CourseSmart International E-Book for Biology: How Life Works: Biology 152_Rounds-Final Exam Flashcards


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1

The differential success of alleles is called_____________________.
Select one:
a. selection
b. genetic drift
c. fixation
d. migration
e. evolution

a. selection

2

All the alleles of all the genes present in a ll individuals in a species are referred to as the _________ of that species
Select one:
a. gene pool
b. allele frequency
c. genotype frequency
d. genotype
e. phenotype

a. gene pool

3
card image

The tree below represents a phylogeny of different mammalian species. What is represented by the node?

Select one:
a. A recent speciation event
b. The appearance of a new mutation
c. The appearance of a new genetic variant
d. a common ancestor between human and mouse
e. a mouse/human species

d. a common ancestor between human and mouse Correct

4

There are three alleles are a specific locus in a population of humans. The alleles are D1, D2, and D3 and they have frequencies of 0.43, 0.30, and 0.28 respectively.
Select one:
a. D1 is dominant
b. D1 is definitely not dominant
c. It cannot be determined from this information whether D1 is dominant

c. It cannot be determined from this information whether D1 is dominant

5

With few exceptions, we can't use observable traits to measure genetic variation in populations because:
Select one:
a. observable traits don't vary enough among individuals to measure.
b. we can't identify enough observable traits to be useful, even if they could be measured
c. Most traits are only represented by two alleles
d. You will only be able to measure the dominant trait as the recessive one will be masked.
e. Many traits are encoded by large numbers of genes and observable traits are products of the environment as well as the genome

e. Many traits are encoded by large numbers of genes and observable traits are products of the environment as well as the genome

6

Interbreeding groups of organisms of the same species living in the same geographical area are called (one word, plural):

populations

7

Which of the following are conditions of for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
Select one or more:
a. No differences in the survival and reproductive success of individuals
b. Random mating
c. No ongoing mutations
d. No migration
e. A limited gene pool

a. No differences in the survival and reproductive success of individuals
b. Random mating
c. No ongoing mutations
d. No migration

8

At the genetic level, evolution is
Select one:
a. a change in fitness over time
b. A population change over time.
c. a change in the frequency of an allele or genotype over time
d. an increase in fitness over time
e. natural selection

c. a change in the frequency of an allele or genotype over time

9

From an evolutionary perspective, germ-line mutations are more significant than somatic mutations. This is because:

Select one:
a. somatic mutations don't affect the genomes of any cells
b. somatic mutations are generally harmful
c. only germ line mutations will appear in an individual's descendants
d. only germ-line mutations can be harmful

c. only germ line mutations will appear in an individual's descendants

10

When the conditions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are met: (select all)
Select one or more:
a. evolution occurs
b. evolution does not occur
c. gene frequencies in the population change over time.
d. gene frequencies in the population do not change over time.
e. none of these occur when conditions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are met.

b. evolution does not occur

d. gene frequencies in the population do not change over time

11

The number of complex multicellular organisms has increased over the last billion years. Now think carefully about the question.
Select one:
True
False

true

12
card image

The graph below coupled with the answer to the last question suggests that natural selection would favor more complex organisms in a given situation.

True

False

False

13
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E. Coli cells were grown in a liquid broth that had limited glucose but was supplemented with citrate (a carbon source the bacteria couldn’t use directly, but is in the citric acid cycle), serially, for 35,000 generation (re-cultured every day and each sample frozen). In the experiment shown, a temporally representative subset of the cultures were individually cultured for 24 hours and the OD was compared. What does the O.D. MEASURE?

Select one:
a. Whether e. coli can survive on citrate alone
b. the amount of bacteria in solution as measured by diffracted light
c. How well each generation metabolizes glucose.
d. The rate of bacterial growth

b. the amount of bacteria in solution as measured by diffracted light

14

Why did it take so many generations for the e. coli to be able to grow on citrate?

Select one:a. because e. coli grows much more slowly on citrate.

b. It needed to use up the glucose first

c. because mutations are random and just need to happen

d. because citrate is a very complicated molecule.

c. because mutations are random and just need to happen

15
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This chart shows the ln( OD) of two different cultures sampled over time. Cit+ can use citrate Cit- cannot. The authors of the study argue that both strains are using glucose only for the first few hours of growth. If this is correct, would the cit+ e. coli grow better in a citrate only medium or a high glucose medium (note that the experiment shown is with low glucose)?

Select one:a. citrate only

b. glucose only

c. you can't tell from these data, you'd have to do the experiment.

b. glucose only

16

Choose whether each is an example of acclimating or adapting to an environment. Either acclimatization or adaption

1.Training at high altitude increases the hemoglobin in a cyclists blood

2.If you move from a cold to a hot climate, the salt content of your sweat will eventually go down.

3.A rare allele of a gene called EPAS1 helps people thrive at low oxygen concentrations whereas the more common allele is not as helpful. Most Tibetans have the rare allele whereas their close (at least genetically) relatives the Han Chinese usually have the common allele. In the Tibetans this is an example of.

4.The big ears of the long eared jerboa help it radiate heat in the desert

1.acclimitization

2.acclimitization

3.adaption

4.adaption

17

In the c. coli long-term evolution experiment, the mutation allowing the e. coli to metabolize citrate occurred because the e. coli were growing on citrate.
Select one:
True
False

false

18

The differential success of alleles in leading to reproduction is called _____________________
Select one:
a. Genetic Drift
b. Selection

c. Fixation
d. Migration
e. Evolution

b. Selection

19

The result of migration is to ________ genetic differences among populations
Select one:
a. Reduce
b. Increase
c. It would depend on the distance of the migration

a. Reduce

20

Although each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations, which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence?

Select one:

a. Mutation

b. Nonrandom mating

c. Genetic Drift

d. Natural Selection

e. Gene Flow

c. Genetic Drift

21

In contrast to positive and negative selection, _______ favors the extremes instead of the the intermediate forms in a continuously varied trait .

Select one:

a. fixation

b. Disruptive

c. Stabilizing

d. DirectionalFeedback

b. Disruptive

22

Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing
Select one:
a. nonrandom mating
b. geographic isolation
c. genetic drift
d. gene flow
e. speciation

d. gene flow

23

What is true of natural selection?
Select one:
a. Natural selection is a random process.
b. Natural selection creates beneficial mutations.
c. The only way to eliminate harmful mutations is through natural selection.
d. Mutations occur at random; natural selection can preserve and distribute beneficial mutations.
e. Mutations occur when directed by the good of the species; natural selection edits out harmful mutations and causes populations to adapt to the beneficial mutations.

d. Mutations occur at random; natural selection can preserve and distribute beneficial mutations.

24
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If the curve below shifts to the left or to the right, there is no gene flow, and the population size consequently increases over successive generations. Which of the following is (are) probably occurring?

Select one or more:
a. migration
b. directional selection
c. adaptation
d. genetic drift
e. disruptive selection

b. directional selection
c. adaptation

25

A hypothetical endangered species of wildflower has been reduced to a single small population in a mountain meadow. A group takes over the meadow in an act of anti-government defiance. They trample all but three of the flowers. This is an example of:

Select one:

a. natural selection

b. genetic drift

c. mutation

d. migration

e. non-random mating

b. genetic drift

26

The non-adaptive mechanisms of evolutionary change are:
Select one:
a. migration (gene flow), mutation, and genetic drift.
b. migration (gene flow), balancing selection, and genetic drift.
c. migration (gene flow), sexual selection, and genetic drift.
d. mutation, sexual selection, and genetic drift.
e. mutation, genetic drift, and heterozygote advantage.

a. migration (gene flow), mutation, and genetic drift.

27

Examine Figure 21.14. If you wanted to use a molecular clock to date a relatively recent divergence event―say, one that occurred in the last 100 million years or so―which of the four types of genes would make the best clock? Why?
Select one:
a. Fibrinopeptides, because they have changed the most over that time period.
b. A histone gene, because it has changed relatively little over that time.
c. Fibrinopeptides, because they have changed relatively little over that time.
d. A histone gene, because it has changed the most over that time period.
e. Hemoglobin, because of its moderate rate of change.

a. Fibrinopeptides, because they have changed the most over that time period.

28

In a population of butterflies has the following gene frequencies: 60% AA, 20% Aa, and 20% aa. What is the frequency of the A allele?
Select one:
a. 0.6
b. 0.8
c. 0.7
d. 0.2
e. 0.3

c. 0.7

29

With regards to the mouse whisker breeding program outlined above which of the following are true?
Select one or more:
a. To be successful the whisker length must be heritable
b. To be successful whisker length must be governed by a single gene
c. The whisker breeding program is not an example of artificial selection because the mice are still breeding naturally.
d. Reproductive success is not important in this case because you are choosing who mates.

a. To be successful the whisker length must be heritable

30

All the alleles present in all individuals in a species are referred to as the ____________ of that species.
Select one:
a. gene pool
b. allele frequency
c. genotype frequency
d. genotype
e. phenotype

a. gene pool

31

Which of the following is a true with respect to genetic variation?
Select one:
a. Genetic variation is created by natural selection.
b. It arises in response to environmental change.
c. It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.
d. It tends to be reduced by meiosis.

c. It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.

32

The differential success of alleles is called_____________________.
Select one:
a. selection
b. genetic drift
c. fixation
d. migration
e. evolution

a. selection

33

From an evolutionary perspective, germ-line mutations are more significant than somatic mutations. This is because:
Select one:
a. somatic mutations affect only one or a few cells.
b. somatic mutations are generally harmful.
c. only germ-line mutations will appear in an individual’s descendants.
d. only germ-line mutations are potentially beneficial to the individual
e. somatic mutations affect only one or a few cells and only germ-line mutations will appear in an individual’s descendants.

c. only germ-line mutations will appear in an individual’s descendants.

34

Which of the following big sagebrush plants is the most fit, based only on the information in the answers?
Select one:
a. The individual that can survive with 10% less water than the others in its population.
b. The individual that produces 5% more distasteful chemicals, making it 2% less likely to be attacked by herbivores than others in its population.
c. The individual that produces 3% more offspring each year than others in its population.
d. The individual that is the most resistant to disease organisms in the population.
e. All of these individuals are equally fit based on the information presented.

c. The individual that produces 3% more offspring each year than others in its population.

35

At the genetic level, evolution is
Select one:
a. a change in fitness over time
b. A population change over time.
c. a change in the frequency of an allele or genotype over time.
d. an increase in fitness over time
e. natural selection

c. a change in the frequency of an allele or genotype over time.

36
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The chart below shows heterozygosity and the inbreeding coefficient for cats. Inbreeding coefficient approaches 1 when there is a great deal of inbreeding and 0 when there is none. For the purposes of this question you only need focus on heterozygosity (discussed in class) To the left of the grey line on the bottom are breeds of cats (Singapura through Siberian). To the right of the grey line are random bred cats (mutts) from the localities listed. The last three on the right are wild cat populations. Felis silvestris silvestris is a small wild cat native to Europe and much of Africa, Felis silvestris caffra is the south african wildcat and Felis silvestris tristami (another wild cat). Given these data, w hich of the following statements are true? (lipinski et al 2007 Genomics). Please note, these data are based on microsattelites in the genome not on coding regions, they can be used to make predictions, but shouldn't be taken as the final word.

