RHIT #2 Flashcards


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1

graphical user interface

A type of software that provides a front-end structure/interface that presents information in a familiar format leading to a natural style of interaction through the use of icons and a mouse

2

interoperability

the ability to transfer data from one system to another system

3

data mart

a subset of the data warehouse that is usually oriented to a specific business line or team (smaller database)

4

clinical data repository

is a real time database that consolidates data from a variety of clinicalsources to present a unified view of a single patient

5

executive information system

a type of management information systemthat facilitates and supports senior executive information and decision-making needs

6

business continuity plan

a plan to help ensure that business processes can continue during a time of emergency or disaster

7

database that stores the data in tables

relational

8

how to handle versioning of documents in the EDMS

Display the second version but identify that a previous version exists

9

probabilistic algorithm

The comparison methodology that identifies multiple records that represent the same person

10

use cases

a series of related interactions between a user and a system that enables the user to achieve a goal

11

database that must be able to store video, images, and audio

relational

12

DICOM

Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine

13

Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM)

a standard for handling, storing, printing, and transmitting information in medical imaging

14

HL7 EHR functional model

provides Healthcare service providers and IT providers a standardized reference list and model of functions to be present in an Electronic Health Record System

15

incidental disclosure

a secondary use or disclosure that cannot reasonably be prevented, is limited in nature, and that occurs as a result of another use ordisclosure that is permitted by the Rule

16

privacy incident

A (reportable) breach is the unauthorized acquisition, access, use, or disclosure of PHI in a manner not permitted by law or regulation and which compromises the security and privacy of the PHI

17

How long must the training records for the HIPAA privacy training be kept before destruction?

7 years

18

spoliation

negligent, reckless, and intentional destruction of evidence

19

workforce clearance procedure

ensures that the access to the ePHI is appropriate (Before an employee can be given access to the EHR, someone has to determine what they have access to)

20

degaussing

To neutralize or rebalance the magnetic field of a magnetized object, such as a computer monitor or the read/write head of a disk drive or tape recorder

21

Physical safeguards include

tools to control access to computer systems and fire protection

22

denial of service

an interruption in an authorized user's access to a computer network, typically one caused with malicious intent

23

spyware

software that enables a user to obtain covert information about another's computer activities by transmitting data covertly from their hard drive

24

phishing

the activity of defrauding an online account holder of financial information by posing as a legitimate company

25

virus (worm, Trojan Horse)

a piece of code that is capable of copying itself and typically has a detrimental effect, such as corrupting the system or destroying data

26

malware

software that is intended to damage or disable computers and computer systems

27

minimum necessary rule

requires that department of mental health, its offices, facilities, programs and Workforce Members, when using, disclosing, or requesting PHI, must make reasonable efforts to limit PHI to the minimum amount necessary to accomplish the intended purpose of the use, disclosure or request

28

limited data set

may be disclosed to an outside party without a patient’s authorization if certain conditions are met

29

intrusion detection

a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces electronic reports to a management station

30

why would you are conduct a risk assessment?

to prevent breach of confidentiality

31

CAPTCHA

a program or system intended to distinguish human from machine input, typically as a way of thwarting spam and automated extraction of data from websites

32

A certification agency validates the use of encryption between two organization's websites. How?

hypertext markup language

33

digital certificate

an electronic document used to prove ownership of a public key

34

The HIPAA security rule impacts

clinical data repository

35

The security rule only applies to

e-PHI

36

The three components of a security program

protecting the privacy of data

ensuring the integrity of data

ensuring the availability of data

37

security token

a small hardware device that the owner carries to authorize access to a network service. The device may be in the form of a smart card or may be embedded in a commonly used object such as a key fob

38

What would be an example of two-factor authentication?

password and token

39

A covered entity includes

health care providers who perform specified actions electronically

40

covered entities

(1) health plans, (2) health care clearinghouses, and (3) health care providers who electronically transmit any health information in connection with transactions for which HHS has adopted standards.

41

information system activity review

procedures to regularly review records of information of system activity, such as audit logs, access reports, and security incident tracking reports

42

What type of digital signature uses encryption?

digital signature

43

Breach notification is required unless

the probability of PHI being compromised is low

44

You have been assigned the responsibility of performing an audit to confirm that all of the workforce's access is appropriate for their role in the organization. This process is called

workforce clearance procedure

45

SWOT analysis

a study undertaken by an organization to identify its internal strengths and weaknesses, as well as its external opportunities and threats

46

Electronic protected health information (ePHI)

any protected health information that is covered under HIPAA security regulations and is produced, saved, transferred or received in an electronic form

47

cracker

an individual with extensive computer knowledge whose purpose is to breach or bypass internet security or gain access to software without paying royalties. The general view is that, while hackers build things, crackers break things.

48

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

the standard security technology for establishing an encrypted link between a web server and a browser

49

CCOW )Clinical Context Object Workgroup)

an Health Level Seven International standard protocol designed to enable disparate applications to synchronize in real time, and at the user-interface level

50

packet filter

a firewall technique used to control network access by monitoring outgoing and incoming packets and allowing them to pass or halt based on the source and destination Internet Protocol (IP) addresses, protocols and ports

51

To prevent their network from going down, a company has duplicated much of its hardware and cables. This duplication is called

redundancy

52

All patients except ______________ must be given a notice of privacy practices.

inmates

53

Who/which entity would the Privacy Act of 1974 apply to?

the federal government

54

an example of an administrative safeguard would include

training

55

what is the timeframe the facility must provide to a patient who has asked to view his medical record?

30 days

56

private key encryption

A private key is a tiny bit of code that is paired with a public key to set off algorithms for text encryption and decryption.

Public encryption uses a private and public key

57

You are reviewing your privacy and security policies, procedures, training program, and so on, and comparing them to the HIPAA and ARRA regulations. You are conducting a

risk assessment

58

Intrusion detection systems analyze

network traffic

59

Someone accessed the covered entity's electronic health record and sold the information that was accessed. This person is known as

a cracker

60

Before we can go any further with our risk analysis, we need to determine what systems/information need to be protected. This step is known as

system characterization

61

The hospital has received a request for an amendment. How long does the facility have in order to accept or deny the request?

60 days

62

Average daily census includes

adult and pediatrics, but NOT newborns

63

relative risk (formula)

RR = risk exposed divided by risk not exposed

64

The primary difference between an experimental (randomized) clinical trial and other observational study designs is that in an experimental trial, the

investigator determines who is and who is not exposed

65

sequence organizations use when collecting statistics to increase their knowledge

data → information → facts → knowledge

66

variable sampling

The process of predicting a given variable of a population through sampling.

67

convenience sampling

is made up of people who are easy to reach

68

stratified sampling

the researcher divides the population into separate groups, called strata. Then, a probability sample (often a simple random sample ) is drawn from each group.

69

systematic sampling

a type of probability sampling method in which sample members from a larger population are selected according to a random starting point and a fixed, periodic interval

70

A distribution is said to be positively skewed when the mean is

shifted to the right

71

interrater reliability

the degree of agreement among raters. It gives a score of how much homogeneity, or consensus, there is in the ratings given by judges.

72

When very long length of stay is calculated in the average length of stay, this will

result in a special cause variation in the average length of stay

73

common cause variation

fluctuation caused by unknown factors resulting in a steady but random distribution of output around the average of the data

74

special cause variation

a shift in output caused by a specific factor such as environmental conditions or process input parameters. It can be accounted for directly and potentially removed and is a measure of process control

75

case-control study model

A study that compares patients who have a disease or outcome of interest (cases) with patients who do not have the disease or outcome (controls), and looks back retrospectively to compare how frequently the exposure to a risk factor is present in each group to determine the relationship between the risk factor and the disease.

76

prospective studies

watches for outcomes, such as the development of a disease, during the study period and relates this to other factors such as suspected risk or protection factor(s). The study usually involves taking a cohort of subjects and watching them over a long period.

