolation and habitat
differentiation is the
A) relative locations of two populations as speciation occurs.
B) speed (tempo) at which two populations undergo speciation.
C) amount of genetic variation that occurs among two gene pools as speciation occurs.
D) identity of the phylogenetic kingdom or domain in which these phenomena occur.
E) the ploidy of the two populations as speciation occurs.
Among known plant species, which of these have been the two most
commonly occurring phenomena that have led to the origin of new
1. allopatric speciation
2. sympatric speciation
3. sexual selection
A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 4
According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium, the
"sudden" appearance of a new species in the fossil record
A) the species is now extinct.
B) speciation occurred instantaneously.
C) speciation occurred in one generation.
D) speciation occurred rapidly in geologic time.
E) the species will consequently have a relatively short existence, compared with other species.
According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium,
A) natural selection is unimportant as a mechanism of evolution.
B) given enough time, most existing species will branch gradually into new species.
C) a new species accumulates most of its unique features as it comes into existence.
D) evolution of new species features long periods during which changes are occurring, interspersed with short periods of equilibrium, or stasis.
E) transitional fossils, intermediate between newer species and their parent species, should be abundant.
A) occurs at such a slow pace that no one has ever observed the emergence of new species.
B) occurs only by the accumulation of genetic change over vast expanses of time.
C) must begin with the geographic isolation of a small, frontier population.
D) and microevolution are synonymous.
E) can involve changes to a single gene.
Which of the following statements about speciation is correct?
A) The goal of natural selection is speciation.
B) When reunited, two allopatric populations will interbreed freely if speciation has occurred.
C) Natural selection chooses the reproductive barriers for populations.
D) Prezygotic reproductive barriers usually evolve before postzygotic barriers.
E) Speciation is a basis for understanding macroevolution.
In order for speciation to occur, what must be true?
A) The number of chromosomes in the gene pool must change.
B) Changes to centromere location or chromosome size must occur within the gene pool.
C) Large numbers of genes that affect a single phenotypic trait must change.
D) Large numbers of genes that affect numerous phenotypic traits must change.
E) At least one gene, affecting at least one phenotypic trait, must change.
In a hypothetical situation, a certain species of flea feeds only on
pronghorn antelopes. In rangelands of the western United States,
pronghorns and cattle often associate with one another. If some of
these fleas develop a strong preference for cattle blood and mate only
with other fleas that prefer cattle blood, then over time which of
these should occur, if the host mammal can be considered as the fleas'
1. reproductive isolation
2. sympatric speciation
3. habitat isolation
4. prezygotic barriers
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 2, 3, and 4
E) 1 through 4
The most likely explanation for the high rate of sympatric speciation
that apparently existed among the cichlids of Lake Victoria in the
A) sexual selection.
B) habitat differentiation.
E) introduction of a new predator.
How were conditions on the early Earth of more than 3 billion years
ago different from those on today's Earth?
A) Only early Earth was intensely bombarded by large space debris.
B) Only early Earth had an oxidizing atmosphere.
C) Less ultraviolet radiation penetrated early Earth's atmosphere.
D) Early Earth's atmosphere had significant quantities of ozone.
What is true of the amino acids that might have been delivered to
Earth within carbonaceous chondrites?
A) They had the same proportion of L and D isomers as Earth does today.
B) Their abundance would have been dramatically reduced upon passage through early Earth's oxidizing atmosphere.
C) There were more kinds of amino acids on the chondrites than are found in living organisms today.
D) They were delivered in the form of polypeptides.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the
origin of life?
I. formation of protobionts
II. synthesis of organic monomers
III. synthesis of organic polymers
IV. formation of DNA-based genetic systems
A) I, II, III, IV
B) I, III, II, IV
C) II, III, I, IV
D) II, III, IV, I
Which of the following is a defining characteristic that all
protobionts had in common?
A) the ability to synthesize enzymes
B) a surrounding membrane or membrane-like structure
C) RNA genes
D) the ability to replicate RNA
The first genes on Earth were probably
A) DNA produced by reverse transcriptase from abiotically produced RNA.
B) DNA molecules whose information was transcribed to RNA and later translated in polypeptides.
C) auto-catalytic RNA molecules.
D) oligopeptides located within protobionts.
The synthesis of new DNA requires the prior existence of
oligonucleotides to serve as primers. On Earth, these primers are
small RNA molecules. This latter observation is evidence in support of
the hypothesized existence of
A) a snowball Earth.