Select one or more:
a. Wild cats likely have a larger gene pool than domesticated cats.
b. Random bred cats would probably be able to adapt to changes in the environment better than cat breeds
c. The low heterozygosity in Felis silvestris silvestris (F.S. silvestris) could be due to a large population.
d. The low heterozygosity in Felis silvestris silvestris (F.S. silvestris) could be due to a very small population.
e. The cat with the smallest gene pool is the Singapura.

b. Random bred cats would probably be able to adapt to changes in the environment better than cat breeds

d. The low heterozygosity in Felis silvestris silvestris (F.S. silvestris) could be due to a very small population.
e. The cat with the smallest gene pool is the Singapura.

37

Which of the following is necessary for evolution by natural selection?
Select one or more:
a. Variation in heritable traits in the population
b. Differences in lifetime reproductive success based on traits
c. there must be sexual reproduction
d. some dramatic change in the environment.

a. Variation in heritable traits in the population
b. Differences in lifetime reproductive success based on traits

38
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Mouse whisker fanciers enjoy raising pet mice but they are very fussy about the whisker length. They like the whiskers to be as close as possible to 2.5 cm long, a very fine whisker length indeed. You wish to raise mice to take advantage of the mouse fanciers' shallow desires and deep pockets. You know nothing of mouse whisker genetics. You begin with a breeding population of several thousand mice with a whisker distribution as shown below:

What should your breeding program be like?
Select one:
a. Breed mice from I and III so that you get heterozygous mice.
b. Select mice from II and III to breed so as to raise the average whisker length.
c. Choose mice in section II only and breed them to try to stabilize the whisker length around 2.5 cm.
d. Choose mice from III only to breed so as to raise the average whisker length.

c. Choose mice in section II only and breed them to try to stabilize the whisker length around 2.5 cm.

39

What does the biological species concept use as the primary criterion for determining species boundaries?
Select one:
a. geographic isolation
b. niche differences
c. gene flow
d. morphological similarity
e. molecular (DNA, RNA, protein) similarity

c. gene flow

40

When you use a field guide to identify a species by its appearance, you are applying the
Select one:
a. Evolutionary species concept
b. Biological species concept
c. morphospecies concept
d. ecological species concept

c. morphospecies concept

41

A drawback of the BSC is that it cannot be applied to

Select one or more:

a. polymorphic species (like ants)

b. asexual organisms like bacteria

c. extinct organisms like dinosaurs

d. plants

e. none of these are drawbacks

b. asexual organisms like bacteria

c. extinct organisms like dinosaurs

42

A bacteriologist is studying two asexually reproducing strains of E. coli. The two require different amounts of trace minerals for survival; on these grounds, the bacteriologist determines that they are separate species. In making his determination, he is using what species concept?
Select one:
a. evolutionary species concept
b. ecological species concept
c. biological species concept
d. morophospecies concept
e. none of the above

b. ecological species concept

43

Two species of frog mate in the same pond. One breeds in early summer and one in late summer. This is an example of what kind of reproductive isolation?
Select one:
a. post-zygotic, temporal separation
b. pre-zygotic, temporal separation
c. post-zygotic, ecological separation
d. pre-zygotic, behavioral isolation
e. pre-zygotic, ecological separation

b. pre-zygotic, temporal separation

44

It is thought that polar bears originated from a population of brown bears (grizzlies) that became geographically isolated during a glaciation event that occurred about 150,000 years ago. This is an example of:
Select one:
a. sympatric speciation
b. allopatric speciation
c. peripatric speciation
d. adaptive radiation

b. allopatric speciation

45

_________ is a special case of speciation in which new species form rapidly in response to numerous “open” ecological niches.
Select one:
a. sympatric speciation
b. co-speciation
c. allopatric speciation
d. post-zygotic isolation
e. adaptive radiation

e. adaptive radiation

46

______is the process in which two groups of organisms speciate in response to each other and at the same time.
Select one:
a. sympatric speciation
b. co-speciation
c. allopatric speciation
d. post-zygotic isolation
e. adaptive radiation

b. co-speciation

47

You begin an experiment with 2 populations of E. coli that are each composed of 100 cells. The cells are all genetically identical. You grow these populations in flasks on a lab bench under identical conditions with unlimited resources. Even after many generations natural selection cannot occur because bacteria are haploid so there is no individual variation.
Select one:
a. True
b. False

b. False

48

You are confronted with a box of preserved grasshoppers of various species that are new to science and have not been described. Your assignment is to separate them into species. There is no accompanying information as to where or when they were collected. Which species concept will you have to use?
Select one:
a. biological
b. evolutionary
c. ecological
d. morphological

d. morphological

49

______is the process in which two groups of organisms living the same habitat diverge into separate species
Select one:
a. adaptive radiation
b. perpatric speciation
c. co-speciation
d. sympatric speciaiton
e. adaptive radiation

d. sympatric speciaiton

50

Two closely related populations of mice have been separated for many generations by a river. Climatic change causes the river to dry up, thereby bringing the mice populations back into contact in a zone of overlap. Which of the following is not a possible outcome when they meet?

Select one:
a. They interbreed freely and produce fertile hybrid offspring.
b. They no longer attempt to interbreed.
c. They interbreed in the region of overlap, producing an inferior hybrid. Subsequent interbreeding between inferior hybrids produces progressively superior hybrids over several generations.
d. They remain separate in the extremes of their ranges but develop a persistent hybrid zone in the area of overlap.
e. They interbreed in the region of overlap, but produce sterile offspring.

c. They interbreed in the region of overlap, producing an inferior hybrid. Subsequent interbreeding between inferior hybrids produces progressively superior hybrids over several generations.

51

You find that a wild population of antelope is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. From this information alone, can you determine the mechanism of evolution operating on the population?
Select one:
a. Yes
b. No

b. No

52

A population of naked mole rats has a recessive allele that in the homozygous state leads to a distinct splotchy skin phenotype. The un-mutated allele is denoted A whereas the splotchy allele is a. Naked mole rats are blind as well as naked and show no preference or distaste for the splotchy allele. There are no other evolutionary pressures and so it is Hardy Weinberg equilibirum. The frequency of the a allele is 0.2. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for this allele?
Select one:
a. 0.2
b. 2.0
c. 4.0
d. 16.0
e. 32.0

e. 32.0

53

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele?
Select one:
a. 0.9
b. 0.49
c. 9.0
d. 49.0
e. 90.0

c. 9.0

54
card image

Which of the following forms of selection is most likely to produce a population of African butterflies in which two distinct coloration types are present (as shown in the graph below)?

Select one:
a.
artificial selection

b.
directional selection

c.
stabilizing selection

d. disruptive selection

d. disruptive selection

55
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The figure below represents the fastest speed in a prey population of pikas. There is a large population of these pikas. If the curve below shifts to the right during successive generations in which no gene flow occurs. Which of the following is (are) probably occurring in the pikas? (multiple answers may be true)

Select one or more:
a. Pikas from a different population are migrating into the area.
b. directional selection
c. adaptation
d. genetic drift
e. disruptive selection

b. directional selection
c. adaptation

56

Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing
Select one:
a. nonrandom mating
b. geographic isolation
c. genetic drift
d. gene flow
e. speciation

d. gene flow

57

Flower color in sweet pea in part comes from the pigment anthocyanin. One step is catalyzed by an enzyme called chalcone synthase. When chalcone synthase doesn't work at all , the flowers are white. The normal enzyme is denoted + whereas the non-functioning enzyme is denoted -. Heterozygotes are purple. In a particular large population the following genotype frequencies are observed:
genotype frequencies
Genotype Frequency
++ 0.60
+- 0.20
-- 0.20
What is the frequency of the - allele in this population? Please enter your number as two digits after a zero and a decimal (just like the frequencies above). If the frequency is 0.8 enter 0.80. If the frequency is 0.934 enter is as 0.93. Don't do .93. Don't write .9.

0.30

58

Flower color in sweet pea in part comes from the pigment anthocyanin. One step is catalyzed by an enzyme called chalcone synthase. When chalcone synthase doesn't work at all , the flowers are white. The normal enzyme is denoted + whereas the non-functioning enzyme is denoted -. Heterozygotes are purple. In a particular large population the following genotype frequencies are observed:
genotype frequencies
Genotype Frequency
++ 0.60
+- 0.20
-- 0.20
What is the expected heterozygote frequency if the population is in hardy weinberg equilibrium? Please enter your number as two digits after a zero and a decimal (just like the frequencies above). If the frequency is 0.8 enter 0.80. If the frequency is 0.934 enter is as 0.93. Don't do .93. Don't write .9.

0.42

59

Flower color in sweet pea in part comes from the pigment anthocyanin. One step is catalyzed by an enzyme called chalcone synthase. When chalcone synthase doesn't work at all , the flowers are white. The normal enzyme is denoted + whereas the non-functioning enzyme is denoted -. Heterozygotes are purple. In a particular large population the following genotype frequencies are observed:
genotype frequencies
Genotype Frequency
++ 0.60
+- 0.20
-- 0.20
Is this population in hardy Weinberg equilibrium? Please note that you should use your answers to the last two questions to help you answer this question?

Select one:
a. yes
b. no
c. there is not enough information provided to answer this question

b. no

60

Which of the following pairs are the best examples of homologous structures?
Select one:
a. owl wing and hornet wing
b. bat wing and bird wing
c. bones in the bat wing and bones in the human forelimb
d. eyelessness in the Australian mole and eyelessness in the North American mole

c. bones in the bat wing and bones in the human forelimb

61
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In the phylogenetic trees above, numbers represent species and the same species are shown in both trees. Which two species are represented as sister species in Tree 2 but are not shown as sister species in Tree 1?

Select one:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 4 and 5
e. 5 and 6

c. 3 and 4

62
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Given that phylogenies are based on shared derived characteristics, which of the following traits is useful in generating a phylogeny of species W, X, Y, and Z?

Select one:
a. trait 1
b. trait 2
c. trait 3
d. all of the traits
e. traits 2 and 3

b. trait 2

63

Some beetles and flies have antler-like structures on their heads, much like male deer do. The existence of antlers in beetle, fly, and deer species with strong male-male competition is an example of _____.
Select one:
a. convergent evolution
b. a synapomorphy
c. homology
d. parsimony

a. convergent evolution

64

In a phylogenetic tree, a node or branching point represents:
Select one:
a. the species in the fossil record from which the descendent species diverged.
b. one of the descendent species in the phylogeny.
c. the ancestral species from which all species in the phylogeny arose.
d. the common ancestor from which the descendent species diverged.
e. A node could be any of these, depending on the nature of the phylogenetic tree.

d. the common ancestor from which the descendent species diverged.