77

elements of negligence must be present in order to recover damages

duty of care; breach of duty of care; suffered an injury; defendant's conduct caused the plaintiff harm

78

Spoliation addresses what method of discovery?

e-discovery

79

What would be considered "best practice" for handling fax transmission of a physician's orders?

Treat faxed orders like verbal orders and require authentication of the orders by appropriate medical staff within the required period

80

One of the greatest threats to the confidentiality of health data is

disclosure of information for purposes not authorized in writing by the patient

81

A written consent from the patient is required from this entity in order to learn a patient's HIV status

insurance companies

82

In this type of facility the Privacy Act of 1974 permit patients to request amendments to their medical record

Department of Defense health care facility

83

slander

The action or crime of making a false spoken statement damaging to a person's reputation; make false and damaging statements about someone

84

defamation

the action of damaging the good reputation of someone; slander or libel

85

libel

a published false statement that is damaging to a person's reputation; a written defamation

86

perjury

the offense of willfully telling an untruth in a court after having taken an oath or affirmation

87

The legislation that required all federally funded facilities to inform patients of their rights under state law to accept or refuse medical treatment is known as

Patient Self-Determination Act

88

To be admitted into court as evidence, medical records or health information are introduced as

business records or exception to hearsay rule

89

The doctrine that the decisions of the court should stand as precedents for future guidance is

stare decisis

90

Who determines the retention period for health records?

state and federal governments

91

What health care system has to comply with the requirements of the Freedom of Information Act?

veterans' hospitals

92

When a health care facility fails to investigate the qualifications of a physician hired to work as an independent contractor in the emergency room and is accused of negligence, the health care facility can be held liable under

corporate negligence

93

corporate negligence

the legal doctrine that holds health-care facilities, such as hospitals, nursing homes and medical clinics, responsible for the well-being of patients

94

contributory negligence

failure of an injured plaintiff to act prudently, considered to be a contributory factor in the injury suffered, and sometimes reducing the amount recovered from the defendant

95

respondeat superior

"let the master answer"

a US legal doctrine which states that, in many circumstances, an employer is responsible for the actions of employees performed within the course of their employment.

96

general negligence

a failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person would exercise in like circumstances

97

tort

a wrongful act or an infringement of a right (other than under contract) leading to civil legal liability

98

A valid authorization for the disclosure of health information should not be

dated prior to discharge of the patient

99

Which type of law is constituted by rules and principles determined by legislative bodies?

statutory law

100

statutory law

the term used to define written laws, usually enacted by a legislative body

101

case law

the law as established by the outcome of former cases

102

common law

the part of law that is derived from custom and judicial precedent rather than statutes

103

administrative law

the body of law that regulates the operation and procedures of government agencies

104

The Darling v. Charleston Community Memorial Hospital case established the this doctrine for hospitals to observe and changed the way hospitals dealt with liability.

doctrine of corporate negligence

105

In what circumstance would a release of information without the patient's authorization be permissible?

release to state workers' compensation agencies

106

HIM professionals have a duty to maintain health information that complies with

federal statutes, state statutes, and accreditation standards

107

Courts have released adoption records based on

a court order for good cause

108

The minimum record retention period for patients who are minors is

age of majority plus the statute of limitations

109

Hospitals that destroy their own medical records must have a policy that

ensures records are destroyed and confidentiality is protected

110

The premise that charitable institutions could be held blameless for their negligent acts is known as

doctrine of charitable immunity

111

Substance abuse records cannot be redisclosed by a receiving facility to another health care facility unless the

patient gives written consent

112

What legal requirement would compel you to produce the original record for the court?

best evidence rule

113

best evidence rule

a legal principle that holds an original copy of a document as superior evidence

114

constitutional law

refers to rights carved out in the federal and state constitutions

115

The body of law founded on custom, natural justice and reason, and sanctioned by usage and judicial decision is known as

common law

116

doctrine of res ipsa loquitur

a doctrine that infers negligence from the very nature of an accident or injury, in the absence of direct evidence on how any defendant behaved

117

Under the RBRVS, each HCPCS/CPT code contains three components, each having assigned relative value units. These three components are

physician work, practice expense, and malpractice insurance expense

118

The category “Commercial payers” includes private health information and

employer-based group health insurers

119

Under APCs, payment status indicator "V" means

clinic or emergency department visit (medical visits)

120

What would be considered "technical" components?

radiologic technicians, radiological equipment, and radiological supplies.

121

Currently, which prospective payment system is used to determine the payment to the "physician" for physician services covered under Medicare Part B, such as outpatient surgery performed on a Medicare patient?

APCs

122

This is the amount the facility actually bills for the services it provides.

charges

123

lifetime reserve days

Original Medicare covers up to 90 days in a hospital per benefit period and offers an additional 60 days of coverage with a high coinsurance. These 60 reserve days can be used only once during your lifetime but do not have to be applied towards the same hospital stay.

124

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires the retention of health insurance claims and accounting records for a minimum of ____ years, unless state law specifies a longer period.

six

125

These are assigned to every HCPCS/CPT code under the Medicare hospital outpatient prospective payment system to identify how the service or procedure described by the code would be paid.

payment status indicator

126

This best describes the situation of a provider who agrees to accept assignment for Medicare Part B services

The provider cannot bill the patients for the balance between the MPFS amount and the total charges

127

This is the difference between what is charged and what is paid.

contractual allowance`

128

the OIG's Workplan

This document is published by the Office of Inspector General (OIG) every year. It details the OIG's focus for Medicare fraud and abuse for that year. It gives health care providers an indication of general and specific areas that are targeted for review. It can be found on the Internet on CMS's Web site.

129

Medicare Physician Fee Schedule (MPFS)

This prospective payment system replaced the Medicare physician payment system of "customary, prevailing, and reasonable (CPR)" charges whereby physicians were reimbursed according to their historical record of the charge for the provision of each service.

130

In 1987, OBRA helped shift the focus in long-term care to patient outcomes. As a result, core assessment data elements are collected on each SNF resident as defined in the

MDS

131

OBRA mandates

comprehensive functional assessments of long-term care residents using the Minimum Data Set for Long-Term Care

132

When health care providers are found guilty under any of the civil false claims statutes, the Office of Inspector General is responsible for negotiating these settlements and the provider is placed under a

Corporate Integrity Agreement

133

Corporate Integrity Agreement (CIA)

an enforcement tool used by the Office of the Inspector General (OIG) within the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), to improve the quality of health care and to promote compliance to health care regulations

134

You want to construct a data display for a frequency distribution. You will use a

frequency polygon or histogram

135

patient encounter

All cases where the EP and the patient have an actual physical encounter with the patient in which they render any service to the patient should be included in the denominator as seen by the EP.

136

analytic study design

groups of subjects are compared in order to estimate the magnitude of association between exposures and outcomes

137

descriptive study

Any study that is not truly experimental

138

The best form/graph for demonstrating trends over time would be

line graph

139

If a constant is added to all measurements within a sample

the standard deviation remains the same

140

A researcher has repeated the same study 10 times. Each time the study is repeated, the p value decreases. As the p value approaches zero, the

chance that the results are due to a sampling error decreases

141

empiricism

the theory that all knowledge is derived from sense-experience

142

inductive reasoning

a logical process in which multiple premises, all believed true or found true most of the time, are combined to obtain a specific conclusion, is often used in applications that involve prediction, forecasting, or behavior.

143

deductive reasoning

a logical process in which a conclusion is based on the concordance of multiple premises that are generally assumed to be true, is sometimes referred to as top-down logic.

