Nutrition Final Review Flashcards

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Which of the following is true with regard to a healthy diet?

  1. A healthy diet emphasizes nutrient-dense over energy-dense foods.
  2. A healthy diet provides calories and nutrients in amounts necessary to promote good health.
  3. A healthy diet is characterized by adequacy, balance, variety, and moderation.
  4. All of the above.



Emphasizing nutrient-dense foods and reducing intake of energy-dense foods while meeting overall energy needs typically results in:

  1. less dietary fiber and reduced overall volume of food intake.
  2. increased intake of dietary fat and risk of overweight and obesity.
  3. greater likelihood of achieving recommended intake of essential nutrients.
  4. dietary inadequacies that may contribute to nutrient deficiencies.



The Dietary Guidelines for Americans (DGAs) are characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

  1. they are updated every 10 years.
  2. they are science-based guidelines to promote health and reduce risk of chronic disease.
  3. they stress consumption of nutrient-dense foods.
  4. they stress balancing calories for a healthy weight.



The DGAs recommend that sodium intake should:

  1. be limited to 3,000 milligrams/day for all Americans older than 2 years.
  2. be restricted to 1,500 milligrams/day for individuals at risk of high blood pressure.
  3. be balanced with overall calorie intake to prevent fluid retention.
  4. be limited only if older than 30 years.



All of the following are true regarding the USDA MyPlate food guide, EXCEPT:

  1. it replaced the Food Guide Pyramid in 2011.
  2. it has an online web site to help individualize recommendations.
  3. it is designed to depict food choices across food groups at meals.
  4. it is designed specifically for use by children rather than adults.



The World Health Organization’s dietary guidelines:

  1. reinforce recommendations from other countries around the world.
  2. focus exclusively on malnutrition in the form of nutrient deficiency disease.
  3. contradict the Dietary Guidelines for Americans.
  4. recommend complete avoidance of sugar and salt.



The Nutrition Labeling and Education Act of 1990 requires all of the following, EXCEPT:

  1. health claims must be approved by FDA before use on food labels.
  2. listing of ingredients in a food product on the label.
  3. using a standardized Nutrition Facts Panel on food products.
  4. warning if a food product contains excessive amounts of sugar or sodium.



Percent daily value (%DV) on processed food packages is:

  1. developed specifically for use on food labels.
  2. based on an average 1,800-calorie intake.
  3. the level of nutrients that should not be exceeded.
  4. established by food manufacturers.



On a nutrition label, the list of ingredients:

  1. is in alphabetical order.
  2. begins with the ingredient that comprises the highest proportion of the product’s weight.
  3. begins with the ingredient with the highest caloric density.
  4. begins with any potential ingredient that might cause an allergic reaction.



Currently, health claims that can appear on food labels:

  1. can guarantee that consumption of a food will reduce risk of specific diseases.
  2. have been approved by the FDA.
  3. can appear on any processed food even if high in saturated fat, cholesterol, or sodium.
  4. are based exclusively on research and evidence provided by the food manufacturer.



All of the following are true for the hormone insulin, EXCEPT that it:

  1. functions to lower blood glucose levels.
  2. enhances storage of excess glucose to fat in adipose tissue.
  3. enhances conversion of excess glucose into glycogen in liver and muscles.
  4. is required for release of glucose from glycogen stores.
  5. is secreted by cells in the pancreas.



All of the following are true for the hormone glucagon, EXCEPT that it:

  1. triggers the synthesis of glycogen in the liver.
  2. signals the liver to release glucose into the blood.
  3. is secreted from the pancreas.
  4. works with insulin in regulating blood sugar levels.
  5. signals glucose production from amino acids.



In type 1 diabetes, cells in the pancreas:

  1. are less responsive to effects of circulating insulin.
  2. secrete excessive amounts of insulin.
  3. secrete excessive amounts of glucagon.
  4. are destroyed by the body’s immune system.
  5. multiply to provide sufficient amounts of insulin.