65

A taxon that does not include the last common ancestor of all its members is a _____ group.
Select one:
a. monophyletic
b. paraphyletic
c. polyphyletic

c. polyphyletic

66

Characters that are similar because of descent from a common ancestor are _____; characters that are similar due to convergent evolution are _____.
Select one:
a. homologous; analogous
b. analogous; homologous
c. parsimonious, analogous

a. homologous; analogous

67
card image

The phylogeny below shows
apes
Select one:
a. Organgutans and gorillas are more closely related than humans and gorillas
b. Humans and gorillas are more closely related than orangutans and gorillas
c. The gorilla is the most recent common ancestor of bonobos, chimps and humans
d. The orangutan is the most recent common ancestor of all great apes.
e. All great apes walk with an upright gait.

b. Humans and gorillas are more closely related than orangutans and gorillas

68
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According to the figure, the group "fish" includes all vertebrates except the tetrapods. The taxon "fish" is therefore a ________ group.
Select one:
a. monophyletic
b. paraphyletic
c. polyphyletic

b. paraphyletic

69

Which of the following factors would not contribute to allopatric speciation?
Select one:
a. A population becomes geographically isolated from the parent population.
b. A population separated from the main population geographically is small, and genetic drift occurs
c. Different mutations begin to distinguish the gene pools of the separated populations.
d. Gene flow between the two populations is extensive.

d. Gene flow between the two populations is extensive.

70

On the Bahamian island of Andros, mosquitofish populations live in various, now-isolated, freshwater ponds that were once united. Currently, some predator-rich ponds have mosquitofish that can swim in short, fast bursts; other predator-poor ponds have mosquitofish that can swim continuously for a long time. When placed together in the same body of water, the two kinds of female mosquitofish exhibit exclusive breeding preferences. Which type of reproductive isolation operates to keep the mosquitofish isolated, even when fish from different ponds are reunited in the same body of water?
Select one:
a. behavioral isolation
b. habitat isolation
c. temporal isolation
d. mechanical isolation
e. post-zygotic isolation

a. behavioral isolation

71

Bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler as distinct species. Recently, these birds have been classified as eastern and western forms of a single species, the yellow-rumped warbler. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would be cause for this reclassification?
Select one:
a. The two forms interbreed often in nature, and their offspring have good survival and reproduction.
b. The two forms live in similar habitats.
c. The two forms have many genes in common.
d. The two forms have similar food requirements.
e. The two forms are very similar in coloration.

a. The two forms interbreed often in nature, and their offspring have good survival and reproduction.

72

You are maintaining a population of fruit flies in the laboratory by transferring a quarter of the flies to a new culture bottle after each generation. The original population was both phenotypically and genetically diverse. After several generations, you notice that the viability of the flies has decreased greatly. Which of the following might combat the trend in your experiment? Choose all possible answers.
Select one or more:
a. Raise the temperature so that the flies go through more generations each month
b. Transfer fewer flies each generation
c. Order some wild flies (from flies-r-us presumably) and interbreed them with your flies
d. Reintroduce flies from your starting population to the population (so that they interbreed).

c. Order some wild flies (from flies-r-us presumably) and interbreed them with your flies
d. Reintroduce flies from your starting population to the population (so that they interbreed).

73

A small group of naked mole rats is isolated from the colony during a flood. They land on an isolated island and find it to their liking, which is a good thing because they can't get back to the mainland. They are fruitful and they multiply, ultimately leading to a new population on the isolated island. This population’s long term allelic frequencies will most likely be affected by (pick all that apply).
Select one or more:
a. founder effect
b. Bottleneck effect
c. gene flow with the original colony
d. genetic drift

a. founder effect

d. genetic drift

74

Diane Dodd took one population of fruit flies split it into two groups. She raised one on maltose based food and the other on a starch based food for several generations (both are stressful and the populations took a long time to establish). At the end of the experiment she mixed the flies to see if they would interbreed.
A scenario (not in the original experiment) the two groups of flies were then mixed together in a new chamber with both starch and maltose. Few hybrids flies are produced, but those that are can use both starch and maltose and they have offspring that can also use starch and maltose. What would the likely effect of this be?

Select one:
a. genetic drift
b. reinforcement of the hybrid zone
c. The hybrid flies would have a selective advantage (leading potentially to fusion of the two populations)
d. the two groups of flies (maltose and starch) would continue to remain separate (stability of the isolated populations)

c. The hybrid flies would have a selective advantage (leading potentially to fusion of the two populations)

75

Dog breeders maintain the purity of breeds by keeping dogs of different breeds apart when they are fertile. This kind of isolation is most similar to which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms?
Select one:
a. reduced hybrid fertility
b. hybrid breakdown
c. mechanical isolation
d. habitat isolation
e. gametic isolation

d. habitat isolation

76

Dogs (Canis lupus familiaris) and gray wolves (Canis lupus) can interbreed to produce viable, fertile offspring. These species shared a common ancestor recently (in geologic time) and have a high degree of genetic similarity, although their anatomies vary widely. Judging from this evidence, which two species concepts are most likely to place dogs and wolves together into a single species?
Select one:
a. ecological and morphological
b. ecological and phylogenetic
c. morphological and phylogenetic
d. biological and morphological
e. biological and phylogenetic

e. biological and phylogenetic

77
card image

The data in the previous graphs indicate that

In a hypothetical situation, the National Park Service, which administers Grand Canyon National Park in Arizona, builds a footbridge over the Colorado River at the bottom of the canyon. The footbridge permits interspersal of two closely related antelope squirrels. Previously, one type of squirrel had been restricted to the terrain south of the river, and the other type had been restricted to terrain on the north side of the river. Immediately before and ten years after the bridge's completion, researchers collected ten antelope squirrels from both sides of the river, took blood samples, and collected frequencies of alleles unique to the two types of antelope squirrels (see the following graphs).

The data in the previous graphs indicate that
Select one:
a. a hybrid zone was established after the completion of the bridge.
b. no interspersal of the two types of squirrel occurred after the completion of the bridge.
c. gene flow occurred from one type of squirrel into the gene pool of the other type of squirrel.
d. two-way migration of squirrels occurred across the bridge, but without hybridization.
e. some northern squirrels migrated south, but no southern squirrels migrated north across the bridge.

d. two-way migration of squirrels occurred across the bridge, but without hybridization.

78

An advantage that simple multicellular eukaryotes have over single-celled organisms is the ability:
Select one:
a. Of the cells in the multicellular organism to communicate with one another.
b. Of the cells in a group of cells to avoid predation
c. For autotrophic cells in the multicellular organism to supply heterotrophic cells with nutrients
d. To respond to the external environmental more efficiently.

b. Of the cells in a group of cells to avoid predation

79

In which order were the key features of complex multicellularity likely to have appeared?
Select one:
a. Cell adhesion, cell communication, regulated growth and development.
b. Cell communication, cell adhesion, regulated growth and development.
c. Regulated growth and development, cell communication, cell adhesion,
d. Regulated growth and development, cell adhesion, cell communication.

a. Cell adhesion, cell communication, regulated growth and development.

80

Organisms that are dependent on oxygen for cellular respiration depend on which of the following processes to move oxygen into cells?

a. simple diffusion

b. active transport

c. pinocytosis

d. facilitated diffusion

a. simple diffusion

81

The evolution from simple multicellular organisms to complex multicellular organisms required:
Select one:
a. an ability to respond to the environment.
b. the development of a system that enabled bulk transport.
c. cell-surface receptors.

b. the development of a system that enabled bulk transport.

82

The passive movement of a solute from a point of high concentration to a point of low concentration is known as:
Select one:
a. Diffusion
b. Active transport
c. Endocytosis
d. Solubility

a. Diffusion

83

Which of the following is characteristic of complex multicellularity?
Select one:
a. All cells are exposed to an exterior surface.
b. The interior cells are tolerant to lower oxygen levels than exterior cells.
c. Interior cells are exposed to a different physical and chemical environment than exterior cells.
d. All cells of complex multicellular organisms express the same genes.

c. Interior cells are exposed to a different physical and chemical environment than exterior cells.

84

Which of the following statements concerning complex multicellular organisms is true?
Select one:
a. Plants and animals use bulk transport systems to move gases and nutrients but fungi and algae do not.
b. Bulk transport systems require specialized organs like a heart to pump nutrients and dissolved gases deep into tissues that are not in contact with the external environment.
c. Bulk transport systems move substances faster than simple diffusion.
d. Only animals use bulk transport systems as other organisms rely on diffusion alone.

c. Bulk transport systems move substances faster than simple diffusion.

85

Which of the following terms describes the process by which a fertilized egg develops into a multicellular organism with hundreds of different cell types, each with different structures and functions?
Select one:
a. Adhesion
b. Differentiation
c. Communication
d. Embryology

b. Differentiation

86

Which one of the following is a characteristic of complex multicellular organisms, but not simple multicellular organisms?
Select one:
a. the functional specialization of subsets of cells in the organism
b. the use of cell-adhesion molecules to allow cells to adhere to one another
c. the presence of a single cell with multiple nuclei
d. the presence of cells that are not in direct contact with the external environment

a. the functional specialization of subsets of cells in the organism

87

Which one of the following statements correctly describes features shared by simple multicellular eukaryotes?
Select one:
a. Cells adhere to one another; most of the cells are capable of a wide range of functions, including reproduction; and the loss of one or more cells usually does not lead to the death of the organism.
b. Cells adhere to one another and engage in extensive communication with one another; most of the cells are capable of a wide range of functions, including reproduction; and the loss of one or more cells usually does not lead to the death of the organism.
c. Cells adhere to one another and most of the cells are capable of a wide range of functions except the ability to reproduce, which means that the loss of certain cells usually leads to the death of the organism.

a. Cells adhere to one another; most of the cells are capable of a wide range of functions, including reproduction; and the loss of one or more cells usually does not lead to the death of the organism.

88

Genetic and fossil evidence suggest that humans, chimps and bonobos share a common ancestor.
Select one:
True
False

True

89

Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its flowers' bright orange color. The beetles not only pollinate the flowers, but they mate while inside of the flowers. A mutant version of the plant with red flowers becomes more common with the passage of time. A particular variant of the beetle prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. Over time, these two beetle variants diverge from each other to such an extent that interbreeding is no longer possible. What kind of speciation has occurred in this example, and what has driven it?

Select one:
a. allopatric speciation; ecological isolation
b. sympatric speciation; habitat differentiation
c. allopatric speciation; behavioral isolation
d. sympatric speciation; sexual selection
sympatric speciation; sexual selection
sympatric speciation; sexual selection
e. sympatric speciation; allopolyploidy (when two species hybridize creating a polyploid hybrid)

b. sympatric speciation; habitat differentiation

90
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For the indicated group which is an ancestral trait?

