Advanced Radiographic Procedures Flashcards


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Chapter 15 Test Review
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1

Which of the following imaging modalities is often used to diagnose pulmonary emboli?

Nuclear Medicine

2

Which imaging modality is often used to diagnose an ectopic pregnancy?

Ultrasound

3

Which of the following terms best describes a partial dislocation of a joint?

Subluxation

4

A bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture is termed an

contusion

5

Which term describes a misalignment of a distal fracture fragment that is angled toward the midline?

Varus deformity

6

Which type of fracture is defined as being crushed at the site of impact, producing two or more fragments?

Comminuted

7

Which of the following fractures is described as an incomplete fracture with the cortex broken on one side of the bone?

Greenstick

8

Which of the following is not a fracture but a subluxation?

Nursemaids' elbow

9

Which of the following fractures is often called a reverse Colles' with anterior displacement of the distal radius?

Smith's

10

Which of the following fractures usually involves the spine?

Compression

11

Which type of procedure would be performed in surgery to realign a fracture?

open reduction

12

Generally, only one joint needs to be included for follow-up studies of a long bone fracture.

True or False

True

13

A fracture in which the bone is broken into three pieces, with the middle fragment fractured at both ends, is termed ______ fracture.

segmental

14

A fracture that occurs through the pedicles of the axis (C2), with or without displacement of C2 or C3, is termed ______ fracture.

hangman's

15

Which fracture is also called a "march fracture"?

Stress

16

A fragment of bone that is separated or pulled away by the attached tendon or ligament is termed a(n) _____ fracture.

avulsion

17

With high-level fluoroscopy (HLF), the maximum exposure rate cannot exceed 20 R/min.

True or False

True

18

Because of radiation exposure to the head and neck region, the C-arm should not be placed in the posteroanterior (PA) projection tube alignment.

True or False

False

19

_____ is used to create an x-ray beam that activates at timed increments to reduce exposure during C-arm fluoroscopy.

Pulse mode

20

A self-propelled, battery-driven mobile x-ray unit will generally go up a maximum incline of

7 degrees

21

What is the minimum distance a technologist should stand away from the x-ray tube during an exposure when using a mobile x-ray unit?

6 feet

22

Which one of the three cardinal rules of radiation protection is the most effective means of reducing exposure during mobile and surgical procedures?

Distance

23

Which of the C-arm orientations in general results in the greatest exposure to the operator's head region if the distance from the patient is unchanged (patient is supine).

Anteroposterior (AP) projection (x-ray tube above anatomy)

24

A radiographer receives 400 mR/hr standing 1 foot from a C-arm fluoroscopy unit. What is the exposure rate if the radiographer moves to a distance of 3 feet?

25 to 50 mR/hr

25

Where should the operator (or surgeon) stand when using a C-arm fluoroscopy unit in a horizontal central ray (CR) position?

Intensifier end of the C-arm

26

A 30 degree tilt of the C-arm x-ray tube from the vertical position will increase radiation exposure to the face and neck region of the operator standing next to the C-arm by approximately a factor of

4

27

How should the CR be aligned for an AP projection of the chest?

perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum

28

A patient enters the emergency department with a possible pneumothorax of the right lung. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which specific position should be performed to diagnose this condition?

left lateral decubitus position

29

A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured sternum. The patient is supine and unable to lie prone. Which of the following routines best demonstrates the sternum?

LPO and horizontal beam lateral (RPO and lateral recumbent???)

30

How much rotation is required for an AP oblique projection of the sternum on a hypersthenic patient?

15 degrees

31

What type of "holding breath" instructions should be given for an AP projection (patient supine) of the ribs located above the diaphragm?

Expose upon inspiration

32

Which of the following positions or projections best demonstrates free intra-abdominal air on the patient who cannot stand or sit erect?

Left lateral decubitus

33

A patient comes to the ED with a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following projections of the abdomen best demonstrates it?

Dorsal Decubitus

34

What is the primary disadvantage of performing a PA thumb over an AP projection?

Results in an increase in object image receptor distance (OID).

35

Postreduction projection of the upper and lower limbs generally require only the joint nearest to the fracture site.

True or False

True

36

A patient enters the ED with a fractured forearm. The physician reduces the fracture and places a fiberglass cast on the forearm. The initial analog technique was 55 kv and 5 mAs. Which of the following technical factors is best for the postreduction study?

65 kv and 5 mAs

37

How should the CR be aligned for a trauma PA projection of the elbow?

Perpendicular to the interepicondylar plane

38

A patient enters the ED with a possible shoulder dislocation. Because of his multiple injuries, the patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which of the following routines best demonstrates the dislocation?

AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projections

39

A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured scapula. Because of her multiple injuries, the patient is on a backboard. Which of the following technique's is most helpful in providing a lateral view of the scapula if the patient is unable to rotate the affected shoulder adequately?

Angle the CR lateromedial and parallel to the scapular body

40

What CR angulation should be used for an AP projection of the clavicle on an asthenic patient?

20 degrees cephalad

41

An ankle series would best demonstrate a Pott fracture.

True or False

True

42

A patient's lower leg is in traction in the hospital bed. The orthopedic surgeon orders an AP mortise projection of the ankle. Because of the traction, the lower leg cannot be rotated. The leg is in a straight "foot up" position. What can the radiographer do to achieve this AP mortise projection?

Perform a CR 15 degree to 20 degree lateromedial anlge AP projection

43

A patient enter the ED on a backboard with multiple injuries, including an injury to the knee region with a possible stellate fracture noted on the examination requisition. Which of the following routines best demonstrates this injury safely?