Type 2 diabetes:

  1. is characterized by an absence of insulin production by the pancreas.
  2. is characterized by insulin resistance and obesity.
  3. is caused by excessive intake of sugar or sucrose.
  4. occurs only during pregnancy and disappears after delivery.
  5. is an autoimmune disease.



Ketone bodies in the blood:

  1. are synthesized from the breakdown of amino acids.
  2. stimulate the action of insulin in glucose uptake by the body’s cells.
  3. can be used as an energy source when glucose use is impaired.
  4. can increase the alkalinity of the blood to dangerous levels.
  5. are correlated with low blood insulin levels.



All of the following are true with regard to insulin resistance, EXCEPT that it:

  1. develops in the latter stages of type 2 diabetes.
  2. can occur even when the pancreas produces normal amounts of insulin.
  3. is associated with excess adipose tissue and obesity.
  4. blocks insulin’s ability to adequately suppress liver glucose production.
  5. results in impaired removal of excess glucose from blood.



The elevated blood glucose level that is needed for a diagnosis of diabetes following an oral glucose tolerance test is:

  1. 100 mg/100 ml blood.
  2. 125 mg/100 ml blood.
  3. 150 mg/100 ml blood.
  4. 175 mg/100 ml blood.
  5. 200 mg/110 ml blood.



All of the following are true with regard to complications from diabetes, EXCEPT that they:

  1. can be minimized or avoided with proper blood glucose management.
  2. are much more prevalent in type 1 than in type 2 diabetes.
  3. can result in the primary cause of adult blindness.
  4. increased risk of heart attack and stroke due to the effect on blood vessels.
  5. can cause weight loss and increased burning of fat for energy.



Expectant mothers with gestational diabetes:

  1. usually give birth to a full-term baby that is significantly smaller than normal birth weight.
  2. have increased risk of complications during pregnancy.
  3. are at the same risk for developing the condition whether they are underweight, normal, or overweight.
  4. are almost always still diabetic following delivery.
  5. represent only about 2% of mothers.



All of the following are dietary factors associated with increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes, EXCEPT:

  1. sugar-sweetened beverage consumption.
  2. high intake of refined carbohydrates.
  3. excess calorie intake.
  4. unsaturated fat intake.
  5. low intake of whole grains.



Diets that emphasize foods with a low glycemic index (GI):

  1. may be low in dietary fiber.
  2. increase the risk of hyperglycemia.
  3. may help in blood glucose control.
  4. are generally high in sugar.
  5. increase risk of obesity.



The type of hypoglycemia that may occur in a few individuals following a meal is termed:

  1. reactive hypoglycemia.
  2. insulin resistant hypoglycemia.
  3. autoimmune hypoglycemia.
  4. fasting hypoglycemia.
  5. metabolic syndrome.



A calorie is defined as:

  1. the energy required to raise 1 mg of water 1°C.
  2. the energy required to raise 1 g of water 1°C.
  3. a molecule that provides energy to cells.
  4. a byproduct of carbohydrate and fat metabolism.



Current evidence suggests that a primary cause of adverse health effects related to obesity is:

  1. excess body fat in the hip and thigh area.
  2. long-term negative energy balance.
  3. low-grade chronic inflammation throughout the body.
  4. changes in the acid-base balance of the blood.



Satiation can be defined as:

  1. the sense or feeling of fullness while eating that leads to termination of the meal.
  2. the effect of a meal on level of hunger and desire to eat after or between meals.
  3. the saturation of adipose tissue with the hormone ghrelin.
  4. an appetite for foods high in fat, particularly saturated fat.



All of the following are TRUE with regard to the hormone leptin, EXCEPT:

  1. it is primarily produced by adipose tissue.
  2. its circulating concentration is closely associated with total body fat.
  3. increased levels of leptin in the blood act in the brain to suppress hunger.
  4. it functions primarily in short-term energy balance.



The primary contributor to an individual’s total energy expenditure is:

  1. basal metabolism.
  2. thermic effect of food.
  3. activity energy expenditure.
  4. meal timing and composition.



The most variable component of an individual’s total energy expenditure is:

  1. basal metabolism.
  2. thermic effect of food.
  3. activity energy expenditure.
  4. meal timing and composition.