Select one or more:
a. bipedal
b. big chewing muscles
c. bigger jaw
d. smaller jaws, arched feet
e. sophisticated tool use
f. symbolic thought

a. bipedal

c. bigger jaw

91

Please match the words with the defintion.
1.characters that are similar because of descent from a common ancestor are(homologous/analogous)
2.characters that are similar due to convergent evolution are(homologous/analogous)

1. Homologous

2. Analogous

92

A taxon that does not include the last common ancestor of all its members is a _____ group.
Select one:
a. paraphyletic
b. polyphyletic
c. monophyletic

b. polyphyletic

93

Which of the following pairs are the best examples of homologous structures?
Select one:
a. bones in the bat wing and bones in the human forelimb
b. owl wing and hornet wing
c. bat wing and bird wing
d. eyelessness in the Australian mole and eyelessness in the North American mole

a. bones in the bat wing and bones in the human forelimb

94

Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae) but place the lesser panda in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). Consequently, if these data are correct the morphological similarities of these two species (giant and lesser panda) are probably due to
Select one:
a. inheritance of acquired characteristics.
b. stabilizing selection
c. inheritance of shared derived characters.
d. possession of analogous structures.
e. possession of shared ancestral characters.

d. possession of analogous structures.

95

The Lemurs, tarsiers and bush babies are different from other primates because they are the same as the ancestral species that led to the anthropoids.
Select one:
True
False

False

96

Which of the following are true statements?

a. The concept of the missing link between humans and our ape like ancestors is flawed because there is no single organism that will bridge the gap, there are many transitional organisms, and fossils are exceedingly rare.

b. monkeys are a polyphyletic group

c. apes are a paraphyletic group because humans are not included

d. The phylogenetic tree of primates is constructed from both morphological and genetic data

a. The concept of the missing link between humans and our ape like ancestors is flawed because there is no single organism that will bridge the gap, there are many transitional organisms, and fossils are exceedingly rare.

d. The phylogenetic tree of primates is constructed from both morphological and genetic data

97

Place the following hierarchical genes in the order that they are turned on in drosophila larval development.
Maternal co-ordinate genes
Gap genes
Pair-Rule genes
Segment polarity genes
Hox genes

1

2

3

4

5

98

In Arabidopsis, the floral meristem is organized into four concentric whorls of cells, each of which gives rise to a specific organ of the mature flower. The floral meristem is therefore analogous to what cells or tissues in animals?
Select one:
a. totipotent stem cells
b. cells in the morula
c. the inner cell mass of the blastula
d. the germ layers of the gastrula
e. None of these choices are correct

e. None of these choices are correct

99

As a transcription factor, Pax6:
Select one:
a. targets the approximately 2000 genes needed for eye development.
b. activates its target genes.
c. represses its target genes.
d. activates some target genes and represses others.

d. activates some target genes and represses others.

100

Evolutionarily conserved molecules:
Select one:
a. are similar in sequence among distantly related organisms.
b. were likely present in the most recent common ancestor of the organisms possessing them.
c. likely changed little over time because they serve a vital function.
d. are similar in sequence among distantly related organisms and were likely present in their most recent common ancestor.
e. are similar in sequence among distantly related organisms, were likely present in their most recent common ancestor, and have likely changed very little because they serve a vital function.

e. are similar in sequence among distantly related organisms, were likely present in their most recent common ancestor, and have likely changed very little because they serve a vital function.

101

Gene regulation during development is _____, which means that _____.
Select one:
a. restrictive; genes are successively lost over time
b. restrictive; genes lose developmental potential over time
c. hierarchical; genes expressed at each stage control the expression of genes that act later
d. hierarchical; genes are turned on in a specific sequence, starting with totipotent and ending with multipotent
e. combinatorial; genes expressed at each stage control the expression of genes that act later

c. hierarchical; genes expressed at each stage control the expression of genes that act later

102

Gurdons nuclear transplantation experiments with clawed toads supported the hypothesis that
Select one:
a. differentiation is the result of genes being successively deleted from the genome.
b. differentiation is the result of genes being successively turned off.
c. differentiation causes cells to become pluripotent.
d. only nuclei from the blastocyst retain sufficient potency to produce an adult organism.
e. All of these choices are correct.

b. differentiation is the result of genes being successively turned off.

103

In almost all organisms that have been studied, the genes in Hox clusters:
Select one:
a. are arranged on chromosomes in the same order as their products function along the anterior-posterior segments of the embryo.
b. are expressed in a sequence that is independent of their linear organization along the chromosome.
c. each contain a unique homeodomain, the products of which are very different among organisms.
d. are arranged on the chromosomes in a sequence that is independent of the order in which their products function along the anterior-posterior axis of the embryo.
e. None of these choices are correct.

a. are arranged on chromosomes in the same order as their products function along the anterior-posterior segments of the embryo.

104

In mammals, Hox genes:
Select one:
a. specify limbs and other structures associated with each body segment.
b. direct development of structures that become parts of the hindbrain, spinal cord, and vertebral column.
c. evolved by partial-genome duplication from the ancestral genes.
d. are expressed in a sequence that does not reflect their linear order on the chromosome or the regions they affect.
e. All of these choices are correct.

b. direct development of structures that become parts of the hindbrain, spinal cord, and vertebral column.

105

Maternal-effect genes:
Select one:
a. are expressed by the mother.
b. affect maternal phenotype.
c. affect offspring phenotype.
d. are expressed by the mother and affect maternal phenotype.
e. are expressed by the mother and affect offspring phenotype.

e. are expressed by the mother and affect offspring phenotype.

106

Use figure 20.6 to answer this question, An abnormal Drosophila larva that is missing much of its posterior end is likely deficient in _______ function.
Select one:
a. Bicoid
b. Nanos
c. Hunchback

b. Nanos

107

Which of the following correctly orders the sequence in which genes controlling the development of the anterior-posterior axis of Drosophila larvae are expressed?
Select one:
a. Maternal-effect genes, gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment-polarity genes
b. Maternal-effect genes, gap genes, segment-polarity genes, pair-rule genes.
c. Pair-rule genes, maternal-effect genes, segment-polarity genes, gap genes.
d. Maternal-effect genes, segment-polarity genes, pair-rule genes, gap genes.
e. Gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment-polarity genes, maternal-effect genes.

a. Maternal-effect genes, gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment-polarity genes

108

Which of the following lists cell types in order from those capable of differentiating into the greatest number of different specialized cells to those capable of differentiating into the least number of different specialized cells?
Select one:
a. multipotent, pluripotent, totipotent
b. pluripotent, totipotent, multipotent
c. totipotent, multipotent, pluripotent
d. totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent
e. multipotent, totipotent, pluripotent
Feedback

d. totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent

109

Using figure 20.6 to answer this question. If a Drosophila larva is missing much of its anterior end, it is likely due to a mutation in the ____________.

Select one:
a. Maternal bicoid gene
b. Zygotic bicoid gene
c. Maternal nanos gene
d. zygotic nanos gene

a. Maternal bicoid gene

110

Which of the following are commonalities between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Select one or more:
a. basic metabolic pathways (e.g. glycolysis)
b. they both use DNA and RNA
c. They have membranes
d. Both types of cells have a nucleus
e. They both have evolved multicellularity several times.

a. basic metabolic pathways (e.g. glycolysis)
b. they both use DNA and RNA
c. They have membranes

111
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What do scientists call the hypothesized organism at the node indicated?

LUCA

112

What is the main limitation on cell size?
Select one:
a. diffusion
b. bulk transport
c. oxygen
d. cell membrane strength

a. diffusion

113

Which one of the following is a selective advantage of simple multicellularity over single-celled organisms?
Select one:
a. Multicellularity helps organisms avoid predation.
b. Mutlicellularity results in fundamental changes in metabolic processes
c. Multicellularity helps organisms utilize more food sources compared to say bacteria.
d. Multicellularity helps organisms enhance efficiency of reproduction.

a. Multicellularity helps organisms avoid predation.

114

Which of the following best describes a morphogen?
Select one:
a. a cell that secretes diffusible signaling molecules that play a role in specifying cell fate
b. a diffusible signaling molecule that plays a role in specifying cell fate during embryonic development
c. a protein that helps mediate direct cell-cell interaction
d. a protein that enables cells to become totipotent (totipotent cells can develop into any other cell in the organism).

b. a diffusible signaling molecule that plays a role in specifying cell fate during embryonic development

115
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In class I showed you in example of snowflake yeast. Yeast were selected for settling (essentially heaviness) over several generations. Results of the experiment is shown below. Based on this as well as what we discussed in class, in what ways are these lab created "organisms" like a multicellular organism?

Select one or more:
a. They have specialized cells and tissues.
b. They have a mechanism of cell to cell adhesion.
c. They control the size of the organism by regulating cell size.
d. They have specialized reproductive cells that handle the transfer of genetic information.
e. They're creepy.

b. They have a mechanism of cell to cell adhesion.
c. They control the size of the organism by regulating cell size.

116

In class we looked at an experiment in which human glial progenitor cells were implanted in a newborn mouse's brain. If the mice with the implanted glial cells were allowed to have offspring, would these offspring have a competitive advantage? That is would the smarter mice pass the trait on to their pups?
Select one:
a. No
b. Yes

a. No

117
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At what part of the X-axis scale does the surface area to volume RATIO change most dramatically?

Select one:
a.
For small cells (radius <5 um)
b.
For large cells (radius >20 um)
c.
For medium sized cells (radius 10-15)
d.
It’s a continuous rate of change

a.
For small cells (radius <5 um)

118

In fruit flies, maternal-effect gene mRNA (pick all that are true)
Select one or more:
a. are transcribed by the mother
b. alter the maternal phenotype
c. affect offspring phenotype

a. are transcribed by the mother

c. affect offspring phenotype

119

As cells become differentiated, they delete the DNA for genes they no longer need.
Select one:
True
False

False

120

A drosophila larva that is knocked out (it's totally non functional) for a pair rule gene is most likely to
Select one:
a. lack the entire posterior or anterior end of the larva
b. lack a large section of the larva (several adjacent segments)
c. lack every other segment
d. have segments that are mirror images (lack a front and back)
e. have body parts in the wrong place

c. lack every other segment

121

Pores on the leaf surface that function in gas exchange are called
Select one:
a. hairs.
b. xylem cells.
c. phloem cells.
d. stomata.
e. sclereids.

d. stomata.

122

Stomata are key sites of information processing because ____________. (Select all correct answer options.)
Select one or more:
a. they respond to CO2 demand
b. they respond to H2O loss
c. they open in response to O2
d. they open in response to light

a. they respond to CO2 demand
b. they respond to H2O loss

123

The opening of stomata is thought to involve
Select one:
a. an increase in the solute concentration of the guard cells.
b. a decrease in the solute concentration of the stoma.
c. active transport of water out of the guard cells.
d. decreased turgor pressure in guard cells.
e. movement of K+ from the guard cells.

a. an increase in the solute concentration of the guard cells.