B) earlier genetic systems than those based on DNA.
C) the abiotic synthesis of organic monomers.
D) the delivery of organic matter to Earth by meteors and comets.
E) the endosymbiotic origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Which measurement(s) would help determine absolute dates by
A) the accumulation of the daughter isotope
B) the loss of parent isotopes
C) the loss of daughter isotopes
D) Three of the responses above are correct.
E) Two of the responses above are correct.
Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend?
A) 3.5 million years
B) 5.0 million years
C) 3.5 billion years
D) 5.0 billion years
What is true of the fossil record of mammalian origins?
A) It is a good example of punctuated equilibrium.
B) It shows that mammals and birds evolved from the same kind of dinosaur.
C) It includes transitional forms with progressively specialized teeth.
D) It indicates that mammals and dinosaurs did not overlap in geologic time.
E) It includes a series that shows the gradual change of scales into fur.
An early consequence of the release of oxygen gas by plant and
bacterial photosynthesis was to
A) generate intense lightning storms.
B) change the atmosphere from oxidizing to reducing.
C) make it easier to maintain reduced molecules.
D) cause iron in ocean water and terrestrial rocks to rust (oxidize).
E) prevent the formation of an ozone layer.
Which of the following statements provides the strongest evidence
that prokaryotes evolved before eukaryotes?
A) Prokaryotic cells lack nuclei.
B) The meteorites that have struck Earth contain fossils only of prokaryotes.
C) Laboratory experiments have produced liposomes abiotically.
D) Liposomes closely resemble prokaryotic cells.
E) The oldest fossilized cells resemble prokaryotes.
What is true of the Cambrian explosion?
A) There are no fossils in geological strata that are older than the Cambrian explosion.
B) Only the fossils of microorganisms are found in geological strata older than the Cambrian explosion.
C) The Cambrian explosion is evidence for the instantaneous creation of life on Earth.
D) The Cambrian explosion marks the appearance of filter-feeding animals in the fossil record.
E) Recent evidence supports the contention that the Cambrian explosion may not have been as "explosive" as was once thought.
A) all date from 2.7 billion years ago.
B) formed around deep-sea vents.
C) resemble structures formed by bacterial communities that are found today in some warm, shallow, salty bays.
D) provide evidence that plants moved onto land in the company of fungi around 500 million years ago.
E) contain the first undisputed fossils of eukaryotes and date from 2.1 billion years ago.
The oxygen revolution changed Earth's environment dramatically. Which
of the following took advantage of the presence of free oxygen in the
oceans and atmosphere?
A) the evolution of cellular respiration, which used oxygen to help harvest energy from organic molecules
B) the persistence of some animal groups in anaerobic habitats
C) the evolution of photosynthetic pigments that protected early algae from the corrosive effects of oxygen
D) the evolution of chloroplasts after early protists incorporated photosynthetic cyanobacteria
E) the evolution of multicellular eukaryotic colonies from communities of prokaryotes
If one organ is an exaptation of another organ, then what must be
true of these two organs?
A) They are both vestigial organs.
B) They are both homologous organs.
C) They are undergoing convergent evolution.
D) They are found together in the same hybrid species.
E) They have the same function.
A swim bladder is a gas-filled sac that helps fish maintain buoyancy.
The evolution of the swim bladder from lungs of an ancestral fish is
an example of
A) an evolutionary trend.
C) changes in Hox gene expression.
E) adaptive radiation.
Mycoplasmas are bacteria that lack cell walls. On the basis of this
structural feature, which statement concerning mycoplasmas should be
A) They are gram-negative.
B) They are subject to lysis in hypotonic conditions.
C) They lack a cell membrane as well.
D) They should contain less cellulose than do bacteria that possess cell walls.
E) They possess typical prokaryotic flagella.
Though plants, fungi, and prokaryotes all have cell walls, we place
them in different taxa. Which of these observations comes closest to
explaining the basis for placing these organisms in different taxa,
well before relevant data from molecular systematics became available?
A) Some closely resemble animals, which lack cell walls.
B) Their cell walls are composed of very different biochemicals.
C) Some have cell walls only for support.
D) Some have cell walls only for protection from herbivores.
E) Some have cell walls only to control osmotic balance.
Jams, jellies, preserves, honey, and other foodstuffs with high sugar
content hardly ever become contaminated by bacteria, even when the
food containers are left open at room temperature. This is because
bacteria that encounter such an environment
A) undergo death by plasmolysis.
