AP bio test 2,3,6 Flashcards


Set Details Share
created 7 years ago by Matt_Obrecki
4,314 views
updated 7 years ago by Matt_Obrecki
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:
1

About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?
A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen
B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen
C) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen
D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
E) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium

Answer: D

2

Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates, but not by other organisms such as bacteria or plants?
A) nitrogen
B) calcium
C) iodine
D) sodium
E) phosphorus

Answer: C

3

Which of the following statements is false?
A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the most abundant elements of living matter.
B) Some trace elements are very abundant on Earth.
C) Virtually all organisms require the same elements in the same quantities.
D) Iron is an example of an element needed by all organisms.
E) Other than some trace elements, animals are mostly made up of the same elements as plants, in similar proportions.

Answer: C

4

What factors are most important in determining which elements are most common in living matter?
A) the relative abundances of the elements in Earth's crust and atmosphere
B) the emergent properties of the simple compounds made from these elements
C) the reactivity of the elements with water
D) the chemical stability of the elements
E) both the relative abundances of the elements and the emergent properties of the compounds made from these elements

Answer: E

5

Why is each element unique and different from other elements in chemical properties?
A) Each element has a unique atomic mass.
B) Each element has a unique atomic weight.
C) Each element has a unique number of protons in its nucleus.
D) Each element has a unique number of neutrons in its nucleus.
E) Each element has different radioactive properties.

Answer: C

6

Knowing just the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?
A) the chemical properties of the element
B) the number of protons in the element
C) the number of neutrons in the element
D) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
E) both the number of protons and the chemical properties of the element

Answer: D

7

In what way are elements in the same column of the periodic table the same?
A) They have the same number of protons.
B) They have the same number of neutrons.
C) They have the same number of electrons.
D) They have the same number of electrons in their valence shell.
E) They have the same number of electron shells.

Answer: D

8

Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 16. Thus, what is the atomic mass of an oxygen atom?
A) exactly 8 grams
B) exactly 8 daltons
C) approximately 16 grams
D) approximately 16 daltons
E) 24 amu (atomic mass units)

Answer: D

9

) The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen?
A) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 daltons and an atomic mass of 14.
B) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 daltons and an atomic mass of 7.
C) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of 7 grams.
D) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 7 and an atomic number of 14.
E) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of approximately 14 daltons.

Answer: E

10

Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with mass numbers of 92, 94, 95, 96, 97, 98, and 100. Therefore, which of the following can be true?
A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.
B) The isotopes of molybdenum have different electron configurations.
C) The isotopes of molybdenum can have between 50 and 58 protons.
D) The isotopes of molybdenum have between 50 and 58 neutrons and have different electron configurations.
E) The isotopes of molybdenum have between 50 and 58 protons and have different electron configurations.

Answer: A

11

Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon, and has an atomic mass of 12 daltons. A mole of carbon in naturally occurring coal, however, weighs slightly more than 12 grams. Why?
A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons.
B) Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton.
C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons.
D) Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution.
E) Some carbon atoms in nature have undergone radioactive decay.

Answer: C

12

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below? [SEE IMAGE]
A) They are isomers.
B) They are polymers.
C) They are isotopes.
D) They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively.
E) They each contain 1 neutron.

Answer: C

13

The precise weight of a mole of some pure elements like silicon (Si) can vary slightly from the standard atomic mass, or even from sample to sample. Why?
A) The element may undergo radioactive decay.
B) The element may react with itself and gain or lose subatomic particles.
C) The atoms of the element form chemical bonds with each other, and that changes the weight of the element.
D) The element may have multiple stable isotopes, and the isotopic composition may vary from sample to sample.
E) The amount of energy absorbed by the element affects the mass of its electrons, and thus the atomic mass can vary slightly.

Answer: D

14

One difference between carbon-12 (12/6 C) is that carbon-14 (14/6 C) has
A) two more protons than carbon-12.
B) two more electrons than carbon-12.
C) two more neutrons than carbon-12.
D) two more protons and two more neutrons than carbon-12.
E) two more electrons and two more neutrons than carbon-12.

Answer: C

15

An atom has 6 electrons in its outer shell. How many unpaired electrons does it have?
A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 2 or 4

Answer: B

16

The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen-15 is heavier than nitrogen-14 because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen-15 contains how many neutrons?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 12
E) 14

Answer: C

17

Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that
A) an electron may move to an electron shell farther away from the nucleus.
B) an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
C) the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
D) the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation, and become a radioactive isotope.
E) the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.

Answer: A

18

The atomic number of neon is 10. Therefore, which of the following is most correct about an atom of neon?
A) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell.
B) It is inert.
C) It has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.
D) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell and it is inert.
E) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell, it is inert, and it has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.