124

What is the main force by which most of the water within xylem vessels moves toward the top of a tree?
Select one:
a. active transport of ions into the root stele
b. atmospheric pressure on roots
c. evaporation of water through stoma
d. the force of root pressure
e. osmosis in the root

c. evaporation of water through stoma

125

If water molecules (H2O) suddenly stopped forming hydrogen bonds with one another, how would water transport in vascular plants change (if at all)?
Select one:
a. It would remain the same, as H2O molecules also form oxygen bonds.
b. It would remain the same, as water transport only depends on osmosis.
c. It would stop, as water transport relies on H2O molecules being connected by hydrogen bonds.
d. It would increase, as hydrogen bonds inhibit water transport.

c. It would stop, as water transport relies on H2O molecules being connected by hydrogen bonds.

126

Which of the following is a correct statement about sugar movement in phloem?
Select one:
a. Diffusion can account for the observed rates of transport.
b. Movement can occur both upward and downward in the plant.
c. Sugar is translocated from sinks to sources.
d. Only phloem cells with nuclei can perform sugar movement.
e. Sugar transport does not require energy.

b. Movement can occur both upward and downward in the plant.

127

Phloem transport of sucrose is often described as going from source to sink. Which of the following would not normally function as a sink?
Select one:
a. growing leaf
b. growing root
c. storage organ in summer
d. mature leaf
e. shoot tip

d. mature leaf

128

What is typically the result of double fertilization in angiosperms?
Select one:
a. The endosperm develops into a diploid nutrient tissue.
b. A triploid zygote is formed.
c. Both a diploid embryo and triploid endosperm are formed.
d. Two embryos develop in every seed.
e. The antipodal cells develop into the seed coat.

c. Both a diploid embryo and triploid endosperm are formed.

129

Which of the following is a correct sequence of processes that takes place when a flowering plant reproduces? Use figure 30.17
Select one:
a. meiosis --> fertilization --> ovulation --> germination
b. fertilization--> meiosis --> nuclear fusion --> formation of embryo and endosperm
c. meiosis --> pollination --> nuclear fusion--> formation of embryo and endosperm
d. growth of pollen tube --> pollination--> germination--> fertilization
e. meiosis --> mitosis --> nuclear fusion --> pollen

c. meiosis --> pollination --> nuclear fusion--> formation of embryo and endosperm

130
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Based on the figure below, which cell(s), after fertilization, give(s) rise to the embryo plant?
h
Select one:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

b. B

131

A drosophila larva that is knocked out (it's totally non functional) for a pair rule gene is most likely to
Select one:
a. lack the entire posterior or anterior end of the larva
b. lack a large section of the larva (several adjacent segments)
c. lack every other segment
d. have segments that are mirror images (lack a front and back)
e. have body parts in the wrong place

c. lack every other segment

132

Which of the following best describes a morphogen?
Select one:
a. a cell that secretes diffusible signaling molecules that play a role in specifying cell fate
b. a diffusible signaling molecule that plays a role in specifying cell fate during embryonic development
c. a protein that helps mediate direct cell-cell interaction
d. a protein that enables cells to become totipotent (totipotent cells can develop into any other cell in the organism).

b. a diffusible signaling molecule that plays a role in specifying cell fate during embryonic development

133

When a gene is expressed at the wrong time or place in an organism it is called

ectopic

134

In fruit flies, maternal-effect gene mRNA (pick all that are true)
Select one or more:
a. are transcribed by the mother
b. alter the maternal phenotype
c. affect offspring phenotype
d. are translated by the mother
e. are translated by the offspring

a. are transcribed by the mother

c. affect offspring phenotype

e. are translated by the offspring

135
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Given your understanding of Hox genes in animal development which of the following would be a reasonable consequence of knocking out expression of the D10-D13 genes on mouse development (you may also find it helpful to look at the slides from class).

Select one:
a. Mice with legs where they should have tails
b. Mouse embryos with deformities on the posterior part of their bodies
c. Mouse embryos with deformities on the anterior part of their bodies.
d. There would be unlikely to be any consequences as the other Hox genes with the same ordinal value (e.g. C10-C13) will compensate
e. The 2R hypothesis suggests that only one cluster is functional, the others are the result of a genome duplication.

b. Mouse embryos with deformities on the posterior part of their bodies

136

Mouse and human pax-6 share 100% sequence identity (they have the same sequence of amino acids). Given the fact that mice and humans have different eyes, how can this be true?
Select one:
a. Pax6 is expressed earlier in development in the mouse
b. Pax6 is a transcription factor and the genes it activates in mice and humans are different leading to different eyes.
c. Pax6 mRNA is spliced differently in humans and mice
d. Expression level is critical for function and it is expressed at a much higher level in humans
e. All of the above are possible

b. Pax6 is a transcription factor and the genes it activates in mice and humans are different leading to different eyes.

137
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According to the ABC hypothesis about combinatorial control of floral morphogenesis, what would the unattractive flower below look like if you knocked out C function genes?

Select one:
a. It would be all sepals

b. Petals in whorls 2 and 3 and sepals in the first and fourth whorl

c. It would have two whorls of sepals and two whorls of carpels

d. It would go sepals on the outside petals on the inside

e. It would just be missing the carpel

b. Petals in whorls 2 and 3 and sepals in the first and fourth whorl

138
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According to the ABC hypothesis about combinatorial control of floral morphogenesis, what would the unattractive flower below look like if you knocked out B function genes according to the ABC hypothesis for floral development?

Select one:
a. It would be all sepals

b. It would have one whorl of sepals and three whorls of carpels

c. It would have two whorls of sepals and two whorls of carpels

d. It would be all petals

e. It would just be missing the petals

c. It would have two whorls of sepals and two whorls of carpels

139

Which of the following are true?
Select one or more:
a. Xylem cell walls are under negative pressure.
b. When stomates are closed the force that moves water through the xylem stops.
c. If one were to inhibit sugar transport out of leaf cells by blocking ATP synthesis, phloem transport would stop.
d. In the fall, the liquid in the xylem runs from the leaves (sources) to the roots (sinks) to store sugar for the next spring.
e. Blocking guard cell function would directly inhibit phloem function.

b. When stomates are closed the force that moves water through the xylem stops.
c. If one were to inhibit sugar transport out of leaf cells by blocking ATP synthesis, phloem transport would stop

140
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The image below shows a wild type embryo (left) and a mutant embryo (right). The mutant is missing all of the segments in the shaded box, but the remaining segments look normal. A gene at which level of developmental hierarchy is probably mutated?

adfa
Select one:
a. Maternal effect genes
b. pair rule genes
c. segment polarity genes
d. hox genes
e. gap genes

e. gap genes

141

Which of the following statements is true regarding respiration in birds?
Select one:
a. Bird lungs inflate due to negative pressure in the chest cavity.
b. Bird lungs deflate due to negative pressure in the chest cavity.
c. Oxygen enters the bloodstream via crosscurrent exchange.
d. Oxygen enters the bloodstream via countercurrent exchange.
e. Respiration depends on the movement of air through spiracles.

c. Oxygen enters the bloodstream via crosscurrent exchange.

142

In the heart of a fish, where would you expect to find oxygenated blood? (look at fig. 39.19 carefully )
Select one:
a. in the right atrium
b. in the left atrium
c. in the ventricle
d. in a single atrium (fish only have one)
e.Nowhere; oxygenated blood does not pass through a fish’s heart.

e.Nowhere; oxygenated blood does not pass through a fish’s heart.

143

Circulatory systems have the primary benefit of overcoming the shortcomings of
Select one:
a. temperature differences between the lungs and the active tissue.
b. the slow rate at which diffusion occurs across cells.
c. communication systems involving only the nervous system.
d. having to cushion animals from trauma.
e. fetal organisms maintaining an optimal body temperature.

b. the slow rate at which diffusion occurs across cells.

144

Countercurrent exchange in the fish gill helps to maximize
Select one:
a. endocytosis.
b. blood pressure.
c. diffusion.
d. active transport.
e. osmosis.

c. diffusion.

145

If the partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) in a man’s blood plasma decreased below that in his red blood cells, what would be the result?

Select one:
a. More oxygen would diffuse into his red blood cells and be transported throughout his body.
b. Oxygen would diffuse out of his red blood cells, and less oxygen would be transported throughout his body.
c. The concentration of oxygen would be the same in red blood cells and blood plasma.

b. Oxygen would diffuse out of his red blood cells, and less oxygen would be transported throughout his body.

146

Much of the fluid that moves across capillary walls and into the tissues moves as a result of filtration, forced by blood pressure. O2 on the other hand travels from the capillaries into the tissues:
Select one:
a. because of a concentration gradient between O2 in the tissues and O2 in the blood.
b. because of high CO2 concentration in the tissues, created as a by-product of cellular respiration.
c. because osmotic pressure causes a net flow of O2 from the tissues into the blood.
d. because it is pumped into the tissues where it is needed.

a. because of a concentration gradient between O2 in the tissues and O2 in the blood.

147

One of the functions of the respiratory system is to rid the body of CO2. Where does the CO2 come from?
Select one:
a. CO2 is a breakdown product of the carbohydrates oxidized in cellular respiration.
b. CO2 is a breakdown product of the carbohydrates reduced in cellular respiration.
c. CO2 is produced when inhaled oxygen combines with carbon atoms from carbohydrates.
d. CO2 is produced when the oxygen atoms of water combine with carbon atoms.

a. CO2 is a breakdown product of the carbohydrates oxidized in cellular respiration.

148

The set of blood vessels with the lowest blood pressure driving flow is
Select one:
a. the arteries.
b. the arterioles.
c. the metarterioles.
d. the capillaries.
e. the veins.

e. the veins.

149

Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in reptiles and mammals?
Select one:
a. left ventricle --> aorta ---> lungs --> systemic circulation
b. right ventricle --> pulmonary vein --> pulmocutaneous circulation
c. pulmonary vein --> left atrium -->left ventricle --> pulmonary circuit
d. vena cava --> right atrium --> right ventricle --> pulmonary circuit
e. right atrium --> pulmonary artery --> left atrium --> ventricle

d. vena cava --> right atrium --> right ventricle --> pulmonary circuit

150

Which of the following types of blood vessels would have the greatest resistance to flow?
Select one:
a. veins
b. capillaries
c. venules
d. arteries
e. arterioles

b. capillaries

151

In the heart of a reptile or amphibian, where would you expect to find oxygenated blood? Select all correct choices.
Select one or more:
a. in the right atrium
b. in the left atrium
c. mixed with de-oxygenated blood in a common ventricle
d. mixed with de-oxygenated blood in the right ventricle
e. Nowhere; oxygenated blood does not travel through the heart of these animals.

b. in the left atrium
c. mixed with de-oxygenated blood in a common ventricle

152

If water passed over the gills of fish in the same direction as blood flow through the capillaries in lamellae, how would gas exchange be affected? Select all correct choices.
Select one or more:
a. Gas exchange would remain the same, regardless of the direction of water flow.
b. More oxygen would diffuse from the water into the fish’s bloodstream.
c. Less oxygen would diffuse from the water into the fish’s bloodstream.
d. More carbon dioxide would diffuse out of the fish’s bloodstream into the water.
e. Less carbon dioxide would diffuse out of the fish’s bloodstream into the water.

c. Less oxygen would diffuse from the water into the fish’s bloodstream.