B) are unable to metabolize the glucose or fructose, and thus starve to death.
C) experience lysis.
D) are obligate anaerobes.
E) are unable to swim through these thick and viscous materials.
Which two structures play direct roles in permitting bacteria to
adhere to each other, or to other surfaces?
The typical prokaryotic flagellum features
A) an internal 9 + 2 pattern of microtubules.
B) an external covering provided by the plasma membrane.
C) a complex "motor" embedded in the cell wall and plasma membrane.
D) a basal body that is similar in structure to the cell's centrioles.
E) a membrane-enclosed organelle with motor proteins.
Prokaryotic ribosomes differ from those present in eukaryotic
cytosol. Because of this, which of the following is correct?
A) Some antibiotics can block protein synthesis in bacteria without effects in the eukaryotic host.
B) Eukaryotes did not evolve from prokaryotes.
C) Translation can occur at the same time as transcription in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes.
D) Some antibiotics can block the synthesis of peptidoglycan in the walls of bacteria.
E) Prokaryotes are able to use a much greater variety of molecules as food sources than can eukaryotes.
Prokaryotes' essential genetic information is located in the
Regarding prokaryotic genetics, which statement is correct?
A) Crossing over during prophase I introduces some genetic variation.
B) Prokaryotes feature the union of haploid gametes, as do eukaryotes.
C) Prokaryotes exchange some of their genes by conjugation, the union of haploid gametes, and transduction.
D) Mutation is a primary source of variation in prokaryote populations.
E) Prokaryotes skip sexual life cycles because their life cycle is too short.
Which of these statements about prokaryotes is correct?
A) Bacterial cells conjugate to mutually exchange genetic material.
B) Their genetic material is confined within vesicles known as plasmids.
C) They divide by binary fission, without mitosis or meiosis.
D) The persistence of bacteria throughout evolutionary time is due to their genetic homogeneity (in other words, sameness).
E) Genetic variation in bacteria is not known to occur, because of their asexual mode of reproduction.
Carl Woese and collaborators identified two major branches of
prokaryotic evolution. What was the basis for dividing prokaryotes
into two domains?
A) microscopic examination of staining characteristics of the cell wall
B) metabolic characteristics such as the production of methane gas
C) metabolic characteristics such as chemoautotrophy and photosynthesis
D) genetic characteristics such as ribosomal RNA sequences
E) ecological characteristics such as the ability to survive in extreme environments
A hypothetical bacterium swims among human intestinal contents until
it finds a suitable location on the intestinal lining. It adheres to
the intestinal lining using a feature that also protects it from
phagocytes, bacteriophages, and dehydration. Fecal matter from a human
in whose intestine this bacterium lives can spread the bacterium, even
after being mixed with water and boiled. The bacterium is not
susceptible to the penicillin family of antibiotics. It contains no
plasmids and relatively little peptidoglycan.
54) Adherence to the intestinal lining by this bacterium is due to its possession of
C) a capsule.
D) a flagellum.
E) a cell wall with an outer lipopolysaccharide membrane.
Genetic variation in bacterial populations cannot result from
All protists are
An individual mixotroph loses its plastids, yet continues to survive.
Which of the following most likely accounts for its continued
A) It relies on photosystems that float freely in its cytosol.
B) It must have gained extra mitochondria when it lost its plastids.
C) It engulfs organic material by phagocytosis or by absorption.
D) It has an endospore.
E) It is protected by a case made of silica.
Which of the following was derived from an ancestral cyanobacterium?
E) Two of the responses above are correct.
Which of the following statements about dinoflagellates is true?
A) They possess two flagella.
B) All known varieties are autotrophic.
C) Their walls are usually composed of silica plates.
D) Many types lack mitochondria.
E) Their dead cells accumulate on the seafloor, and are mined to serve as a filtering material.
Which process results in genetic recombination, but is separate from
the process by which the population size of Paramecium increases?
B) meiotic division
C) mitotic division
E) binary fission
A large seaweed that floats freely on the surface of deep bodies of
water would be expected to lack which of the following?
D) gel-forming polysaccharides
The chloroplasts of land plants are thought to have been derived
according to which evolutionary sequence?
A) cyanobacteria → green algae → land plants
B) cyanobacteria → green algae → fungi → land plants
C) red algae → brown algae → green algae → land plants
D) cyanobacteria → red algae → green algae → land plants
The chloroplasts of all of the following are thought to be derived
from ancestral red algae, except those of
A) golden algae.
D) green algae.
E) brown algae.