144

The name given to the error committed when the null hypothesis is rejected and it is actually true is

type I error

145

type I error

the incorrect rejection of a true null hypothesis (a "false positive")

146

type II error

the failure to reject a false null hypothesis (a "false negative")

147

null hypothesis

(in a statistical test) the hypothesis that there is no significant difference between specified populations, any observed difference being due to sampling or experimental error

148

alternative hypothesis

the hypothesis to be accepted if the null hypothesis is rejected

149

selection bias

the selection of individuals, groups or data for analysis in such a way that proper randomization is not achieved, thereby ensuring that the sample obtained is not representative of the population intended to be analyzed.

150

Given a positively skewed frequency distribution

larger frequencies are concentrated at the low end of the variable

151

central tendency

the degree of clustering of the values of a statistical distribution that is usually measured by the arithmetic mean, mode, or median.

152

You have made a list of the advantages and disadvantages of a measure of central tendency.

The measure of central tendency you are describing is the

mode

153

Measurements within sample A are assumed to be more variable than measurements within sample B when

individuals within sample A differ more from one another than individuals within sample B

154

descriptive stats

a set of brief descriptive coefficients that summarizes a given data set, which can either be a representation of the entire population or a sample

155

T test

a statistical examination of two population means. examines whether two samples are different and is commonly used when the variances of two normal distributions are unknown and when an experiment uses a small sample size.

156

ANOVA

analysis of variance, a statistical method in which the variation in a set of observations is divided into distinct components

157

gross (hospital) death rate

total inpatient deaths x 100/total discharges = % death rate
Fetal deaths and outpatient deaths are not included in this calculation.

158

the direct method, bed turnover

adult and peds discharges/total adult and peds beds = % turnover

159

Twelve new cases of a certain disease occurred during the month of August. If 4,000 persons were at risk during August, then the

incidence was 3 per 1,000 persons

160

prevalence

the fact or condition of being prevalent; commonness

161

incidence

the occurrence, rate, or frequency of a disease, crime, or something else undesirable

162

Multiple births are _____ delivery

one

163

fetal deaths are counted as

deliveries

164

According to current theory in the quality management field, should concurrent data collection or retrospective data collection be utilized?

Concurrent and retrospective data collection methods are both necessary in order to effect meaningful interventions and contain costs.

165

The person or group who is overall responsible and accountable for maintaining the quality and safety of patient care is the

Board of Directors (BOD) or governing body

166

type of review in which a physician's record is reviewed by his or her professional colleagues

peer review

167

What is the best tool for differentiating between common cause variation and special cause variation?

control chart

168

To properly implement performance improvement (PI), organizations should ensure that all employees participate in an integrated, continuous PI program. This is known as ______.

shared leadership

169

Which quality management theorist focused on zero defects as the goal of performance improvement efforts?

Crosby

170

The U.S. federal government's CMS substitutes compliance of its Conditions of Participation requirements to hospitals that already have accreditation awarded by various other agencies that include the Joint Commission, CARF, AOA, or AAAHC. This is known as

deemed status

171

The FOCUS PDCA model used in performance improvement is best known for its change strategy technique of

Plan, Do, Study, Act

172

UCL (upper control limit)

A value that indicates the highest level of quality acceptable for a product or service.

173

What criterion is critical in selecting performance indicators for a health information management department?

The indicators must include the most important aspects of performance

174

affinity diagram

a tool that gathers large amounts of language data (ideas, opinions, issues) and organizes them into groupings based on their natural relationships (Viewgraph 1). The Affinity process is often used to group ideas generated by Brainstorming.

175

flowchart

a diagram of the sequence of movements or actions of people or things involved in a complex system or activity

176

What quality indicator would identify improvement needs in hospital electronic transmission of health care claims and remittances to allow interoperability with ICD-10 codes?

an increase in 5010 rejections

177

5010 rejections

HIPAA form/rejections

178

Your hospital is required by the Joint Commission and CMS to participate in national benchmarking on specific disease entities for quality of care measurement. This required collection and reporting of disease-specific data is considered

a series of core measures

179

core measures

standardized best practices designed to improve patient care

180

clinical pertinence review

a retrospective review of patient medical records to ensure proper documentation

181

The Recovery Audit Contractor (RAC) program was developed to identify and reduce improper payments for

Medicare claims

182

What feature is a trademark of an effective PI program?

a continuous cycle of improvement projects over time

183

The type of indicator about the placement and number of fire extinguishers would be a(n)

structure

184

The manager of the utilization review department wants to monitor and evaluate the prevention of inappropriate admissions. When would the manager need to collect data?

prospective review

185

When the policy and procedures manual no longer reflect current practices, it creates a situation that becomes a risk management issue because

policy and procedures should represent the normal course of business

186

If administrators of a home health agency wanted to measure the outcomes of adult patients receiving their agency's services, which tool would they use?

OASIS

187

Which data bank is a result of HIPAA legislation?

Health Care Integrity and Protection Data Bank

188

The responsibility for performing quality monitoring and evaluation activities in a departmentalized hospital is delegated to the

clinical chairpersons of medical staff committees or ancillary department directors

189

Most acute care facilities use this type of screening criteria for utilization review purposes to determine the need for inpatient services and justification for continued stay

severity of illness/intensity of service criteria (SI/IS)

190

The quality review process of invasive and noninvasive procedures to ensure performance of appropriate procedure, preparation of patient, monitoring and postoperative care, and education of patient describes

surgical review

191

nominal group technique

a group process involving problem identification, solution generation, and decision making

192

Which quality management theorist believed that merit raises, formal evaluations, and quotas established through benchmarking hinder worker productivity and growth?

W. Edwards Deming

193

What quality indicator would identify improvement needs in hospital electronic transmission of health care claims and remittances to allow interoperability with ICD-10 codes?

an increase in 5010 rejections

194

The Joint Commission on-site survey process incorporates tracer methodology, which emphasizes surveyor review by means of

both system tracers and patient tracers

195

Storyboards are a method used in health care that

graphically display a performance improvement project conducted

196

The medical malpractice crisis of the 1970s prompted the development of _____________________ in health care facilities.

risk management

197

The primary advantage of concurrent quality data collection is that

chart completion issues can be remedied promptly

198

The Joint Commission's emphasis on improving quality of patient care for a participating facility is exemplary through the required self-assessment process tool known as

intracycle monitoring

199

intracycle monitoring

helps organizations with their continuous standards compliance efforts. Every accredited organization has access to an ICM Profile, an online workspace on The Joint Commission Connect extranet.

200

real-time analytics

the use of, or the capacity to use, all available enterprise data and resources when they are needed. It consists of dynamic analysis and reporting, based on data entered into a system less than one minute before the actual time of use.

201

focused standards asessment

provides organizations with an easy-to-use, interactive standards self-assessment scoring tool and is located within the ICM Profile

202

total quality management (TQM)

A management approach to long–term success through customer satisfaction. All members of an organization participate in improving processes, products, services, and the culture in which they work.

203

What feature distinguishes the Nominal Group Technique (NGT) from brainstorming?