AP and horizontal beam lateral projections of the knee and patella without knee flexion

44

Which of the following projections best produces an unobstructed view of the fibular head and neck without rotation of the lower leg (with patient in supine position)?

CR 45 degrees mediolaterally

45

How is the CR aligned for an axiolateral, inferosuperior (Danelius-MIller) projection?

Perpendicular to femoral neck

46

A patient enters the ED with a possible cervical spine fracture. The inital AP and lateral projections were negative for fracture. The ED physician wants a projection to demonstrate the vertebral pedicles. Which of the following projections would demonstrate these structures safely?

CR 15 cephalic and 45 lateromedial

cassette angled 45 degrees under table to match cr angle and reduce magnifacation

47

Focused grids are recommended for mobile chest studies.

True or False

False

48

Ideally, the horizontal beam lateral projections for the cervical spine require a ______ source image receptor distance (SID).

60 to 72 inch (153-180 cm)

49

The horizontal beam lateral lumbar spine projection requires a CR position that is

perpendicular to the image receptor

50

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate an air-fluid level within the skull with the patient recumbent?

Horizontal beam lateral

51

The AP reverse Caldwell projection for a trauma skull examination requires the CR be

15 degrees cephalad to OML

52

How is the CR aligned for the acanthiomeatal (reverse waters) projection for the facial bones?

Parallel to the mentomeatal line (MML)

53

A patient enters the ED with a possible greenstick fracture. Which age group does this type of fracture usually affect?

Pediatric

54

Subluxation is best described as a

partial dislocation

55

A patient enters the ED with a possible Monteggia fracture. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed?

Horizontal beam PA and lateral forearm projections

56

A patient enters the ED with a possible blow-out fracture involving the orbits. The patient is restricted to a backboard because of trauma. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed?

AP 30 and axial horizontal beam lateral skull

57

What should a technologist do if the sterile field is violated during a surgical procedure?

Notify a member of the surgical team immediately

58

Which one of the following devices is best during a C-arm hip pinning procedure to protect the sterile environment?

Shower curtain

59

Asepsis is defined as a(n)

absence of infectious organisms

60

OR tables are considered sterile only at the level of the tabletop.

True or False

True

61

The entire sterile gown, worn by the surgeon, is considered sterile.

True or False

False

62

Only sterile items are allowed within the sterile field.

True or False

True

63

Shoe covers are not required in the presurgical or recovery areas.

True or False

False

64

An aerosol cleaner should be used in cleaning the C-arm in surgery before a procedure.

True or False

False

65

Which one of the following methods will best reduce patient dosage during a fluoroscopic procedure in surgery?

Use intermittent fluoro

66

"Boost" exposures used during C-arm procedures are intended to

increase brightness of image

67

The primary clinical indication for an operative cholangiogram is

biliary calculi

68

When performing convential imaging during an operative cholangiogram, the IR is placed in a special metal tray called a

"pizza pan"

69

Typically, how much contrast media is injected by the surgeon during an operative cholangiogram?

6 to 8 mL

70

Which of the following modifications must be made if the OR table is tilted while imaging during an operative cholangiogram using analog imaging?

grid cassette is placed crosswise

71

Which one of the following structures is not typically visualized during an operative cholangiogram?

stensons duct

72

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

The procedure is performed without anesthetic in radiology

73

Retrograde urography is classified as a nonfunctioning study of the urinary system?

True of False

True

74

A laparoscope is used during the retrograde urogram.

True or False

False

75

The urologist will withdraw the urethral catheter before imaging during a retrograde pyelogram.

True or False

False

76

The retrograde pyelogram is intended to demonstrate the collecting structures of the kidney only.

True of False

True

77

The abbreviation ORIF refers to

open reduction internal fixation

78

Which of the following procedures is a nonsurgical procedure?

Closed reduction

79

Which one of the following devices is classified as an external fixator?

llizarov device

80

Which device is commonly used during a hip pinning to reduce a fracture of the proximal femur?

Cannulated screw assembly

81

What type of orthopecic fixator is commonly used to reduce midhumeral fractures?

Intramedulliary nail

82

Arthroplasty is a formal term describing a(n)

Total Hip Replacement

83

What is the newer type of prosthetic device being used for total hip replacements?

Modular bipolar endoprosthesis

84

A surgical procedure to remove a small portion of the bone that is impinging the nerve root is termed

laminectomy

85

Which of the following devices is an alternative to traditional spinal fusion procedures

interbody fusion cage

86

Which one of the following procedures used a high-powered steroscopic microsope to provide illumination and magnification of the impinged nerve and surrounding structures?

microdiskectomy

87

Which procedure may require the use of Luque or Harrington rods?

Scholiosis corrective procedure

88

Which procedure introduces orthopedic cement directly into the weakened vertebrae?

Vertebroplasty

89

An orthopedic wire that tightens around a fracture site to reduce shortening of a limb is a ______ wire.

cerclage

90

Electrohydraulic shock wave used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system is the definition for

ESWL

91

Soaking of moisture through a sterile or nonsterile drape, cover, or protective barrier permitting bacteria to reach sterile areas is generally termed

strike through

92

In orthopedic terms, CR refers to

closed reduction

93

An internal pacemaker implantation can be performed under local anesthetic.

True of False

True

94

Baseball fractures=

Mallet fractures

95

Hutchinson's fractures=

Chauffeur's fractures

96

Reverse Colles' fracture=

Smith fracture

97

Simple fracture=

Closed fracture

98

Blow-out fracture=

Tripod fracture

99

Greenstick fracture=

Hickory-stick fracture

100

Stress or fatigue fracture=

March fracture