The thermic effect of food is generally equivalent to ______ of the energy content of food ingested.

  1. 10%
  2. 15%
  3. 20%
  4. 25%
  5. 30%



All of the following are TRUE with regard to body mass index (BMI), EXCEPT:

  1. that it is a measure of an adult’s weight in relation to his or her height.
  2. that it provides an indirect measure of body fat.
  3. that there is an increased risk of obesity-related diseases and conditions with increasing BMI.
  4. measurement requires the use of skinfold calipers or other body composition assessment tools.
  5. that it may overestimate body fat in athletes and highly trained individuals.



A BMI of 25 to 29.9 would classify a person as:

  1. underweight.
  2. normal weight.
  3. overweight.
  4. obese.
  5. a candidate for weight-loss surgery.



Waist circumference can be an indication of “risky” abdominal obesity. A waist circumference of _______ inches for a man would indicate excess abdominal fat and increased health risk.

  1. 27
  2. 32
  3. 37
  4. 42



The four types of exercise specifically recommended by the American College of Sports Medicine include all of the following, EXCEPT:

  1. calisthenics.
  2. cardiorespiratory.
  3. flexibility.
  4. neuromotor.
  5. resistance.



ll of the following are TRUE with regard to ATP, EXCEPT that it:

  1. is often referred to as the energy currency of cells.
  2. stores energy in the bonds of its three phosphate groups.
  3. can be produced both aerobically and anaerobically.
  4. cannot be produced without the presence of oxygen.
  5. is the abbreviation for the chemical compound adenosine triphosphate.



The aerobic energy system occurs in what part of the cell?

  1. cellular membrane
  2. cytosol
  3. mitochondria
  4. nucleus
  5. ribosome



Anaerobic energy systems:

  1. provide energy for low-intensity exercise.
  2. provide energy for short, intense exertion.
  3. provide unlimited energy.
  4. require oxygen.
  5. utilize fatty acids as primary fuel source.



More carbohydrate is used as fuel when someone is:

  1. walking.
  2. jogging.
  3. running.
  4. sprinting.



All of the following are TRUE with regard to carbohydrate loading, EXCEPT that it:

  1. can increase time to exhaustion during intense exercise by 90 minutes or more.
  2. helps prevent depletion of glycogen during activities of long duration.
  3. is intended to increase glycogen stored in muscle.
  4. promotes unlimited glycogen stores.



Female endurance athletes are at higher risk for being deficient in which of the following nutrients?

  1. biotin
  2. chromium
  3. iron
  4. sodium
  5. zinc



Female athletes who restrict energy intake and experience menstrual dysfunction are at higher risk for the long-term complication of:

  1. high blood pressure.
  2. neural tube defects.
  3. osteoporosis.
  4. type 2 diabetes.



What would you tell a friend who inquires if amino acid and protein supplements will help build muscle?

  1. Amino acids and protein powders alone do not increase muscle mass.
  2. Protein intake has to be combined with exercise and sufficient calorie intake to increase muscle mass.
  3. Excess protein intake contributes to energy needs or may be stored as fat.
  4. It is likely he or she is already consuming sufficient protein.
  5. All of the above.



All of the following are TRUE with regard to hydration for athletes, EXCEPT:

  1. It is impossible to consume too much water—the more the better.
  2. You should begin intense activities fully hydrated.
  3. Urine color can be an indication of hydration status.
  4. Comparing body weight before and after exercise is a good indication of hydration status.
  5. Sports drinks may help hydrate and prevent hyponatremia during and following prolonged exercise.



According to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services Physical Activity Guidelines, adults gain substantial health benefits from ______ a week of moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity or ______ a week of vigorous activity.

  1. 2 hours; 1 hour
  2. 2.5 hours; 1 hour and 15 minutes
  3. 3 hours; 2 hours
  4. 4.5 hours; 2 hours and 20 minutes
  5. 5 hours; 3 hours



Physiological changes associated with pregnancy include all of the following, EXCEPT:

  1. decreased gastrointestinal motility.
  2. decreased breathing rate.
  3. increased blood volume.
  4. increased calcium absorption.
  5. increased cardiac output.