NGT determines the importance of responses through a rating system

204

What quality improvement (QI) tool uses criteria to weigh different alternatives? This display would assist in viewing all relevant information at the same time.

a decision matrix

205

PDSA

Plan-Do-Study-Act

206

PDSA method

a “trial-and-learning” method to test changes quickly to see how they work

207

The U.S. federal government's CMS substitutes compliance of its Conditions of Participation requirements to hospitals that already have accreditation awarded by various other agencies that include the Joint Commission, CARF, AOA, or AAAHC. This is known as

deemed status

208

The process of reviewing and validating qualifications, granting professional or medical staff membership, and awarding delineated privileges is called the _____.

credentialing

209
card image

What is this chart:

affinity diagram

210
card image

What is this chart:

arrow diagram

211
card image

What is this chart:

bar chart

212
card image

What is this chart:

cause-and-effect diagram

213
card image

What is this chart:

checksheet

214
card image

What is this chart:

control chart

215
card image

What is this chart:

decision matrix

216
card image

What is this chart:

line chart

217
card image

What is this chart:

Pareto chart

218
card image

What is this chart:

run chart

219
card image

What is this chart:

scatter diagram

220

The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, the Americans with Disability Act, and the Vocational Rehabilitation Act are all federal legislation designed to

keep the workplace safe and accessible to all employees and customers

221

"Qualified employees should be given priority when vacancies within the organization occur" is an example of

a policy of the organization

222

when setting productivity levels, a supervisor must

determine the productivity standards for each area and job function

223

A job analysis includes the

collection of data to determine the content of a job

224

A rule

predecides issues

225

Personal experience is

subjective

226

first trimester

week 1 through week 12

227

second trimester

week 13 to week 27

228

third trimester

week 28 to the birth

229

In project management, the series of specific tasks that determine the overall project duration is referred to as

critical path

230

project network

is always drawn from left to right to reflect project chronology

231

The formalized road map that describes how your institution executes the chosen strategy defines

strategic planning

232

the Wagner Act

The National Labor Relations Act (NLRA), which serves as the foundation for U.S. labor laws and collective bargaining

233

Strong lateral relationships within a facility are most likely when

individual departments cooperate together to achieve organizational goals

234

storytelling

a tool for strategic thinking

235

executive dashboard

a manager's version of a pilot's cockpit that contains all the critical information for leading the organization

236

payback period (formula)

initial investment/annual cash flow

237

Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act

An amendment to the Civil Rights Act of 1964 that extends the 180-day statute of limitations previously applied to the filing of an equal-pay lawsuit

238

unity of command

an employee is responsible to only one supervisor, who in turn is responsible to only one supervisor, and so on up the organizational hierarchy

239

grievance procedure

a means of dispute resolution that can be used by a company to address complaints by employees, suppliers, customers, and/or competitors

240

span of control

the area of activity or number of functions, people, or things for which an individual or organization is responsible

241

organizational function

an organization's reporting relationships are grouped based on specialty, or functional area

242

replacement chart

a forecasting technique used in succession planning to help companies visualise key job roles, current employees and existing and future vacancies. Positions are mapped alongside information such as potential replacements, gender and promotion potential.

243

A basic concept of office layout and workflow is that the

paper moves to the employee

244

strategic plans

Written documents that assist an organization in achieving its objectives and carrying out its mission statement

245

calculate the minimum number of FTEs for transcription (formula)

lines per day X workdays per month / lines transcribed per month

246

cost per line (formula)

total hours worked X hourly cost / lines per month

247

The span of control in an organization refers to the

number of people who report to one supervisor

248

information governance

An initiative that focuses on the view that data as a strategic asset needs to be protected and accounted for across all levels of the health care enterprise

249

percentage of cost variance (formula)

budgeted expense – actual expense = ?
? X 100 / budgeted expense

250

­A job analysis includes the

collection of data to determine the content of a job

251

Maslow's hierarchy of needs

From bottom up on the pyramid: "physiological", "safety", "belongingness/love", "esteem", "self-actualization",

252

Love and belongingness needs

friendship, intimacy, affection and love, - from work group, family, friends, romantic relationships.

253

Biological and Physiological needs

air, food, drink, shelter, warmth, sex, sleep

254

Safety needs

protection from elements, security, order, law, stability, freedom from fear

255

Esteem needs

achievement, mastery, independence, status, dominance, prestige, self-respect, respect from others

256

Self-Actualization needs

realizing personal potential, self-fulfillment, seeking personal growth and peak experiences

257

percentage of time was spent on coding (formula)

Remember to convert the hours to minutes!

Charts coded X minutes per chart = ? minutes coding

Hours worked X 60 minutes = ? minutes worked

Minutes coding / minutes worked = % spent on coding

258

sequence of steps most effective in order to improve efficiency and productivity

Know the objective

break down the work into component activities

group activities into proper organizational units

259

job grading

a systematic way of determining the value/worth of a job in relation to other jobs in an organization

260

factor comparison

A scientific method designed to rank job roles based on a breakdown of factors rather than the role as a whole. The ultimate goal is to assign the relative parts of each job role a financial value i.e. the amount of compensation offered for that part of the role.

261

job ranking

jobs are arranged in order of their value or merit to the organization

262

The MDS is designed for use in

long-term care facilities

263

APCs, payment status indicator "T" means

significant procedure, multiple procedure reduction applies.

264

in-service

(of training) intended for those actively engaged in the profession or activity concerned.

265

information system analysis phases

the health information managers primary goal is to provide a system that meets user or department needs and that also supports the strategic objectives of the enterprise including current and emerging privacy and security concerns

266

initiation IS life cycle

is the method through which organizations make decisions to invest in particular information systems

267

implementation IS life cycle

involves making the system operational in the organization

268

operations IS life cycle

personnel (clinical and administrative) who use the systems grow dependent on them to do their jobs. (It is running well and meeting the needs of the department.)

269

What type of system would be purchased to provide information on the census, update the master patient index, and distribute demographic data?

executive information system

270

The patient has the right to control access to his or her health information. This is known as

privacy

271

scope creep

in project management refers to uncontrolled changes or continuous growth in a project's scope. This can occur when the scopeof a project is not properly defined, documented, or controlled. It is generally considered harmful.

272

ombudsman

an official appointed to investigate individuals' complaints against maladministration, especially that of public authorities

273

Donabedian's framework

structure, process, and outcome

274

nuchal rigidity

impaired neck flexion resulting from muscle spasm (not actual rigidity) of the extensor muscles of the neck; usually attributed to meningeal irritation

275

Human Resources use a systematic procedure to determine the relative worth of a position to the organization. When this approach is used, compensation for the position is most likely based on

job evaluation

276

root cause analysis

fishbone diagram

277

Fulguration of anal warts. Identify the approach.

External

278

The most important consideration in planning the office layout for a Health Information Services department is the

workflow

279

Spinal fusion cervical C1-C2 (root operation)

Fusion

280

In statistics, the notation "ΣXY" means

multiplied each pair of the X and Y scores, then summed their values

281

Removal of a foreign body right external auditory canal (root operation)

Extirpation

282

Angioplasty abdominal iliac artery (root operation)

Dilation

283

forming stage

The stage of group development when the team discusses its purpose, defines and assigns tasks, establishes timelines, and begins forming personal relationships.

284

storming stage

The stage of group development when the team clarifies its goals and its strategy for achieving them (often-contentious).

285

norming stage

The stage of group development when the team establishes its values for how individuals will interact and collaborate.

286

performing stage

The stage of group development when team members have productive relationships and are able to communicate and coordinate effectively and efficiently.

287

The Phalen's wrist flexor test is a noninvasive method for diagnosing

carpal tunnel syndrome

288

Radiology codes would be used for

the supervision and interpretation

289

What federal legislation passed in 1986 gave immunity from legal action to practitioners regarding some peer review process activities?

Healthcare Quality Improvement Act

290

Colon polyp fulguration (root operation)

Destruction

291

myelomeningocele

a congenital condition that is the most severe neural tube defect

292

An area identified for needed improvement through benchmarking and continuous quality improvement is known as a

key performance indicator

293

Percutaneous placement of pacemaker lead. Identify the approach.

Percutaneous

294

Stopping of postoperative tonsillectomy hemorrhaging is coded to which root operation?

Control

295

Which endocrine gland secretes epinephrine, which activates the “fight or flight” response and increases blood pressure and metabolism?

adrenal medulla

296

Needlesticks, patient or employee falls, medication errors, or any event not consistent with routine patient care activities would require risk reporting documentation in the form of an

incident report

297

Excision gallbladder (root operation)

Resection

298

A major disadvantage of cross-sectional studies is that

the time sequence of exposure and disease is usually not known

299

Removal deep left vein thrombosis (root operation)

Extirpation

300

A histogram is a valuable tool for representing

a frequency distribution with continuous-interval data

301

delineation of privileges

(Physician credentialing) those specific services and procedures that a physician is deemed qualified to provide or perform

302

The Director of a Health Information Department prepared a document in which the following information could be obtained: job title, reporting line, span of control, and routes of promotion. The document she was preparing was a(n)

organizational chart

303

An elevated serum amylase would be characteristic of

acute pancreatitis

304

A complete redo of a knee replacement requiring a new prosthesis is coded to which root operation(s)?