Answer: D

19

From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has
A) 15 neutrons.
B) 15 protons.
C) 15 electrons.
D) 8 electrons in its outermost electron shell.
E) 15 protons and 15 electrons.

Answer: E

20

Atoms whose outer electron shells contain 8 electrons tend to
A) form ions in aqueous solutions.
B) form hydrogen bonds in aqueous solutions.
C) be stable and chemically nonreactive, or inert.
D) be gaseous at room temperature.
E) be both chemically inert and gaseous at room temperature.

Answer: E

21

The atomic number of each atom is given to the left of each of the elements below. Which of the atoms has the same valence as carbon (12/6 C)?
A) ₇N nitrogen
B) ₉F flourine
C) ₁₀Ne neon
D) ₁₂Mg magnesium
E) ₁₄Si silicon

Answer: E

22

Two atoms appear to have the same mass number. These atoms
A) must have the same atomic number.
B) must have the same number of electrons.
C) must have the same chemical properties.
D) must have the same number of protons + neutrons.
E) must have the same atomic number, the same number of protons + neutrons, the same number of electrons, and the same chemical properties.

Answer: D

23

Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19. How many electrons are needed to complete the valence shell of a fluorine atom?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 0
D) 7
E) 9

Answer: A

24

24) What is the maximum number of electrons in a single 2 p orbital of an atom?

Chapter 2

2

In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by
A) hydrogen bonds.
B) nonpolar covalent bonds.
C) polar covalent bonds.
D) ionic bonds.
E) van der Waals interactions.

Answer: C

2

The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?
A) a covalent bond
B) a hydrogen bond
C) an ionic bond
D) a hydrophilic bond
E) a van der Waals interaction

Answer: B

3

The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because
A) the oxygen atom acquires an additional electron.
B) the electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time around the oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus.
C) the oxygen atom has two pairs of electrons in its valence shell that are not neutralized by hydrogen atoms.
D) the oxygen atom forms hybrid orbitals that distribute electrons unequally around the oxygen nucleus.
E) one of the hydrogen atoms donates an electron to the oxygen atom.

Answer: B

4

Sulfur is in the same column of the periodic table as oxygen, but has electronegativity similar to carbon. Compared to water molecules, molecules of H₂S
A) will ionize more readily.
B) will have greater cohesion to other molecules of H₂S.
C) will have a greater tendency to form hydrogen bonds with each other.
D) will have a higher capacity to absorb heat for the same change in temperature.
E) will not form hydrogen bonds with each other.

Answer: E

5

Water molecules are able to form hydrogen bonds with
A) compounds that have polar covalent bonds.
B) oils.
C) oxygen gas (O₂) molecules.
D) chloride ions.
E) any compound that is not soluble in water.

Answer: A

6

Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water?
A) Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
B) A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
C) Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.
D) Evaporation of sweat from the skin helps to keep people from overheating.
E) Water flows upward from the roots to the leaves in plants.

Answer: B

7

Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?
A) Molecular collisions in the drink increase.
B) Kinetic energy in the drink decreases.
C) A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink.
D) The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases.
E) Evaporation of the water in the drink increases.

Answer: B

8

A dietary Calorie equals 1 kilocalorie. Which of the following statements correctly defines 1 kilocalorie?
A) 1,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1,000°C
B) 100 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 100 g of water by 1°C
C) 10,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°F
D) 1,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C
E) 1,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 100 g of water by 100°C

Answer: D

9

The nutritional information on a cereal box shows that one serving of a dry cereal has 200 kilocalories. If one were to burn one serving of the cereal, the amount of heat given off would be sufficient to raise the temperature of 20 kg of water how many degrees Celsius?
A) 0.2°C
B) 1.0°C
C) 2.0°C
D) 10.0°C
E) 20.0°C

Answer: D

10

Liquid water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the
A) small size of the water molecules.
B) high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
C) absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.
D) fact that water is a poor heat conductor.
E) higher density of liquid water than solid water (ice).

Answer: C

11

Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?
A) ionic bonds
B) both hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds
C) polar covalent bonds
D) hydrogen bonds
E) both polar covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds

Answer: D

12

Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is most directly responsible for this phenomenon?
A) the change in density when it condenses to form a liquid or solid
B) reactions with other atmospheric compounds
C) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
D) the release of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
E) the high surface tension of water

Answer: C

13

Why does evaporation of water from a surface cause cooling of the surface?
A) The breaking of bonds between water molecules absorbs heat.
B) The water molecules with the most heat energy evaporate more readily.
C) The solute molecules left behind absorb heat.
D) Water molecules absorb heat from the surface in order to acquire enough energy to evaporate.
E) The expansion of water vapor extracts heat from the surface.

Answer: B

14

Why does ice float in liquid water?
A) The high surface tension of liquid water keeps the ice on top.
B) The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.
C) Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat.
D) Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the water molecules of liquid water.
E) The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.