Green algae differ from land plants in that many green algae
A) are heterotrophs.
B) are unicellular.
C) have plastids.
D) have alternation of generations.
E) have cell walls containing cellulose.
According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic
cells, how did mitochondria originate?
A) from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for proteins in energy-transfer reactions
B) from engulfed, originally free-living proteobacteria
C) by secondary endosymbiosis
D) from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes
E) when a protoeukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protocell
Which protists are in the same eukaryotic supergroup as land plants?
A) green algae
C) red algae
D) brown algae
E) both green algae and red algae
The structural integrity of bacteria is to peptidoglycan as the
structural integrity of plant spores is to
C) secondary compounds.
All of the following are common to both charophytes and land plants
C) chlorophyll a.
E) chlorophyll b.
The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to
A) comprise spore surface structures that catch the wind and assist in spore dispersal.
B) reduce dehydration.
C) make spores less dense and able to disperse more readily.
D) repel toxic chemicals.
E) provide nutrients to spores.
The following are all adaptations to life on land except
A) rings of cellulose-synthesizing complexes.
D) reduced gametophyte generation.
Which of the following is true of the life cycle of mosses?
A) The haploid generation grows on the sporophyte generation.
B) Spores are primarily distributed by water currents.
C) Antheridia and archegonia are produced by gametophytes.
D) The sporophyte generation is dominant.
E) The growing embryo gives rise to the gametophyte.
In which of the following taxa does the mature sporophyte depend
completely on the gametophyte for nutrition?
C) horsetail (Equisetum)
D) Pterophyta, Bryophyta, and horsetail (Equisetum)
E) Pterophyta and Bryophyta
Which of the following is not evidence that charophytes are the
closest algal relatives of plants?
A) similar sperm structure
B) the presence of chloroplasts
C) similarities in cell wall formation during cell division
D) genetic similarities in chloroplasts
E) similarities in proteins that synthesize cellulose
Which of the following is a land plant that has flagellated sperm and
a sporophyte-dominated life cycle?
The seed coat's most important function is to provide
A) a nonstressful environment for the megasporangium.
B) the means for dispersal.
D) a nutrient supply for the embryo.
E) desiccation resistance.
In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics are
unique to the seed-producing plants?
B) lignin present in cell walls
D) use of air currents as a dispersal agent
Gymnosperms differ from both extinct and extant (living) ferns
A) are woody.
B) have macrophylls.
C) have pollen.
D) have sporophylls.
E) have spores.
Which of the following statements correctly describes a portion of
the pine life cycle?
A) Female gametophytes use mitosis to produce eggs.
B) Seeds are produced in pollen-producing cones.
C) Pollen grains contain female gametophytes.
D) A pollen tube slowly digests its way through the triploid endosperm.
Which of the following statements is true of the pine life cycle?
A) Cones are homologous to the capsules of moss plants.
B) The pine tree is a gametophyte.
C) Male and female gametophytes are in close proximity during gamete synthesis.
D) Conifer pollen grains contain male gametophytes.
E) Double fertilization is a relatively common phenomenon.
All of the following cellular structures are functionally important
in cells of the gametophytes of both angiosperms and gymnosperms
A) haploid nuclei.
C) cell walls.
Which structure is common to both gymnosperms and angiosperms?
What is true of stamens, sepals, petals, carpels, and pinecone
A) They are female reproductive parts.
B) None are capable of photosynthesis.
C) They are modified leaves.
D) They are found on flowers.
E) They are found on angiosperms.
Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms?
A) complete reliance on wind as the pollinating agent
B) double internal fertilization
C) free-living gametophytes
D) carpels that contain microsporangia
E) ovules that are not contained within ovarie
Carpels and stamens are
A) sporophyte plants in their own right.
B) gametophyte plants in their own right.
E) modified sporophylls.
Which of the following is a true statement about angiosperm carpels?
A) Carpels are features of the gametophyte generation.
B) Carpels consist of anther and stamen.
C) Carpels are structures that directly produce male gametes.
D) Carpels surround and nourish the female gametophyte.
E) Carpels consist of highly modified microsporangia.
Which of the following flower parts develops into a seed?
Which of the following flower parts develops into the pulp of a
Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the
following features is unique to them and helps account for their
A) wind pollination
B) dominant gametophytes
C) fruits enclosing seeds
D) embryos enclosed within seed coats
E) sperm cells without flagella
What is the greatest threat to plant diversity?