Removal, Replacement

305

What process is mandatory for health care facilities?

licensure

306

With the passage of Medicare (Title XVIII of the Social Security Act) in 1965, what function became mandatory?

utilization review

307

The PQRS is a reporting system established by the federal government for physician practices who participate in Medicare for

quality measure reporting

308

PQRS

Physician Quality Reporting System

309

Dilation of the ureter with insertion of a stent is coded to which root operation?

Insertion

310

cross-sectional or prevalence studies are known for

concurrently describing characteristics and health outcomes at one specific point in time

311

The standard deviation of a particular set of measures was found to be 20.00. The sample variance would then be:

400

312

Diabetic microvascular disease occurs

as a direct result of elevated serum glucose

313

cells produce histamine in a type I hypersensitivity reaction

mast cells

314

Which type of joint, such as the sutures of the skull, has no movement?

synarthrosis

315

Percutaneous needle biopsy left lung (root operation)

Excision

316

In the Medical Surgical Section, the seventh character position represents?

Qualifier

317

Lithotripsy left ureter with removal of fragment (root operation)

Extirpation

318

ERCP. Identify the approach.

Endoscopic

319

ERCP

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

320

Scabies, a highly contagious condition that produces intense pruritus and a rash, is caused by

itch mites

321

The most fatal type of lung cancer is

small cell cancer

322

Ligation right fallopian tube (root operation)

Occlusion

323

ESWL left ureter. Identify the approach.

External

324

ESWL

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy

325

EGD

esophagogastroduodenoscopy

326

scalar

(of a quantity) having only magnitude, not direction. a scalar quantity.

327

chain of command principle

(sometimes called the scaler chain) is the formal line of authority, communication, and responsibility within an organization. The chain of command is usually depicted on an organizational chart.

328

According to Frederick Herzberg, challenging work, recognition of workers and their accomplishments, and employee self-improvement are examples of

motivators

329

Removal cardiac pacemaker (root operation)

Removal

330

What method of performance appraisal requires the supervisor to document exceptional behavior by the employee?

Critical Incident Method

331

Creation of arteriovenous graft brachial artery left arm for hemodialysis (root operation)

Insertion

332

The Six Sigma methodology differs from other quality improvement models by defining improvement opportunities using

critical quality tree

333

The credentialing process requires healthcare facilities to

watch the provider perform surgery

334

What process assists a health care facility in continuously looking at the ways that problems develop and seeking ways to prevent problems from happening in the future?

performance improvement

335

incumbent

necessary for (someone) as a duty or responsibility

336

Iatrogenic

of or relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment

337

Staging

is a system for documenting the extent or spread of cancer

338

The special form or view that plays the central role in planning and providing care at skilled nursing, psychiatric, and rehabilitation facilities is the

interdisciplinary patient care plan

339

Release of information has increased its use of part-time prn clerical support in order to respond to increased requests for release of information. The budget variance report will reflect

the increase in the cost of part-time clerical support for ROI but not the increase in revenue from this area

340

RHIO

regional health information organization

341

regional health information organization (RHIO)

a type of health information exchange organization (HIO) that brings together health care stakeholders within a defined geographic area and governs health information exchange among them for the purpose of improving health and care in that community.

342

The purpose of a Health Information Exchange (HIE) is to

improve health care delivery and information gathering

343

A _________uses a private tunnel through the Internet as a transport medium between locations for secure access and transmission.

VPN

344

Authentication is one of the components necessary to produce a legal document in an EHR. This means

identifying who created a document and when

345

An effective means of protecting the security of computerized health information would be to

develop clear policies on data security that are supported by the top management of the facility

346

In order to prevent the accidental introduction of a virus into your facility's local area network, your facility has a policy that strictly prohibits

downloading executable files from electronic bulletin boards

347

RFP

request for proposal

348

The decision makers in the HIM department have decided to use the decision analysis matrix method to select coding software. Use of this method will help ensure

consistent criteria are used to evaluate the alternatives/vendors

349

A section of a job description states that the incumbent will handle day-to-day operations in the transcription and release of information areas. This section defines the

scope of responsibility in the job

350

You are calculating the fee schedule payment amount for physician services covered under Medicare Part B. You already have the relative value unit figure. The only other information you need is

a national conversion factor

351

Down syndrome, Edwards' syndrome, and Patau's syndrome are all examples of __________defects.

chromosomal

352

In your state, it is legal for minors to seek medical treatment for a sexually transmitted disease without parental consent. When this occurs, who would be expected to authorize the release of the medical information documented in this episode of care to the patient's insurers?

the patient

353

WORM technology

a data storage technology that allows information to be written to a disc a single time and prevents the drive from erasing the data

354

WORM

write once, read many

355

the primary consideration when making retention decisions must be

statutory requirements

356

Identification of threats and vulnerabilities, security measures, and implementation priorities are part of a health care organization's

risk management plan

357

What condition is always considered "present on admission" (POA)?

congenital conditions

358

You have been asked to reduce your department's operating budget by 20%. In order to do so, you will have to effect reductions in your largest budget line. You will have to make cuts in

personnel

359

The coding supervisor tends to deal with issues as they come up, prioritizing only when problems are pressing or appear to be important to upper management. This crisis manager is particularly weak in which management function?

planning

360

The transcriptionists have collected data on the number and types of problems with the dictation equipment. The best tool to display the data they collected is a

Pareto chart

361

A union campaign is being conducted at your facility. As a department manager, it is appropriate for you to tell employees that

you are opposed to the union

362

A common goal of the Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology, RHIOs, and a national infrastructure for information is

sharing information among providers

363

Health information exchange is a term used to refer to a

"plan in which health information is shared among providers."

364

Your HIM department is moving to a new location and in order to arrange your employees and functions for optimal work flow efficiency and to decide which employees need to be placed close to each other, the tool you decide to use is a

flow process chart

365

In reviewing the policies on release of information in respect to the privacy rules, you note that it is still acceptable to allow release of protected health information without patient permission to

the quality assurance committee for review purposes

366

The purpose of the Correct Coding Initiative is to

detect and prevent payment for improperly coded services

367

A run or line chart would be most useful for collecting data on

waiting time in the Pediatrics Clinic

368

E-mails and text messages are

considered health care business records and are subject to the same regulations as records created in face-to-face patient encounters

369

Critical to implementations and project success, the WBS

lists steps needed to complete the project

370

Evidence-based management and decision making is an emerging model now used to make more informed decisions. The premise of this model is

using the best clinical and research practices available

371

Community Hospital reported an average LOS in December of 3.7 days with a standard deviation of 23. This information indicates that

there was a large variation in the LOS at Community Hospital

372

PACS

Picture archiving and communication systems

373

Access to radiologic images has been improved through the use of

PACS

374

Picture archiving and communication systems (PACS) provide

a means to store and rapidly access digitized file images

375

The committee that is preparing your acute care hospital for an electronic health record is planning for an imaging system for record archiving in the immediate future. They are looking for a solution for data interfacing or integration of the imaging system into other computer systems. You recommend

Health Level 7 standards.

376

A patient has written to request a copy of his own record. When the clerk checked the record, it was noted that the patient was last admitted to the psychiatric unit of the facility. You advise the clerk to

contact the patient's attending physician before complying.