During pregnancy, there is a maternal adaptation to utilize ______ as primary fuel.

  1. fat
  2. glucose
  3. glycogen
  4. protein



Marilyn weighed 140 pounds prior to pregnancy and her BMI was 22. According to healthy weight-gain recommendations, she should anticipate weighing ______ by the end of her pregnancy.

  1. 150 to 160 pounds
  2. 155 to 165 pounds
  3. 160 to 170 pounds
  4. 165 to 175 pounds
  5. 170 to 180 pounds



Babies that are considered small for gestational age are defined as having a birth weight that is:

  1. between one and three pounds.
  2. less than 10% of maternal weight gain.
  3. less than 10th percentile of gestational age.
  4. less than 50th percentile of gestational age.
  5. lower than 50% of average U.S. birth weight.



Typically, calorie needs during the first trimester of pregnancy:

  1. do not increase over prepregnancy requirements.
  2. increase by 30% over prepregnancy requirements.
  3. increase by 340 calories over prepregnancy requirements.
  4. increase by 450 calories over prepregnancy requirements.
  5. are the highest compared with other trimesters because of rapid fetal development.



Which of the following about folate is NOT correct?

  1. Adequate intake before and during pregnancy decreases the incidence of neural tube defects.
  2. Between the ages of 15 and 45 years, all women should consume 400 micrograms through folate-rich foods or take folic acid supplements.
  3. During pregnancy, the daily recommended intake is 600 micrograms.
  4. Needs in pregnancy can be met without supplementation through diet and consumption of folate-rich foods.
  5. Supplementation is most critical during the second trimester when folate-related birth defects develop.



The only nutrient for which supplementation during pregnancy is universally recommended is:

  1. calcium.
  2. fluoride.
  3. iron.
  4. vitamin B12.
  5. vitamin C.



Justin weighed 7 pounds, 3 ounces at birth and was 20 inches in length. What is his anticipated weight and height at one year?

  1. 14 pounds, 6 ounces; 30 inches
  2. 14 pounds, 6 ounces; 40 inches
  3. 21 pounds, 9 ounces; 30 inches
  4. 21 pounds, 9 ounces; 40 inches



The benefits of breastfeeding include:

  1. reduced incidence of diarrhea and vomiting in infants.
  2. reduced incidence of childhood leukemia and juvenile diabetes.
  3. enhanced infant oral motor development and digestion.
  4. increased mother–infant bonding.
  5. all of the above.



Nutritional recommendations for infants include all of the following, EXCEPT:

  1. exclusive breastfeeding until at least six months of age.
  2. vitamin B12 supplementation for all breastfed babies.
  3. vitamin D supplementation for breastfed babies after the first few days of life.
  4. iron supplementation if exclusively breastfed after four months.
  5. solid foods can be introduced to complement breast milk after six months.



School-aged children 6 to 11 years old:

  1. experience the greatest increases in height and weight during childhood and adolescence.
  2. grow at a steady pace with occasional growth spurts.
  3. are all quite similar in height and body weight.
  4. would be considered at risk of obesity with a BMI-for-age above the 50th percentile.
  5. have the same nutritional requirements as adolescents.



Studies suggest that children who consume the most total energy, saturated fat, and sodium:

  1. determine their own serving sizes by serving themselves.
  2. eat most of their meals with their family.
  3. eat most of their meals at home.
  4. eat most of their meals away from home.
  5. watch the least amount of television.



All of the following reflect updates in the National School Lunch Program, EXCEPT:

  1. emphasis on whole grains over refined grains.
  2. increased offerings of vegetables and fruits.
  3. reduced saturated and trans fat.
  4. restriction of total fat to less than 20% of total calories.
  5. reduced sodium content.



The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range for dietary fat for children aged 1 to 3 years is of total calories.