153

In a mammal’s bloodstream, where would you expect to find oxygen?
Select one:
a. attached to the heme group of myoblobin in red blood cells
b. attached to the heme groups of hemoglobin in red blood cells
c. attached to the heme group of myosin in red blood cells
d. dissolved in hemolymph
Feedback

b. attached to the heme groups of hemoglobin in red blood cells

154

Decide whether each structure is a source or a sink with regards to phloem. Sugar maples are what is used to make maple syrup. They are tapped in March to withdraw the sap which is then boiled down to make syrup. (Source or Sink)
1. A leaf on a maple tree in June

2. A bud on a maple tree in early spring

3. A tomato fruit as it is turning red

4. The roots of a sugar maple tree in early spring

5. The roots of a sugar maple tree in fall

1. source

2. sink

3. sink

4. source

5. sink

155

If you were to place a dried apricot into a beaker full of water and another dried apricot into a beaker full of apricot juice (which is very sugary), which apricot would swell the most?
Select one:
a. Apricot in water
b. Apricot in apricot juice
c. They both would swell the same amount.

a. Apricot in water

156

CO2 enters the inner spaces of the leaf through the
Select one:
a. cuticle
b. epidermal trichomes
c. stomata
d. phloem
e. guard cells

c. stomata

157

A tomato fruit should be.
Select one:
a. triploid
b. diploid
c. haploid
d. polypoloid

b. diploid

158

Which of the following is an angiosperm female gametophyte?
Select one:
a. polar cells which will become the endosperm when they fuse with a sperm nuclei
b. The egg
c. The embryo sac
d. the pollen
e. the pollen sperm nucleus

c. The embryo sac

159

In vascular plants, water transport in xylem only works if ___________ (more than one answer possible).
Select one or more:
a. roots are able to generate turgor pressure
b. the water column is continuous between leaves and soil
c. H2O evaporates from leaves
d. xylem and phloem are in close proximity

b. the water column is continuous between leaves and soil
c. H2O evaporates from leaves

160

The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant and optimal internal environment is termed
Select one:
a. balanced equilibrium.
b. physiological chance.
c. homeostasis.
d. static equilibrium.
e. estivation

c. homeostasis.

161

After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by
Select one:
a. the opening of sodium activation channels.
b. the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium channels.
c. a decrease in the membrane's permeability to potassium and chloride ions.
d. a brief inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump.
e. the opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels.

b. the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium channels.

162

Immediately after an action potential passes along an axon, it is not possible to generate a second action potential; thus, we state that the membrane is briefly
Select one:
a. hyperexcitable.
b. refractory.
c. fully depolarized.
d. above threshold.
e. at the equilibrium potential.

b. refractory.

163

In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by
Select one:
a. the dendritic membrane.
b. the presynaptic membrane.
c. axon hillocks.
d. cell bodies.
e. ducts on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

b. the presynaptic membrane.

164

In the sequence of permeability changes for a complete action potential, the first of these events that occurs is
Select one:
a. the activation of the sodium-potassium "pump."
b. the inhibition of the sodium-potassium "pump."
c. the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels.
d. the closing of voltage-gated potassium channels.
e. the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels.

c. the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels.

165

Neural transmission across a mammalian synaptic gap is accomplished by
Select one:
a. the movement of sodium and potassium ions from the presynaptic neuron into the postsynaptic neuron.
b. impulses traveling as electrical currents across the gap.
c. impulses causing the release of a chemical signal and its diffusion across the gap.
d. impulses ricocheting back and forth across the gap.
e. the movement of calcium ions from the presynaptic into the postsynaptic neuron.

c. impulses causing the release of a chemical signal and its diffusion across the gap.

166

Opening all of the sodium channels, with all other ion channels closed (which is an admittedly artificial setting) on an otherwise typical neuron should move its membrane potential to
Select one:
a. -90 mV.
b. -70 mV.
c. 0 mV.
d. +30 mV.
e. +62 mV.

e. +62 mV.

167

The "threshold" potential of a membrane
Select one:
a. is the point of separation from a living to a dead neuron.
b. is the lowest frequency of action potentials a neuron can produce.
c. is the minimum hyperpolarization needed to prevent the occurrence of action potentials.
d. is the minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels.
e. is the peak amount of depolarization seen in an action potential.

d. is the minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels.

168

The fastest possible conduction velocity of action potentials is observed in
Select one:
a. thin, non-myelinated neurons.
b. thin, myelinated neurons.
c. thick, non-myelinated neurons.
d. thick, myelinated neurons.

d. thick, myelinated neurons.

169

The nucleus and most of the organelles in a neuron are located in the
Select one:
a. dendritic region.
b. axon hillock.
c. axon.
d. cell body.
e. axon terminals.

d. cell body.

170

The operation of the sodium-potassium "pump" moves
Select one:
a. sodium and potassium ions into the cell.
b. sodium and potassium ions out of the cell.
c. sodium ions into the cell and potassium ions out of the cell.
d. sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell.
e. sodium and potassium ions into the mitochondria.

d. sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell.

171

The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called
Select one:
a. the axon hillock.
b. the dendrite.
c. the synapse.
d. the cell body.
e. the glia.

c. the synapse.

172

Consider the energy budgets for a human, an elephant, a penguin, a mouse (10 g), and a snake (100 g). The ________ would have the highest total annual energy expenditure, and the ________ would have the highest energy expenditure per unit mass.
Select one:
a. elephant; mouse
b. elephant; human
c. human; penguin
d. mouse; snake
e. penguin; mouse

a. elephant; mouse

173
card image

The thin horizontal arrows in the figure below show that

Select one:
a. the warmer arterial blood can bypass the legs as needed, when the legs are too cold to function well.
b. the warmer venous blood transfers heat to the cooler arterial blood
c. the warmer arterial blood transfers heat to the cooler venous blood, so body heat is not lost through the feet.
d. the arterial blood is always cooler in the abdomen, compared to the temperature of the venous blood in the feet of the goose.
e. the goose's legs get progressively warmer as the blood moves away from the abdomen to the feet.

c. the warmer arterial blood transfers heat to the cooler venous blood, so body heat is not lost through the feet.

174

The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant and optimal internal environment is termed
Select one:
a. balanced equilibrium.
b. physiological chance.
c. homeostasis.
d. static equilibrium.
e. estivation

c. homeostasis.

175

When the temperature of the outside air exceeds their internal body temperature, jackrabbits living in hot, arid lands will. Think about how energy transfer works before answering.
Select one:
a. dilate (make larger diameter) the blood vessels in their large ears to transfer move heat from the blood to the environment.
b. constrict (make smaller diameter) the blood vessels in their large ears to reduce transfer of external heat from their ears to their bodies and seek shade.
c. increase motor movements to find a sunny area to maximize heat transfer into their bodies.
d. increase pigmentation in their ears, darkening them to maximize their capacity to take up heat.
e. begin involuntary shivering of their skeletal muscles in order to generate more metabolic heat.

b. constrict (make smaller diameter) the blood vessels in their large ears to reduce transfer of external heat from their ears to their bodies and seek shade.

176

African elephants use their ears to dissipate body heat. To aid in this process they flap their ears, and stand in the shade when the ambient air is hotter than their body temperature. Which of the following is true about this behavior?
Select one or more:
a. The elephants will dilate the blood vessels leading to and in the ears so that more blood will flow through them so as to increase heat loss to the environment.
b. A counter-current heat exchange blood vessel system runs to their ears.
c. The elephants lose heat from their ears to the environment through convection (when flapping) and radiation
d. The elephants will constrict the blood vessels to their ears so that the blood flows through more rapidly, thus dissipating heat better.
e. Ear flapping is not an example of a behavioral control of body heat because it only lowers temperature and cannot raise it.

a. The elephants will dilate the blood vessels leading to and in the ears so that more blood will flow through them so as to increase heat loss to the environment.

c. The elephants lose heat from their ears to the environment through convection (when flapping) and radiation

177

The Q10 of a system is. Careful now, choose the best definition.
Select one:
a. The change in the reaction rate when the temperature is increased 10 degrees Celsius.
b. Describes how the reaction rate doubles for every 10 degrees you change the reaction conditions for enzymes.
c. Only really meaningful in endotherms
d. Is meant to show that when you increase the temperature 2 degrees, the reaction rate should go up 10X
e. None of the above

a. The change in the reaction rate when the temperature is increased 10 degrees Celsius.

178

Which of the following are true of homeostatically controlled systems?
Select one or more:
a. Homeostatically controlled systems only occur in endotherms because they maintain a static temperature.
b. The value of the homeostatically controlled variable will oscillate up and down around a set point.
c. They use negative feedback to maintain dynamic constancy.
d. Can include homeostatic control of pH, ion concentration and sugar levels in blood in addition to temperature.
e. Unicellular organisms cannot exhibit homeostasis because they do not exhibit behavior.

b. The value of the homeostatically controlled variable will oscillate up and down around a set point.
c. They use negative feedback to maintain dynamic constancy.
d. Can include homeostatic control of pH, ion concentration and sugar levels in blood in addition to temperature.

179

Humans can lose, but cannot gain, heat through
Select one:
a. conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation
e. metabolism

d. evaporation

180
card image

The data in the chart below suggest that

d
Select one or more:
a. In general a bird of the same mass as a mammal will use slightly more energy per unit weight per day (compare the trend lines not individual data points).
b. Smaller birds and mammals need more food per unit mass
c. Large mammals are less efficient at converting food to energy.
d. Large animals use less energy than small animals because they have a higher surface to volume ratio.

a. In general a bird of the same mass as a mammal will use slightly more energy per unit weight per day (compare the trend lines not individual data points).
b. Smaller birds and mammals need more food per unit mass

181

A skeletal muscle deprived of adequate ATP supplies will
Select one:
a. immediately relax.
b. release all actin-myosin bonds.
c. enter a state where actin and myosin are unable to separate.
d. fire many more action potentials than usual and enter a state of "rigor."
e. sequester all free calcium ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

c. enter a state where actin and myosin are unable to separate.

182

An endoskeleton is the primary body support for the
Select one:
a. annelids, including earthworms.
b. insects, including beetles.
c. cartilaginous fishes, including sharks.
d. bivalves, including clams.
e. crustaceans, including lobsters.

c. cartilaginous fishes, including sharks.

183

Compared to oxidative skeletal muscle fibers, those classified as glycolytic typically have
Select one:
a. a higher concentration of myoglobin.
b. a higher density of mitochondria.
c. a darker visual appearance.
d. a smaller diameter.
e. less resistance to fatigue.

e. less resistance to fatigue.