377

A p value of less than 0.05 is what researchers commonly use to reject the null hypothesis. A smaller p value may place interpretation of the results of the study at risk for a

sampling error

378

Joanie Howell presents to Dr. Franklin requesting rhinoplasty. Because Howell is covered by Medicare, Dr. Franklin must provide Howell with

an Advance Beneficiary Notice, because Howell's rhinoplasty may not be medically necessary

379

The protocol that allows a browser to connect to a server and authenticate identities for data transfer is known as a(n) ____________ connection.

secure socket layer

380

Generally, CMS requires the submission of a claim (CMS 1450) for inpatient services provided to a Medicare beneficiary for inpatient services. An exception to this requirement would be when

the beneficiary refuses to authorize the submission of a bill to Medicare

381

According to CPT, a biopsy of the breast that involves removal of only a portion of the lesion for pathologic examination is

incisional

382

a checklist for assessing an obstetric patient's lochia, fundus, and perineum would be on what type of document

postpartum record

383

The discharge diagnosis for this inpatient encounter is rule out myocardial infarction. The coder would assign

a code for a myocardial infarction

384

A piece of objective data collected upon initial assessment of the patient is the

vital signs

385

A major key to forms control in this setting is

giving each form or view an identifiable name, number, and revision date

386

As part of a team responsible for revenue analysis at your facility, you recommend a yearly review of

the OIG Workplan

387

compression fracture of the vertebrae as a result of bone metastasis

a pathologic fracture

388

A technique that uncovers new information from existing information by probing data sets is known as

data mining

389

The 2014 AHIMA Foundation's “Clinical Documentation Improvement Job Description Summative Report” identified that most Clinical Documentation Improvement Specialists report directly to the

HIM Department

390

The use of "public" and "private" keys is part of what type of data protection?

Encryption

391

The CFO of your facility asks you to prepare a budget for the fiscal year based on the past volume and expected capacity for the coming year. This process is an example of using the "_____________" budgeting method.

fixed budget

392

Reference checks are conducted on potential employees to help assess the applicant's fit with the position and also to

confirm the accuracy of information provided on the application

393

ORYX is a program that was developed by

Joint Commission to link patient outcomes to accreditation

394

The most sophisticated level of interoperability of an EHR and other such systems is the ______________ level.

semantic

395

define the Global Surgical Package

all necessary services normally furnished by a surgeon before, during, and after a procedure defined by Medicare.

396

DME / HME

home medical equipment (HME) / durable medical equipment (DME)

397

ER physician performs an LP and orders a CSF analysis with a bacterial culture and sensitivity. The physician is attempting to comfirm a diagnosis of

meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid.

398

Which department will most likely be responsible for taking corrective action regarding the number of insurance claims requiring resubmission due to errors (not related to coding) not exceeding 3%?

Business Office

399

root cause analysis

a method of problem solving used for identifying the root causes of faults or problems and is reportable to the Joint Commission

400

To ensure consistency of coverage among trainers, you may want to develop

training manuals

401

In statistics, the notation "ΣXY" means

multiplied each pair of the X and Y scores, then summed their values

402

Information Governance

the activities and technologies that organizations employ to maximize the value of their information while minimizing associated risks and costs.

403

information governance initiative

a cross-disciplinary consortium and think tank dedicated to advancing the adoption of information governance practices and technologies through research, publishing, advocacy and peer-to-peer networking.

404

What is the stage where teams may experience disequilibrium?

storming

405

delineation of privileges

specific services and procedures that a physician is deemed qualified to provide or perform

406

When a physician orders a liver panel, what tests would be included?

albumin, bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase

407

pulmonary angiography

Pulmonary blood vessels are x-rayed to detect arteriovenous malformations.

408

Direct angiography

the injection of radiocontrast into the circulation with subsequent fluoroscopy (direct X-ray visualisation) of the lungs

409

lung scan

a nuclear scanning test that is most commonly used to detect a blood clot that is preventing normal blood flow to part of a lung (pulmonary embolism)

410

Staging

the progression of cancer

411

RFP

request for proposal

412

What system might an HIM Director most likely recommend in the early stages of the project as a transition strategy for having the entire health record content recorded in discrete form within the next 10 years?

electronic document management system

413

A final progress note is an appropriate discharge summary for

the delivery a healthy 8-pound baby without complications for either mother or child, and both discharged within 36 hours of admission

414

A surgical operation is

one or more surgical procedures performed at one time for one patient using a common approach or for a common purpose

415

A patient is admitted through the emergency department. Three days after admission, the physician documents uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. What is the "present on admission" (POA) indicator for uncontrolled diabetes mellitus?

"N"

416

respondeat superior

"let the master answer"

a US legal doctrine which states that, in many circumstances, an employer is responsible for the actions of employees performed within the course of their employment.

417

WBS

work breakdown structure

418

work breakdown structure (WBS)

a chart in which the critical work elements, called tasks, of a project are illustrated to portray their relationships to each other and to the project as a whole.

419

S-subjective

records what the patient states is the problem

420

O-objective

records what the practitioner identifies through history, physical examination, and diagnostic tests

421

A-assessment

combines the subjective and objective into a conclusion

422

P-plan

what approach is going to be taken to resolve the problem

423

ABN

Advance Beneficiary Notice

424

Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)

also known as a waiver of liability

a notice you should receive when a provider or supplier offers you a service or item they believe Medicare will not cover. ABNs only apply if you have Original Medicare, not if you are in a Medicare Advantage private health plan.

425

Generally, CMS requires the submission of a claim (CMS 1450) for inpatient services provided to a Medicare beneficiary for inpatient services. An exception to this requirement would be when

the beneficiary refuses to authorize the submission of a bill to Medicare

426

CMS 1500

Health Insurance Claim Form

427

CMS 1450

(aka UB-04 at present)

can be used by an institutional provider to bill a Medicare fiscal intermediary (FI) when a provider qualifies for a waiver from the Administrative Simplification Compliance Act (ASCA) requirement for electronic submission of claims. It is also used for billing of institutional charges to most Medicaid State Agencies.

428

an obstetric patient's lochia, fundus, and perineum may be found on what document?

postpartum record

429

As the Information Security Officer at your facility, you have been asked to provide examples of technical security safeguards adopted as a result of HIPAA legislation. Which of the following would you provide?

surge protectors

430

You are conducting an educational session on benchmarking. You tell your audience that the key to benchmarking is to use the comparison to

improve your department's processes

431

The most sophisticated level of interoperability of an EHR and other such systems is the ______________ level.

semantic

432

PDSA cycle

is shorthand for testing a change—by planning it, trying it, observing the results, and acting on what is learned.

433

You are implementing a quality improvement plan that utilizes the PDSA cycle. If you correctly implement PDSA, which phase of the project will take the most of your time?

P-planning

434

The EHR system implementation team is using simulated patients and simulated patient information to add progress notes, nurses' notes, and so on, to the EHR prior to implementation. Which system development life cycle phase is the team involved in?

analysis

435

What Web 2.0 technology would you recommend for someone who wants to share their battle with cancer?

a blog

436

Your facility has decided to implement the new laboratory information system on one unit and then add more units as your confidence in the system grows. What go-live model are you using?

pilot

437

You need a system that will work with your existing system but not necessarily from the same vendor. What type of system are you looking for?

interfaced

438

What type of system would be purchased to provide information on the census, update the master patient index, and distribute demographic data?

executive information system

439

You have been asked to develop scenarios that will be used to design and program a new release of information system. These scenarios will include the processes to be used in detail. What are you designing?

use cases

440

The patient has the right to control access to his or her health information. This is known as

privacy

441

A record destruction program should include

the method of destruction

442

2 techniques a facility would employ for access control

automatic logoff and unique user identification

443

You are defining the designated record set for South Beach Healthcare Center. What would be included?

discharge summary

444

Mountain Hospital has discovered a security breach. Someone hacked into the system and viewed 50 medical records. According to ARRA, what is the responsibility of the covered entity?