  1. 20% to 35%
  2. 20% to 40%
  3. 25% to 40%
  4. 30% to 40%
  5. 35% to 50%


58 for children offers guidance toward healthy food choices, as well as age-appropriate serving sizes. An appropriate serving size of mashed potatoes for a 5-year-old would be:

  1. 5 teaspoons.
  2. 5 tablespoons.
  3. 1⁄4 cup.
  4. 1⁄2 cup.



To encourage healthy eating habits in children, which of the following strategies is NOT recommended for parents or caregivers?

  1. Deny dessert or special treats if a child does not eat all foods offered at a meal.
  2. Repeatedly offer foods even if the child does not initially accept or try a food.
  3. Involve children in shopping for and preparing food.
  4. Model positive food choices and attitude toward nutrition.
  5. Determine which foods are offered and when they are offered.



All of the following are true in regards to food jags, EXCEPT that they:

  1. are generally outgrown.
  2. require immediate parental intervention to stop these behaviors.
  3. considered developmentally normal.
  4. can represent a child seeking more independence and control.
  5. are habits, rituals, or particular ways of eating.



All of the following have been identified as potential nutrients of concern during childhood, EXCEPT:

  1. calcium.
  2. dietary fiber.
  3. iron.
  4. omega-6 fatty acids.
  5. vitamin D.



To help reduce risk of obesity, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that “screen time,” whether watching television, playing electronic games, or using the computer, should be:

  1. allowed only on the weekends.
  2. minimized to no more than three hours per week.
  3. restricted to less than one hour a day.
  4. limited to one to two hours a day.
  5. limited to three to four hours a day.



Food intolerances are reproducible, adverse reactions to food that:

  1. are life-threatening.
  2. involve the immune system.
  3. do not involve the immune system.
  4. are the same as food allergies.



The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics provides tips to help families avoid foods that elicit allergic reactions, including:

  1. read food labels and ingredient listings carefully.
  2. educate family members, caregivers, and teachers about food allergies and allergens.
  3. teach children about their allergies at a young age.
  4. consult a registered dietitian nutritionist to develop a healthy eating plan that avoids allergens.
  5. All of the answers are correct.



Teens and young adults who consume energy-dense, nutrient-poor diets have been shown to have suboptimal intake of:

  1. calories.
  2. fiber.
  3. HDL cholesterol.
  4. omega-6 fatty acids.
  5. sodium.



Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding iron?

  1. Most women consume the RDA for iron.
  2. Iron requirements for women are the same for men.
  3. Iron requirements are higher for girls aged 14 to 18 years than for women aged 19 to 50 years.
  4. Iron requirements are lower for girls aged 14 to 18 years than for women aged 19 to 50 years.
  5. Iron-deficiency anemia in women is extremely rare.



The phrase “Freshman 15” has been used to refer to a pattern of weight gain that may occur during the first year of college. According to studies, the actual average weight gain is:

  1. 3 to 4 pounds.
  2. 6 to 8 pounds.
  3. 10 to 12 pounds.
  4. more than 15 pounds.



Which of the following is NOT a characteristic or consequence of anorexia nervosa?

  1. absent or irregular menstrual cycle
  2. bone loss
  3. dehydration
  4. elevated blood pressure
  5. loss of cardiac muscle



Binge eating disorder differs from bulimia nervosa in that:

  1. depression often follows a binge.
  2. large quantities of food are consumed in a short period.
  3. there is no purging after a binge.
  4. there is a feeling of lack of control during a binge.



All of the following are TRUE of males with eating disorders, EXCEPT:

  1. they represent 5% to 15% of patients with anorexia nervosa.
  2. they represent 5% to 15% of patients with bulimia nervosa.
  3. they represent an estimated 40% of patients with binge eating disorder.
  4. they represent an estimated 40% of patients with any eating disorder.



Alcohol contains _______ calories per gram.



Moderate drinking is considered to be no more than:

  1. 10% of total calories from alcohol.
  2. one ounce of alcohol for each 20 kg of body weight per day.
  3. one drink for women and two drinks for men per day.
  4. two drinks for women and three drinks for men per day.
  5. The amount that alters blood alcohol concentration to 1% or more.