184

In a relaxed skeletal muscle, actin is not chemically bound to
Select one:
a. myosin.
b. troponin.
c. tropomyosin.
d. Z lines

a. myosin.

185
card image

Myosin filaments without actin overlap are in which section of the figure?
Select one:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

d. D

186
card image

Overlapping actin and myosin filaments are found in which section of the figure?

Select one:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

b. B

187

The contraction of skeletal muscles is based on
Select one:
a. actin filaments coiling up to become shorter.
b. myosin filaments coiling up to become shorter.
c. actin and myosin filaments both coiling up to become shorter.
d. actin cross-bridges binding to myosin and then flexing.
e. myosin cross-bridges binding to actin and then flexing.

e. myosin cross-bridges binding to actin and then flexing.

188

What event results from the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP by the myosin head?
Select one:
a. cross-bridge formation
b. shortening of the muscle fiber
c. cocking of myosin head to its high-energy position
d. the power stroke

c. cocking of myosin head to its high-energy position

189
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Which letter(s) in the diagram of a muscle refer(s) to an individual muscle cell?

Select one:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. F
g. G
h. H
i. I

e. E

190

Muscles that contract slowly and use less ATP to generate their force contain primarily:
Select one:
a. small motor units
b. fast twitch fibers
c. slow twitch fibers
d. obtain their every primarily through anaerobic glycolytic processes

c. slow twitch fibers

191
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The diagram below represents oxygen exchange in an avian lung. The line at the top represents the flow of air through the lung. Pi represents the partial oxygen pressure of the inhaled air and Pe is the pO2 of the exhaled air (so it goes from right to left). The blood flow is represented by the network of lines below. Pv represents the pO2 of the depleted air coming to the lung (usually called venous but technically arterial). Pa represents the pO2 of the oxygenated blood (again for technical reasons it's venous but called arterial in this diagram). Each of the lines going up from the bottom represents a capillary as it gains oxygen. Indicate which of the following statements are correct using this diagram and knowledge from lecture/reading/elsewhere.

Select one or more:
a. The blood leaving the lung has a higher p02 than the air leaving the lung.
b. Avian lungs use a countercurrent method of gas exchange.
c. At the right end of the diagram the pO2 in the arteries is essentially an average of the compined pO2 of the capillaries because all of the capillaries leave in a single blood vessel to the heart
d. avian lungs use a crosscurrent method of gas exchange
e. The pCO2 should be higher in the Pi than the Pe

a. The blood leaving the lung has a higher p02 than the air leaving the lung.

c. At the right end of the diagram the pO2 in the arteries is essentially an average of the compined pO2 of the capillaries because all of the capillaries leave in a single blood vessel to the heart

d. avian lungs use a crosscurrent method of gas exchange

192
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The graph below shows the percent saturation for hemoglobin at various temperatures given different partial pressures of oxygen. Most tissues at rest have a pO2 of ~40 mm Hg. If the hemoglobin delivering oxygen to these tissues was at 10 degrees C, what would be the consequence

Select one:
a. The tissues would easily strip the hemoglobin of oxygen so that the organism can function
b. The tissues would be oxygen starved because the hemoglobin is saturated at that pO2.
c. The tissues would unload oxygen to the hemoglobin so that it would lower its saturation
d. You cannot answer this question with the information given.

b. The tissues would be oxygen starved because the hemoglobin is saturated at that pO2.

193
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If we assume that the blood leaving the "gas exchange with outside world" capillary bed is all at the same pO2 (not the case in the real world), which of these systems would have the lowest pO2 in the "gas exchange with cells" capillary beds? Remember to think about the advantages/disadvantages of the two, three and four chambered hearts.

Select one:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. They would all be the same
e. It is impossible to tell from the information given.

b. B

194
card image

Which of the following can control the pressure of the pulmonary and systemic capillary beds separately?

Select one:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. A, B
e. B,C
f. A, C
g. A, B, C
h. None of them can

c. C

195

Neural transmission across a mammalian synaptic gap is accomplished by
Select one:
a. the movement of sodium and potassium ions from the presynaptic neuron into the postsynaptic neuron.
b. impulses traveling as electrical currents across the gap.
c. impulses causing the release of a chemical signal and its diffusion across the gap.
d. impulses ricocheting back and forth across the gap.
e. the movement of calcium ions from the presynaptic into the postsynaptic neuron.

c. impulses causing the release of a chemical signal and its diffusion across the gap.

196

The nucleus and most of the organelles in a neuron are located in the
Select one:
a. dendritic region.
b. axon hillock.
c. axon.
d. cell body.
e. axon terminals.

d. cell body.

197

If a cell normally has an intracellular concentration of 200 mM K+ and an extracellular concentration of 9 mM K+ what would happen to the membrane potential if you artificially raise the external concentration to 60 mM. Assume that the membrane is highly permeable to K+ and much less so to other ions. (you may find that the nernst goldman application linked in the quiz header) Open the app, choose Nernst and click on K+. Now set the intra and extra-cellular potassium amounts either by sliding the sliders or just clicking and entering the numbers. Then change the extracellular and observe how the membrane potential alters.
Select one:
a. the membrane potential will become more positive
b. the membrane potential will become more negative
c. the nernst potential will become more negative
d. the membrane potential will remain the same

a. the membrane potential will become more positive

198

The Nernst potential, or equilibrium potential can be calculated with the following formula
E=62mV(log Co/Ci)
where Co represents concentration outside of the cell and Ci represents concentration in the cell.
What is the Nernst potential for a cell that has 200 mM K+ inside and 10 mM K+ outside
(just answer the number, round up to a whole number and no units) -- the units are mV.
You may find the nernst/goldman application helpful, but remember the nernst equation I'm giving you is for 37 degrees not room temperature.

-81

199

A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics?
I. live and reproduce in the same general area
II. belonging to the same species
III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion

Select one:
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III

c. I and II only

200

An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?
Select one:
a. density
b. dispersion
c. carrying capacity
d. cohorts
e. range

a. density

201

Which of the following choices would most likely promote random distribution?
Select one:
a. territorial species
b. species that secrete chemicals to attract or inhibit other individuals
c. flocking and schooling behaviros
d. spacing during the breeding season
e. homogeneous chemical and physical factors in the environment

e. homogeneous chemical and physical factors in the environment

202

Consider two forests: one is an undisturbed old-growth forest, while the other has recently been logged. In which forest are species likely to experience exponential growth, and why?
Select one:
a. Old growth, because of stable conditions that would favor exponential growth of all species in the forest.
b. Old growth, because each of the species is well established and can produce many offspring.
c. Logged, because the disturbed forest affords more resources for increased specific populations to grow.
d. Logged, because the various populations are stimulated to a higher reproductive potential.
e. Exponential growth is equally probable in old-growth and logged forests.

c. Logged, because the disturbed forest affords more resources for increased specific populations to grow.

203

Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic population growth?
Select one:
a. increased birth rate
b. removal of predators
c. decreased death rate
d. competition for resources
e. favorable climatic conditions

d. competition for resources

204

Which of the following is characteristic of K-strategists?
Select one:
a. Have offspring with good chances of survival
b. Have many offspring per reproductive episode
c. Have small offspring
d. Have a high intrinsic growth rate
e. Early parental reproduction

a. Have offspring with good chances of survival

205

Which of the following is most likely to contribute to density-dependent regulation of populations?
Select one:
a. the removal of toxic waste by decomposers
b. intra-specific competition for nutrients
c. floods
d. fires

b. intra-specific competition for nutrients

206

Why do populations grow more slowly as they approach their carrying capacity?
Select one:
a. Density-dependent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.
b. Density-independent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.
c. Hormonal changes promote higher death rates in crowded populations.
d. Individuals voluntarily stop mating so that overcrowding does not occur.
e. The incoming energy decreases in populations experiencing a high rate of increase.

a. Density-dependent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.

207
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Which curve below best describes survivorship in small mammals?

Select one:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

c. C

208
card image

Which curve best describes survivorship in a sparrow (a small bird)
Select one:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

c. C

209
card image

Which population(s) is (are) in the process of increasing?

Select one:
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. I and II
e. I and III
f. I, II, and III

a. I

210
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Match the letter to the event/potential

1. Na+ nernst potential

2. K+ nernst potential

3, threshold potential

4. Voltage gated sodium channels are open

5. Voltage gated potassium channels are open

1. a

2. f

3. e

4. g

5. c

211

After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by
Select one:
a. the opening of sodium activation channels.
b. the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium channels.
c. a decrease in the membrane's permeability to potassium and chloride ions.
d. a brief inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump.
e. the opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels.

b. the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium channels.

212

For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at -70 mV, an increase in the movement of sodium ions into that neuron's cytoplasm would result in the _____.
Select one:
a. depolarization of the neuron
b. hyperpolarization of the neuron
c. replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions
d. replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions
e. neuron switching on its sodium-potassium pump to restore the initial conditions

a. depolarization of the neuron

213
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1. Z-line made of alpha-actinin

2. myosin

3. actin

4. thin filament

5. thick filament

6. sarcoplasmic reticulum

7. muscle fiber

8. myofibril

9. sarcomere

1. a

2. b

3. c

4. c

5. b

6. e

7.f

8. g

9. d

214
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At which step does mysoin have the lowest affinity for (least likely to be bound to) actin?

Select one:
a. Step A
b. Step B
c. Step C
d. Step D

b. Step B

215

AMP-PNP is a non-hydrolyzable analog of ATP that can be used in the lab (it is not synthesized by organisms). Myosin can bind AMP-PNP, but it does not become ADP + Pi. If you were to use this instead of ATP in the glycerated rabbit muscle experiment we saw in class what results would you expect (assume you add a huge concentration of AMP-PNP so that any residual ATP in the tissue is insignificant)?
Select one:
a. The muscles would contract but couldn't relax.
b. the muscles would be unable to relax (as in rigor mortis)
c. The muscles cells would contract as usual, but that would be unable to do it again.
d. The muscles cells would relax, but would not be able to contract.
e. they myosin would do a power stroke without attaching to actin

d. The muscles cells would relax, but would not be able to contract.

216

If you were to add a cation ionophore (a chemical that allows positive ions to diffuse freely across a membrane) to a neuron, which of the following would be true? (more than one answer possible)
Select one or more:
a. The membrane potential would become more negative because more K+ could cross
b. The action potential would get to a more positive depolarization because more Na+ can move across the membrane.
c. The membrane potential would disappear as the ions equilibrated across the membrane.
d. The cell would not be able to depolarize.
e. The cell would not be able to initiate an action potential (depolarize)

c. The membrane potential would disappear as the ions equilibrated across the membrane.

e. The cell would not be able to initiate an action potential (depolarize)

217

According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same
Select one:
a. habitat.
b. niche.
c. territory.
d. range.
e. biome.

b. niche.