All individuals must be notified within 60 days.

445

The information system has just notified you that someone has attempted to access the system inappropriately. This process is known as

intrusion detection

446

an example of administrative safeguards under the security rule would be

monitoring the computer access activity of the user

447

The police came to the HIM Department today and asked that a patient's right to an accounting of disclosure be suspended for two months. What is the proper response to this request?

"Certainly officer. We will be glad to do that as soon as we have the request in writing."

448

To prevent their network from going down, a company has duplicated much of its hardware and cables. This duplication is called

redundancy

449

HIPAA states that release to a coroner is allowed. State law says that the coroner must provide a subpoena.

Follow the state law since it is stricter.

450

the Privacy Act of 1974 applies to the

federal government

451

an example of an administrative safeguard would be

training

452

Richard has asked to view his medical record. Within what timeframe must the facility provide this record to him?

30 days

453

You are reviewing your privacy and security policies, procedures, training program, and so on, and comparing them to the HIPAA and ARRA regulations. You are conducting a

risk assessment

454

Your department was unable to provide a patient with a copy of his record within the 30-day limitation. What should you do?

Write the patient and tell him that you will need a 30-day extension.

455

A patient signed an authorization to release information to a physician but decided not to go see that physician. Can he stop the release?

Yes, as long has it has not been released already

456

Miles has asked you to explain the rights he has via HIPAA privacy standards. What is one of his HIPAA-given rights?

He can ask to be contacted at an alternative site.

457

Before we can go any further with our risk analysis, we need to determine what systems/information need to be protected. This step is known as

system characterization

458

The hospital has received a request for an amendment. How long does the facility have in order to accept or deny the request?

60 days

459

The main layers of the epidermis

stratum corneum

stratum lucidium

stratum granulosm

stratum spinosum

stratum germinativum (aka stratum basale)

460

How can Graves' disease be treated?

radioactive iodine therapy, antithyroid drugs, and surgery

461

When a decubitus ulcer has progressed to a stage in which osteomyelitis is present, the ulcer has extended to the

bone

462

United States healthcare providers are concerned about a possible pandemic of avian flu because

there is no vaccine currently available, it is caused by a group of viruses that mutate very easily, and the causative virus is being spread around the world by migratory birds.

463

Clinical manifestations of this disease include polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weight loss, and hyperglycemia. What test(s) would be ordered to confirm the disease?

glucose tolerance test

464

Henrietta Dawson presents with a chief complaint of pain and weakness in her arms and neck. After an H and P and a review of diagnostic tests that include a myelogram, her doctor diagnoses a herniated nucleus pulposus at the _________ level of her spine.

cervical

465

A physician prescribes a diuretic for his patient. He could be treating

congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema, or mitral stenosis.

466

unity of command

an employee is responsible to only one supervisor, who in turn is responsible to only one supervisor, and so on up the organizational hierarchy

467

Research has shown that productivity increases when

employees are rewarded for extra output, it becomes the primary goal of management, and it is measured.

468

Employers may be able to demonstrate that age is a reasonable requirement for a position. Such an exception to the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) is called a

bona fide occupational qualification

469

As a new RHIA and coding manager, how likely is it that you will participate on committees?

Occasionally, mostly with your staff.

470

Which appraisal method places the employees into a set of ordered groups (e.g., top 10%, above average 20%, middle 40%) on the basis of a global measure?

forced ranking

471

The teaching method selected by an instructor influences the student's ability to understand the material. Instructor-led classrooms work best when

in-depth training and interaction are desired.

472

Under the Immigration Reform and Control Act

applicant must have I-9 documentation, noncitizens may not be discriminated against, and undocumented workers may not be hired

473

Mission Health Systems has contracted with an agency to conduct recruitment and screening of potential candidates. This approach is called

outsourcing

474

The term "hard coding" refers to

HCPCS/CPT codes that appear in the hospital's chargemaster and will be included automatically on the patient's bill.

475

The Correct Coding Initiative (CCI) edits contain a listing of codes under two columns titled "comprehensive codes" and "component codes." According to the CCI edits, when a provider bills Medicare for a procedure that appears in both columns for the same beneficiary on the same date of service code

only the comprehensive code

476

Under Medicare Part B

collections are restricted to only the deductible and coinsurance due at the time of service on an assigned claim.

fees are restricted to charging no more than the "limiting charge" on nonassigned claims.

providers must file all Medicare claims.

477

The _______________ is a statement sent to the provider to explain payments made by third-party payers.

remittance advice

478

What type of filing system is being used if records are filed in the following order: 12-23-75, 12-34-29, 12-35-71, 13-42-14, and 14-32-79?

straight numeric

479

In a terminal digit filing system, what would be the record number immediately in front of record number 01-06-26?

00-06-26

480

Some advantages of a computerized master patient index are

it solves most space and retrieval problems

it allows access to data alphabetically, phonetically, or by date of birth, social security number, medical record, or billing number

it provides other departments with immediate access to the information maintained in the master patient index.

481

Lewis-Beck Medical Center has been collecting data on patient satisfaction for six months. It is ready to start retrieving data from the database to improve clinical services. Which tool should be used?

SQL

482

What would be the most cost-effective and prudent course of action for the storage or disposition of 250,000 records at a large teaching and research hospital?

scanning all 250,000 records for a cost of $195,000

483

A health information manager develops a formal plan or record retention schedule for the automatic transfer of records to inactive storage and potential destruction based on

volume of research, statute of limitations, and readmission rate

484

University Hospital, a 900-bed tertiary health care organization, is undergoing an information systems development. What system would best meet its needs?

Application service provider model

485

A file area has limited space, medium file activity, and two file clerks. The HIM department would benefit from choosing which type of storage equipment?

compressible filing units

486

The hospital administrator is making a strategic decision by querying various institutional databases for information. What type of system is the hospital administrator using?

executive information system

487

Case finding methods for patients with diabetes include a review of

medication lists

billing data

health plans

488

The master patient index must, at a minimum, include sufficient information to

uniquely identify the patient

489

an advantage of straight numeric filing over terminal digit filing

The training period is short

490

For a health care facility to meet its document destruction needs, the certificate of destruction should include

location of destruction, unique and serialized transaction number, and acceptance of fiduciary responsibility

491

A health care facility has made a decision to destroy computerized data. AHIMA recommends what as the preferred method of destruction for computerized data?

magnetic degaussing

492

Color coding of record folders is used to assist in the control of

misfiles

493

Factors to consider when developing a record retention program include

cost of space to maintain paper records, legal requirements as determined by statute of limitations, and record usage in the facility determined by health care provider activity

494

Strategies when purchasing an electronic health record system include

identify system requirements, recognize stakeholders from different organizational levels and engage them appropriately, and determine return on investment or cost-benefit analysis.

495

What data cannot be retrieved from the MEDPAR?