All of the following are TRUE of women as compared with men, EXCEPT:

  1. women experience a more rapid increase in blood alcohol concentration with similar alcohol intakes.
  2. women are more likely to experience the intoxicating effects of alcohol with similar alcohol intakes.
  3. lower levels of body fat in women decrease absorption of alcohol into the bloodstream.
  4. lower levels of total body water in women increase the effects of alcohol.



Moderate alcohol consumption is associated with:

  1. a lower incidence of all types of cancer.
  2. a reduced risk of cardiovascular disease.
  3. an increased overall mortality.
  4. greater risk-to-benefit ratios in 20- to 30-year-olds.



Most of the alcohol consumed by an individual is:

  1. metabolized in the liver.
  2. metabolized in the stomach.
  3. excreted through respiration and perspiration.
  4. excreted in the urine.
  5. absorbed into adipose tissue.



During the first step of alcohol metabolism, the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase converts alcohol to a toxic compound called:

  1. arachidonic acid.
  2. acetaldehyde.
  3. acetate.
  4. acetyl-coenzyme A.



All of the following are common causes of foodborne illness, EXCEPT:

  1. campylobacter.
  2. clostridium perfringens.
  3. norovirus.
  4. pneumococcus.
  5. salmonella.



Food intoxication can be caused by all of the following, EXCEPT:

  1. toxins produced by bacteria.
  2. toxins produced by fungi.
  3. natural accumulation of toxins in shellfish.
  4. toxins naturally present in some plants.
  5. toxins produced by viruses.



Which of the following pathogens can multiply in foods?

  1. parasites
  2. viruses
  3. bacteria
  4. parasites, viruses, and bacteria



Which of the following must be cooked to the highest internal temperature to insure safety?

  1. poultry
  2. pork chop
  3. ground beef
  4. egg dishes



The effects of foodborne illness may be most severe and of special concern for:

  1. a 2-year-old child and her mother, who is 5 months pregnant.
  2. a person being treated for chemotherapy.
  3. an 85-year-old grandfather.
  4. All of the above.



All of the following are TRUE with regard to certified organic produce, EXCEPT that it is:

  1. grown without the use of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides.
  2. regulated by USDA.
  3. significantly less likely to produce foodborne illness than conventional produce.
  4. not genetically modified or engineered.



If an outbreak of foodborne intoxication is caused by the consumption of corned beef that was cooked and sliced yesterday and then reheated today by boiling, which one of the four steps to food safety was most probably not followed?

  1. clean
  2. separate
  3. cook
  4. chill



All of the following are TRUE with regard to FSMA, EXCEPT that it:

  1. stands for the Food Safety Modernization Act.
  2. limits the FDA’s authority in food production facilities.
  3. is the most sweeping change in food safety legislation in over 70 years.
  4. provides for protection against intentional, as well as unintentional contamination of food.
  5. established regulations for the production of vegetables and fruits.



The danger zone for bacterial growth in foods is:

  1. 32°F to 132°F
  2. 35°F to 140°F
  3. 35°F to 165°F
  4. 41°F to 135°F
  5. 41°F to 165°F



All of the following are TRUE with regard to food additives, EXCEPT:

  1. they include indirect additives that become part of food during packaging and processing.
  2. they are added only to improve safety and freshness.
  3. they are considered GRAS substances so most don’t have to go through an approval process.
  4. the FDA has primary responsibility for ensuring their safety.
  5. They can include salt, spices, and herbs.



Federally recognized GRAS substances:

  1. must have gone through a stringent approval process by FDA.
  2. include only about 50 substances to date.
  3. do not have to be included on food labels.
  4. include salt, spices, and herbs.



The former U.S. Food Stamps program is now known as the:

  1. Federal Food Supply Program.
  2. Food for Life Program.
  3. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program.
  4. Women and Infant Assistance Program.



For Americans who experience food insecurity, the main factor limiting access to sufficient quantities of safe and nutritious foods is:

  1. poverty.
  2. that fresh fruits and vegetables are not available year round.
  3. knowledge about nutrition.
  4. the prevalence of obesity.