Answer: D

15

Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are
A) nonpolar substances that repel water molecules.
B) nonpolar substances that have an attraction for water molecules.
C) polar substances that repel water molecules.
D) polar substances that have an affinity for water.
E) charged molecules that hydrogen-bond with water molecules.

Answer: A

16

One mole (mol) of glucose (molecular mass = 180 daltons) is
A) 180 × 10²³ molecules of glucose.
B) 1 kg of glucose dissolved in 1 L of solution.
C) the largest amount of glucose that can be dissolved in 1 L of solution.
D) 180 kilograms of glucose.
E) both 180 grams of glucose and 6.02 × 10²³ molecules of glucose.

Answer: E

17

How many molecules of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆ molecular mass = 180 daltons) would be present in 90 grams of glucose?
A) 90 × 10²³
B) (6.02/180) × 10²³
C) (6.02/90) × 10²³
D) (90 x 6.02) × 10²³
E) (90/180) × 6.02 × 10²³

Answer: E

18

How many molecules of glycerol (C₃H₈O₃; molecular mass = 92) would be present in 1 L of a 1 M glycerol solution?
A) 1 × 10⁶
B) 14 × 6.02 × 10²³
C) 92 × 6.02 × 10²³
D) 6.02 × 10²⁶
E) 6.02 × 10²³

Answer: E

19

When an ionic compound such as sodium chloride (NaCl) is placed in water, the component atoms of the NaCl crystal dissociate into individual sodium ions (Na⁺) and chloride ions (Cl⁻). In contrast, the atoms of covalently bonded molecules (e.g., glucose, sucrose, glycerol) do not generally dissociate when placed in aqueous solution. Which of the following solutions would be expected to contain the greatest number of solute particles (molecules or ions)?
A) 1 L of 0.5 M NaCl
B) 1 L of 0.5 M glucose
C) 1 L of 1.0 M NaCl
D) 1 L of 1.0 M glucose
E) 1 L of 1.0 M NaCl and 1 L of 1.0 M glucose will contain equal numbers of solute particles.

Answer: C

20

The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 1 M solution of glucose?
A) Dissolve 1 g of glucose in 1 L of water.
B) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water.
C) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 180 g of water.
D) Dissolve 180 milligrams (mg) of glucose in 1 L of water.
E) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 0.8 L of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L.

Answer: E

21

The molar mass of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 0.5 M solution of glucose?
A) Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of solution is 1 L.
B) Dissolve 90 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L.
C) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L.
D) Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in 1 L of water.
E) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 0.5 L of water.

Answer: B

22

You have a freshly prepared 0.1 M solution of glucose in water. Each liter of this solution contains how many glucose molecules?
A) 6.02 × 10²³
B) 3.01 × 10²³
C) 6.02 × 10²⁴
D) 12.04 × 10²³
E) 6.02 × 10²²

Answer: E

Chapter 3

3

When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they can achieve the finest resolution by using
A) a phase-contrast light microscope.
B) a scanning electron microscope.
C) a transmission electronic microscope.
D) a confocal fluorescence microscope.
E) a super-resolution fluorescence microscope.

Answer: C

2

The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that
A) light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy.
B) light microscopy provides for higher resolving power than electron microscopy.
C) light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells.
D) light microscopy provides higher contrast than electron microscopy.
E) specimen preparation for light microcopy does not produce artifacts.

Answer: C

3

A primary objective of cell fractionation is to
A) view the structure of cell membranes.
B) sort cells based on their size and weight.
C) determine the size of various organelles.
D) separate the major organelles so that their particular functions can be determined.
E) separate lipid-soluble from water-soluble molecules.

Answer: D

4

In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in the supernatant or the pellet is
A) the relative solubility of the component.
B) the size and weight of the component.
C) the percentage of carbohydrates in the component.
D) the presence or absence of nucleic acids in the component.
E) the presence or absence of lipids in the component.

Answer: B

5

Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will be found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly rapid spins in a centrifuge?
A) ribosomes, nucleus, mitochondria
B) chloroplasts, ribosomes, vacuoles
C) nucleus, ribosomes, chloroplasts
D) vacuoles, ribosomes, nucleus
E) nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes

Answer: E

6

Green fluorescent protein (GFP) can be used to fluorescently label a specific protein in cells by genetically engineering cells to synthesize the target protein fused to GFP. What is the advantage of using GFP fusions to visualize specific proteins, instead of staining cells with fluorescently labeled probes that bind to the target protein?
A) GFP fusions enable one to track changes in the location of the protein in living cells; staining usually requires preserved cells.
B) GFP fusions enable higher resolution than staining with fluorescent probes.
C) GFP permits the position of the protein in the cell more precisely than fluorescent probes.
D) GFP permits visualization of protein-protein interactions; fluorescent probes do not.
E) GFP fusions are not subject to artifacts; fluorescent probes may introduce background artifacts.