218

Approximately how many kg of carnivore biomass can be supported by a field plot containing 1,000 kg of plant material?
Select one:
a. 10,000
b. 1,000
c. 100
d. 10
e. 1

d. 10

219

Because energy transfer is not 100% efficient across trohpic levels, a maximum of about ______% of energy and biomass available at one trophic level is available at the next
Select one:
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
e. 20

c. 10

220

Elephants are not the most dominant species in African grasslands, yet they influence community structure. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. Take away the elephants, and the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Which of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species in this scenario?
Select one:
a. Essentially all of the other species depend on the presence of the elephants to maintain the community.
b. Grazing animals depend upon the elephants to convert forests to grassland.
c. Elephants prevent drought in African grasslands.
d. Elephants are the biggest herbivore in this community.
e. Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many of the large African predators.

a. Essentially all of the other species depend on the presence of the elephants to maintain the community.

221

In a pond, tadpoles eat algae and fish eat the tadpoles. Above the pond, grasshoppers eat grass and, at night, are preyed upon by bats. Other bats eat the fish that eat the tadpoles. In this community, the algae are:
Select one:
a. Primary producers
b. Primary consumers
c. Secondary consumers
d. Tertiary consumers
e. Detrivores

a. Primary producers

222

In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n)
Select one:
a. pathogen.
b. keystone species.
c. herbivore.
d. resource partitioner.
e. mutualistic organism.

b. keystone species.

223

Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between
Select one:
a. sympatric populations of a predator and its prey.
b. sympatric populations of species with similar ecological niches.
c. sympatric populations of a flowering plant and its specialized insect pollinator.
d. allopatric populations of the same animal species.
e. allopatric populations of species with similar ecological niches.

b. sympatric populations of species with similar ecological niches.

224

Which of the following best describes resource partitioning?
Select one:
a. competitive exclusion that results in the success of the superior species
b. slight variations in niche that allow similar species to coexist
c. two species that can coevolve to share identical niches
d. differential resource utilization that results in a decrease in community species diversity
e. a climax community that is reached when no new niches are available

b. slight variations in niche that allow similar species to coexist

225

Which of the following terms is used by ecologists to describe the community interaction where one organism makes the environment more suitable for another organism?
Select one:
a. parasitism
b. mutualism
c. inhibition
d. facilitation
e. commensalism

d. facilitation

226

White-breasted nuthatches and Downy woodpeckers both eat insects that hide in the furrows of bark in hardwood trees. The Downy woodpecker searches for insects by hunting from the bottom of the tree trunk to the top, whereas the white-breasted nuthatch searches from the top of the trunk down. These hunting behaviors best illustrate which of the following ecological concepts?
Select one:
a. competitive exclusion
b. resource partitioning
c. character displacement
d. keystone species
e. bottom-up and top-down hypotheses

b. resource partitioning

227

Why are food chains relatively short?
Select one:
a. Top-level feeders tend to be more numerous than lower-trophic-level species.
b. Top-level feeders tend to be small but are capable of conserving more energy.
c. Longer chains are less stable and energy transfer between levels is inefficient.
d. There are only so many organisms that are adapted to feed on other types of organisms.
e. Food chain length is ultimately determined by the photosynthetic efficiency of producers.

c. Longer chains are less stable and energy transfer between levels is inefficient.

228

As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation?
Select one:
a. The growth rate will not change.
b. The growth rate will approach zero.
c. The growth rate will increase
d. The population will increase exponentially.
e. The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.

b. The growth rate will approach zero.

229

A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the number of individuals added to a population of 1,000 individuals in one year (so that is the growth of the population.
Select one:
a. 120
b. 40
c. 20
d. 400

b. 40

230
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Which of the following statements are true about the age structure pyramids for China shown below.

Select one or more:
a. In 1980 if trends had continued the population would have begun negative growth.
b. The data from 2010 suggests that the population should begin to experience negative growth.
c. Each couple in 1980 was probably only having 2 children.
d. By 2010 couples were probably having fewer than 2 children on average.

b. The data from 2010 suggests that the population should begin to experience negative growth.

d. By 2010 couples were probably having fewer than 2 children on average.

231

Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion?
Select one:
a. Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites.
b. The random distribution of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species.
c. Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species.
d. Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.
e. Natural selection tends to increase competition between related species.

d. Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.

232

Which of the following are density dependent limits on the population growth of a field mouse species?
Select one or more:
a. drought (not enough rain)
b. Kitty cats
c. communicable diseases
d. forest fire

b. Kitty cats
c. communicable diseases

233
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The curve below shows the growth rate of a population that has a per capita growth rate of 0.4. Which of the following is true about this curve. More than one is possible.
Select one or more:
a. r becomes greater as the population grows because there are more births per year.
b. There are more births per generation as you move right on the graph
c. exponential growth is most often observed in stable populations that have resided in an environment for a long time.
d. The slope of the curve changes continuously as you move to the right even though r remains the same

b. There are more births per generation as you move right on the graph

d. The slope of the curve changes continuously as you move to the right even though r remains the same

234

Glacier Bay in Alaska is a fjord whose lowlands were covered by glacial ice until around 230 years ago. As the glacier retreated, glacial till was exposed to plant colonization; remarkably (and fortunately for generations of ecologists), the location of the tip of the retreating glacier has been frequently documented since the late 1700’s. One of the first species to colonize a newly exposed area of glacial till is fireweed. Many of its seeds will fall on rock and be unable to germinate, but some will find purchase, few of these will reach reproductive maturity. Which terms most appropriately characterizes fireweed?
Select one:
a. K-strategist
b. r-strategist
c. keystone species
d. dominant species

b. r-strategist

235

An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?
Select one:
a. density
b. dispersion
c. carry capacity
d. per capita growth rate
e. range

a. density

236

In the Sierra Nevada Mountains of California there are many populations of the checkerspot butterfly Euphydryas editha. You notice that females of one population lay their eggs near the tip of a plant’s stem (population A). Females of another population in the same area lay their eggs at the base of the stem on a different type of plant (population B). The young hatch out as caterpillars; they live on the host plant and eat its leaves.
Select one:
a. reduced competition through resource partitioning
b. reduced competition through competitive exlusion
c. increased speciation rate through resource partitioning
d. decreased speciation rate through resource partitioning
e. a larger niche in their natural environment

a. reduced competition through resource partitioning

237

How might an ecologist test whether a species is occupying its realized or its fundamental niche?
Select one:
a. Study the temperature range and humidity requirements of the species.
b. Observe if the niche size changes after the addition of nutritional resources to the habitat.
c. Observe if the niche size changes after the introduction of a similar non-native species.
d. Measure the change in reproductive success when the species is subjected to environmental stress.
e.Remove a competitor species to see if the species expands its range.

e.Remove a competitor species to see if the species expands its range.

238
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In the experiment we talked about in class two paramecium species were grown individually (top) or separately (bottom). Which of the following are true statements regarding these data?

Select one or more:
a. K for P. bursaria when grown on its own is ~110 (individuals/mL)
b. Grown on its own both paramecium species show logistic growth
c. P. bursaria grows more slowly when the organisms are grown together because of competitive exclusion
d. Grown together the species have partitioned the food resources of the flask and so never reach the same population density
e. The growth shown in the last experiment is an example of commensalism

a. K for P. bursaria when grown on its own is ~110 (individuals/mL)
b. Grown on its own both paramecium species show logistic growth

d. Grown together the species have partitioned the food resources of the flask and so never reach the same population density

239

Recall that sedimentary rocks, living organisms, oceans, and soil are all carbon reservoirs. If the carbon in each of these reservoirs was instantly transformed into atmospheric CO2, which reservoir would contribute the most CO2 to the CO2 atmosphere?
Select one:
a. sedimentary rocks
b. living organisms
c. oceans
d. soil

a. sedimentary rocks

240

What can Antarctic ice core samples tell us about atmospheric CO2 levels? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a. Nothing―ice is made of H2O and not CO2.
b. CO2 ice core data confirms CO2 measurements taken directly from the atmosphere.
c. Ice cores can help scientists estimate atmospheric CO2 levels from centuries ago.
d. Ice cores can tell scientists exactly what plants lived on Earth centuries ago.

b. CO2 ice core data confirms CO2 measurements taken directly from the atmosphere.
c. Ice cores can help scientists estimate atmospheric CO2 levels from centuries ago.

241
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As shown in the figure below, atmospheric CO2 levels oscillate over the course of the year.Which biological process accounts for maximum CO2 levels observed in spring (May) and for lowest CO2 levels observed in fall (September)?

monthly co2
Select one:
a. photosynthesis
b. animal respiration
c. weathering of inorganic materials

a. photosynthesis

242
card image

Order the carbon reservoirs in the list below from smallest to largest:

1.atmosphere

2.terrestrial vegetation

3.surface water

4.deep oceans

5.organic matter in soil

6.sedimentary rock

1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 5

5. 4

6. 6

243
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Examine the figure below, which shows the parallel history of atmospheric CO2 levels and surface temperature over the last 400,000 years based on measurements of air bubbles trapped in glacial ice sheets in Antarctica. Glacial expansion correlates with ____________ amounts of CO2 in the atmosphere and temperatures ____________ than those measured in 1950.

Select one:
a. decreasing; lower
b. increasing; higher

b. increasing; higher

244

Using records taken by Henry David Thoreau in the 1840’s, scientists have documented what pattern of change in flowering plants around Boston, Massachusetts?
Select one:
a. As temperatures have warmed, flowering occurs earlier in many species.
b. As temperatures have warmed, flowering occurs later in many species.
c. As temperatures have become more variable, flowering occurs earlier in many species.
d. As temperatures have become more variable, flowering occurs later in many species.
e. As extreme weather events have become more common, flowering occurs earlier in many species.

a. As temperatures have warmed, flowering occurs earlier in many species.

245
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According to this figure, mean temperature changes from 1940–1980 and 1999–2008 have been greatest:

Select one:
a. in Australia
b. in southern Africa
c. near the equator
d. in South America
e. in the northern hemisphere

e. in the northern hemisphere

246

Researchers have found that:
Select one:
a. Increasing acidification of the oceans does not impact coral skeleton formation.
b. The increasingly alkaline oceans have impacted the ability of corals to build skeletons.
c. The increasingly acidic oceans have impacted the ability of corals to build skeleton.
d. most marine organisms, including corals, are completely unaffected by ocean acidification.
e. The increasing acidification of the oceans has caused coral to build stronger skeletons.

c. The increasingly acidic oceans have impacted the ability of corals to build skeleton.

247

Oceans are about ____________ more acidic than they were in the 1960’s.
Select one:
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 30%
e. 40%

d. 30%

248

In chapter 48 of Morris, the authors write that about ____________ of the CO2 produced by humans during the past century has been absorbed by the ocean.
Select one:
a. 1/4
b. 1/3
c. 1/6
d. 1/8
e. 1/16

b. 1/3