B) grazing and browsing by animals
C) pathogenic fungi
D) competition with other plants
E) human population growth
Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except
C) vascular tissue.
Which of the following is not a characteristic that distinguishes
gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants?
A) alternation of generations
E) dependent gametophytes
Which structure(s) must pass through the micropyle for successful
fertilization to occur in angiosperms?
A) only one sperm nucleus
B) two sperm nuclei
C) the pollen tube
D) Two of the responses above are correct.
How have fruits contributed to the success of angiosperms?
A) by nourishing the plants that make them
B) by facilitating dispersal of seeds
C) by attracting insects to the pollen inside
D) by producing sperm and eggs inside a protective coat
E) by producing triploid cells via double fertilization
Which of the following statements is true of monocots?
A) They are currently thought to be polyphyletic.
B) The veins of their leaves form a netlike pattern.
C) They, along with the eudicots, magnoliids, and basal angiosperms, are currently placed in the phylum Anthophyta.
D) Each possesses multiple cotyledons.
E) They are in the clade that includes most of our crops, except the cereal grains.
Which of the following are structures of angiosperm gametophytes?
A) immature ovules
B) pollen tubes
Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly
produces the megasporangium of pine ovules?
A) male gametophyte
B) female gametophyte
C) male sporophyte
D) female sporophyte
Which of the following conclusions is supported by the research of
both Went and Charles and Francis Darwin on shoot responses to light?
A) When shoots are exposed to light, a chemical substance migrates toward the light.
B) Agar contains a chemical substance that mimics a plant hormone.
C) A chemical substance involved in shoot bending is produced in shoot tips.
D) Once shoot tips have been cut, normal growth cannot be induced.
E) Light stimulates the synthesis of a plant hormone that responds to light.
According to the acid growth hypothesis, auxin works by
A) dissolving sieve plates, permitting more rapid transport of nutrients.
B) dissolving the cell membranes temporarily, permitting cells that were on the verge of dividing to divide more rapidly.
C) changing the pH within the cell, which would permit the electron transport chain to operate more efficiently.
D) increasing wall plasticity and allowing the affected cell walls to elongate.
E) greatly increasing the rate of deposition of cell wall material.
The rapid leaf movements resulting from a response to touch
(thigmotropism) primarily involve
A) rapid growth response.
B) potassium channels.
C) nervous tissue.
E) stress proteins.
Acoelomates are characterized by
A) the absence of a brain.
B) the absence of mesoderm.
C) deuterostome development.
D) a coelom that is not completely lined with mesoderm.
E) a solid body without a cavity surrounding internal organs.
The distinction between sponges and other animal phyla is based
mainly on the absence versus the presence of
A) a body cavity.
B) a complete digestive tract.
C) a circulatory system.
D) true tissues.
Which characteristic(s) is (are) shared by both cnidarians and
A) dorsoventrally flattened bodies
B) true muscle
C) radial symmetry
D) a digestive system with a single opening
E) two of these
A land snail, a clam, and an octopus all share
A) a mantle.
B) a radula.
D) embryonic torsion.
E) distinct cephalization
Which phylum is characterized by animals that have a segmented body?
Which of the following combinations of phylum and description is
A) Echinodermata–bilateral symmetry as a larva, coelom present
B) Nematoda–roundworms, pseudocoelomate
C) Cnidaria–radial symmetry, polyp and medusa body forms
D) Platyhelminthes–flatworms, gastrovascular cavity, acoelomate
E) Porifera–gastrovascular cavity, coelom present
What do all craniates have that earlier chordates did not have?
C) cartilaginous pipe surrounding notochord
D) partial or complete skull
The swim bladder of ray-finned fishes
A) was probably modified from simple lungs of chondrichthyans.
B) developed into lungs in saltwater fishes.
C) first appeared in sharks.
D) provides for regulation of buoyancy.
E) Two of the options listed are correct.
Which of these species is currently thought to have coexisted (at the
same time and places) with H. neanderthalensis?
A) H. erectus
B) H. ergaster
C) H. habilis
D) H. sapiens
Which of the following is the most inclusive (most general) group,
all of whose members have fully opposable thumbs?
Due to its system of nine air sacs connected to the lungs, the
respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory
system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into
posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air
sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air
through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.
94) Which feature of some carinates has the same effect on weight as the presence of air sacs?
A) presence of a large, heavily keratinized beak
B) absence of a urinary bladder
C) presence of a carina (keel)
D) number of chambers in the heart
E) presence of large pectoral muscles