Answer: A

7

What is the reason that a modern electron microscope (TEM) can resolve biological images to the subnanometer level, as opposed to tens of nanometers achievable for the best super-resolution light microscope?
A) The focal length of the electron microscope is significantly longer.
B) Contrast is enhanced by staining with atoms of heavy metal.
C) Electron beams have much shorter wavelengths than visible light.
D) The electron microscope has a much greater ratio of image size to real size.
E) The electron microscope cannot image whole cells at one time.

Answer: C

8

What technique would be most appropriate to use to observe the movements of condensed chromosomes during cell division?
A) light microscopy
B) scanning electron microscopy
C) transmission electron microscopy
D) confocal fluorescence microscopy
E) super-resolution fluorescence microscopy

Answer: A

9

All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except
A) DNA.
B) a cell wall.
C) a plasma membrane.
D) ribosomes.
E) an endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: E

10

The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the corresponding volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that
A) plant cells are capable of having a much higher surface-to-volume ratio than animal cells.
B) plant cells have a much more highly convoluted (folded) plasma membrane than animal cells.
C) plant cells contain a large vacuole that reduces the volume of the cytoplasm.
D) animal cells are more spherical, whereas plant cells are elongated.
E) plant cells can have lower surface-to-volume ratios than animal cells because plant cells synthesize their own nutrients.

Answer: C

11

A mycoplasma is an organism with a diameter between 0.1 and 1.0 µm. What does the organism's size tell you about how it might be classified?
A) It must be a single-celled protist.
B) It must be a single-celled fungus.
C) It could be almost any typical bacterium.
D) It could be a typical virus.
E) It could be a very small bacterium.

Answer: E

12

Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells?
A) limitation on the strength and integrity of the plasma membrane as cell size increases
B) the difference in plasma membranes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
C) evolutionary progression in cell size; more primitive cells have smaller sizes
D) the need for a surface area of sufficient area to support the cell's metabolic needs
E) rigid cell walls that limit cell size expansion

Answer: D

13

Which of the following statements concerning bacteria and archaea cells is correct?
A) Archaea cells contain small membrane-enclosed organelles; bacteria do not.
B) Archaea cells contain a membrane-bound nucleus; bacteria do not.
C) DNA is present in both archaea cells and bacteria cells.
D) DNA is present in the mitochondria of both bacteria and archaea cells.

Answer: A

14

The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved
A) endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell–the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria.
B) anaerobic archaea taking up residence inside a larger bacterial host cell to escape toxic oxygen–the anaerobic bacterium evolved into chloroplasts.
C) an endosymbiotic fungal cell evolved into the nucleus.
D) acquisition of an endomembrane system, and subsequent evolution of mitochondria from a portion of the Golgi.

Answer: A

15

Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?
A) Bacteria and Eukarya
B) Bacteria and Archaea
C) Archaea and Protista
D) Bacteria and Protista
E) Bacteria and Fungi

Answer: B

16

If radioactive deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP) is added to a culture of rapidly growing bacterial cells, where in the cell would you expect to find the greatest concentration of radioactivity?
A) nucleus
B) cytoplasm
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) nucleoid
E) ribosomes

Answer: D

17

Which organelle or structure is absent in plant cells?
A) mitochondria
B) Golgi vesicles
C) microtubules
D) centrosomes
E) peroxisomes

Answer: D

18

Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules?
A) lipids
B) glycogen
C) proteins
D) cellulose
E) nucleic acids

Answer: C

19

The nuclear lamina is an array of filaments on the inner side of the nuclear membrane. If a method were found that could cause the lamina to fall into disarray, what would you expect to be the most likely consequence?
A) the loss of all nuclear function
B) the inability of the nucleus to divide during cell division
C) a change in the shape of the nucleus
D) failure of chromosomes to carry genetic information
E) inability of the nucleus to keep out destructive chemicals

Answer: C

20

Recent evidence shows that when chromosomes decondense during interphase, their DNA molecules do not intermingle. Instead, they occupy distinct territories within the nucleus. Considering the structure and location of the following structures, which is most likely to be involved in chromosome location?
A) nuclear pores
B) the nucleolus
C) microfilaments
D) the nuclear lamina
E) the nuclear matrix

Answer: E

21

A cell with a predominance of free ribosomes is most likely
A) producing primarily proteins for secretion.
B) producing primarily cytoplasmic proteins.
C) constructing an extensive cell wall or extracellular matrix.
D) digesting large food particles.
E) enlarging its vacuole.

Answer: B

22

Which type of organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?
A) ribosome
B) lysosome
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) mitochondrion

Chapter 6