Non-Medicare patient data

496

When evaluating an outside contract microfilm company, important factors to rate would include

cost, emergency returns, and storage after filming

497

data retrieval tools

sound

icons

color

498

In your facility, the health care providers from every discipline document progress notes sequentially on the same form. Your facility is utilizing

integrated progress notes

499

You try to convince the entire health care team to consistently enter data into the patient's record at the time and location of service instead of waiting for retrospective analysis to alert them to complete the record. You are proposing

point-of-care documentation

500

Which of the four distinct components of the problem-oriented record serves to help index documentation throughout the record?

problem list

501

The foundation for communicating all patient care goals in long-term care settings is the

interdisciplinary plan of care

502

You notice on the admission H&P that Mr. McKahan, a Medicare patient, was admitted for disc surgery, but the progress notes indicate that due to some heart irregularities, he may not be a good surgical risk. Because of your knowledge of COP regulations, you expect that a _______________ will be added to his health record.

consultation report

503

As a new HIM manager of an acute care facility, you have been asked to update the facility's policy for a physician's verbal orders in accordance with Joint Commission standards and state law. Your first area of concern is the qualifications of those individuals in your facility who have been authorized to record verbal orders. For this information, you will consult the

Hospital Bylaws, Rules, and Regulations

504

The first patient with cancer seen in your facility on January 1, 2015, was diagnosed with colon cancer with no known history of previous malignancies. The accession number assigned to this patient is

15-0001/00

505

Gerda Smith has presented to the ER in a coma with injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. According to her sister, Gerda has had a recent medical history taken at the public health department. The physician on call is grateful that she can access this patient information using the area's

RHIO

506

In determining your acute care facility's degree of compliance with prospective payment requirements for Medicare, the best resource to reference for recent certification standards is the

Federal Register

507

Data reliability implies

that data are consistent no matter how many times the same data are collected and entered into the system

508

Accessibility implies

that data are available to authorized people when and where needed

509

Legibility implies

data that are readable

510

Completeness implies

that all required data are present in the information system

511

Data comprehensiveness

refers specifically to the presence of all required data elements

512

Quantitative analysis involves

checking for the presence or absence of necessary reports and/or signatures

513

Qualitative analysis may involve

checking documentation consistency, such as comparing a patient's pharmacy drug profile with the medication administration record

514

Data Elements for Emergency Departments

recommended data set for hospital-based emergency departments

515

Uniform Hospital Data Set

required data set for acute care hospitals

516

Minimum Data Set

required data set for long-term care facilities

517

ORYX

an initiative of Joint Commission whereby five core measures are implemented to improve safety and quality of health care

518

Data accuracy denotes that

data are correct values

519

Data comprehensiveness denotes that

all data items are included

520

Data granularity denotes that

the attributes and values of data should be defined at the correct level of detail

521

Data precision denotes that

data values should be just large enough to support the application of process

522

Time and means of arrival is required on

ED records only

523

Evidence of known advance directive is required on

inpatient records only

524

Problem list is required on

ambulatory records by the third visit

525

One record documentation requirement shared by BOTH acute care and emergency departments is

patient's condition on discharge

526

The Minimum Data Set is a basic component of the

long-term care RAI

527

UHDDS is used in

acute care

528

OASIS is used in

home health

529

DEEDS is used in

emergency departments

530

The federally mandated resident assessment instrument used in long-term care facilities consists of three basic components, including the new care area assessment, utilization guidelines, and the

MDS

531

In creating a new form or computer view, the designer should be most driven by

needs of the users

532

Managers are

Held responsible for handling the organization’s resources

533

The practice of management is

Influenced by the context of the organization

534

Systems thinking

Is an objective way of looking at ideas and processes

535

A graphic representation of the organization’s formal structure is called

An organizational chart

536

The mission statement

Is updated regularly as part of the strategic planning process

537

Supervisory managers are primarily responsible for

Monitoring everyday performance

538

Developing, implementing, and revising the organization’s policies is the role of

Middle managers

539

Ultimate responsibility for the operation of healthcare organizations lies with

The board of directors

540

Planning, organizing, controlling, decision making, and leadership are the functions of

Management

541

Strategic planning is primarily concerned with

How the organization will respond to changes in the environment

542

Within an organization it is the supervisor’s role to determine

How the work will be accomplished by the team

543

In modern management theory, control is most important when applied to

Processes and other resources

544

The director of the department is Bob. Sally, the coding supervisor and five other supervisors, report to Bob. Tim and 10 other coders report to Sally. This describes what management concept?

Chain of command

545

Strengthening others by sharing information and power is a characteristic of

Leadership

546

A summary of the position, a list of duties, and the qualifications required to perform the job are all elements of a

Position description

547

Performance standards are used to

Communicate performance expectations

548

Position descriptions, policies and procedures, training checklists, and performance standards are all examples of

Human resource tools

549

Procedures should be complete enough so that

Anyone generally competent for that position can perform the task

550

The department’s orientation checklist would include a

Review of communication policies

Description of how to request time off

Review of departmental goals

551

During training, the employee should be

Encouraged to ask questions

552

Teams often fail to succeed when

The leader dominates the team

553

Setting a clear deadline is an important step in

Delegation

554

Discovering each individual’s talents and maximizing them is the role of the

Coach

555

Periodic performance reviews

Encourage good performance

556

Disciplinary action

Should be documented at each step

557

Constructive confrontation is one form of

Conflict management

558

Grievance procedures

Are defined in the union contract

559

On-the-job training

Is one option for staff development

560

During times of change, it is important for the supervisor to

Hold on to the vision

561

The budget

Is the financial plan for the coming time period

562

Zero-based budgeting is not

Based on work volume and unit cost

563

Before beginning to budget at the department level, it is important to understand

What the organization’s budget assumptions are

564

Monitoring ongoing revenues and expenses and verifying actual expenses are important steps in

Financial control

565

What is the goal of clinical practice guidelines?

To standardize clinical decision making

566

What is the largest healthcare standards-setting body in the world?

Joint Commission

567

What is not a responsibility of a healthcare organization’s quality management department?

Using medical peer review to identify patterns of care

568

What are the responsibilities of a healthcare organization’s quality management department?

Helping departments to identify potential clinical quality problems

Participating in regular departmental meetings across the organization

Determining the method for studying potential problems

569

Problems in patient care and other areas of the healthcare organization are usually symptoms inherent in a

System

570

Define utilization management

It is a set of processes used to determine the appropriateness of medical services provided during specific episodes of care.

571

What are types of utilization review?

Preadmission utilization review

Discharge utilization review

Documentation utilization review

572

What is the role of the case manager?

Coordinate medical care and ensure the necessity of the services provided to beneficiaries

573

What roles are representative of the ombudsman in patient advocacy?

Mediator

Listener

Partner

574

A hospital’s C-section rate is an example of a

Clinical performance measure

575

The process that involves ongoing surveillance and prevention of infections so as to ensure the quality and safety of healthcare for patients and employees is known as

Infection control

576

The traditional approach to assuring quality was to study a process only when there was failure to

Meet established standards

577

Donabedian proposed three types of quality indicators: structure indicators, process indicators, and

Outcome indicators

578

Many organizations and quality experts define quality as meeting or exceeding

Customer expectations

579

What is a technique used to generate a large number of creative ideas from a group?

Brainstorming

580

What is a data collection tool that records and compiles observations or occurrences?

Checksheet

581

What is used to plot the points for two variables that may be related to each other in some way?

Scatter diagram

582

The leader of the coding performance improvement team wants all of her team members to clearly understand the coding process. What would be the best tool for accomplishing this objective?

flowchart

583

The medical transcription improvement team wants to identify the cause of poor transcription quality. What tool would best aid the team in identifying the root cause of the problem?

Fishbone diagram

584

According to the Pareto principle

20 percent of the sources of a problem are responsible for 80 percent of its actual effects

585

is a methodology for assessing compliance with Joint Commission standards during the survey process.

Tracer methodology

586

are contracted to the federal government to use medical peer review, data analysis, and other tools to identify patterns of care and outcomes that need improvement and then to work cooperatively with facilities and individual physicians to improve care.

QIOs

587

refers to initiatives and programs that reward organizations and providers for quality outcomes.

Pay for performance

588

refers to computerized systems into which physicians or hospital staff directly enter medication orders and therefore benefit from immediate alerts and pharmaceutical information in order to reduce the frequency of medication errors.

CPOE

589

are Joint Commission’s standards for improving patient safety.

NPSGs

590

QIO

Quality Improvement Organization

591

Which piece of legislation created a program for detecting fraudulent health plans?

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996

592

Which of the following is a basic assumption of normative decision theory?

Decision makers have total knowledge of the available options.

593

Which of the following is an advantage of the case-control study design?

The case-control study design requires few subjects relative to other study designs.

594

LTC

Long term care