Microbiology Module 4 Review Flashcards


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Title on page says Homework 3-15, but Prof changed to Review. Has answers attached to handout
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1

Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis?

A. protozoa in termites

B. microbes passing across the placenta to the fetus

C. bacteria in the human colon

D. tuberculosis in the human lung

E. tapeworm in the human intestine

B

2

A bacterium inhabits the human nasal cavity where it obtains nutrients from secretions. It neither harms nor benefits the host. The relationship is therefore a(n) _____ one.

A. parasitic

B. neutral

C. commensal

D. mutualisitic

E. antagonistic

C

3

A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be described as

A. parasitism

B. commensalism

C. both commensalism and parasitism

D. mutualism

E. a nonsymbiotic relationship

D

4

Symptoms are

A. subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.

B. objective manifestations of a disease that can be observed by others

C. laboratory tests used to diagnose a disease.

D. characteristics of a disease, such as sweating.

E. objective manifestations of a disease that can be measured

A

5

Chaga's disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent?

A. parenteral route

B. mucous membrane portal

C. fomite

D. skin portal

E. contact

A

6

A person licks a needle before injecting a drug into a vein. The person later develops a bacterial infection of the blood. This is an example of

A. microbial synergism

B. microbial antagonism

C. a disruption of the normal microbial population of the blood

D. a member of the microbiota gaining access to an unusual location in the body.

E. immune suppression leading to disease

D

7

Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota?

A. Microorganisms grow in the respiratory tract after the baby's first breath.

B. Microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy.

C. The baby acquires the residential microbiota in the colon after the first meal.

D. Microbes enter the nose and mouth when the baby is in the birth canal.

E. Staphylococcus epidermidis is transferred from the hospital staff to the newborn after delivery.

B

8

Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the etiology of disease is FALSE?

A. The suspect agent must cause the disease under investigation when introduced into a susceptible host organism.

B. The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases.

C. The suspect agent must be present in all cases of disease.

B

9

Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase, hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute(s) to the ability of S. aureus to invade the body?

A. hemolysin

B. hyaluronidase

C. coagulase

D. enterotoxin

E. coagulase and hemolysin

B

10

Diseases that are induced by modern medical procedures are referred to as ____ infections.

A. opportunistic

B. endogenous

C. iatrogenic

D. subacute

E. exogenous

C

11

The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the United States was 12.43/100,000 cases. This means

A. 12.43 of every 100,000 people died of tuberculosis in the US in the year 2000.

B. 12.43 in every 100,000 people in the US had tuberculosis in the year 2000.

C. 12.43 of every 100,000 cases of tuberculosis were treated in the US in the year 2000.

D. there were 12.43 new cases of tuberculosis for every 100,000 people in the US in the year 2000.

E. there were 12.43 tubercule bacilli per 100,000 microbes in the US in the year 2000.

D

12

A strain of Neisseria gonorrhea has a mutation which has caused it to lose the ability to produce fimbriae and become less virulent as a consequence. What function has this pathogen lost?

A. the ability to prevent phagocytes killing it

B. the ability to establish a latent infection

C. the ability to produce an endotoxin

D. the ability to move from one location in the body to another

E. the ability to adhere to cells of the body

E

13

Ten months after the 2010 earthquake in Haiti, there was a sharp increase in the number of cases of cholera. What was the most likely source of disease?

A. foodborne

B. waterborne

C. indirect contact with contaminated equipment

D. airborne

E. direct contact with infected individuals

B

14

Which of the following pairings of microbe and disease was disproven using Koch's posutlates?

A. varicella-zoster virus and chickenpox

B. Haemophilus influenza and the flu

C. hepatitis B and D and liver cancer

D. HIV and AIDS

E. Mycobacetrium leprae and leprosy

B

15

(Graph showing increasing percentage from March to September, then decreasing again through November.)

The pattern of new cases reported in North America represented in this graph is consistent with _____ transmission.

A. housefly

B. airborne

C. fecal-oral

D. direct contact

E. mosquito vector

E

16

A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly. What measures might be taken by public health agencies to stop the spread?

A. Educate members of the public about ways to protect themselves.

B. Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected.

C. Shut down public transportation.

D. Identify and treat people who are infected.

E. Facilitate access to vaccines.

B

17

(Map of North & South America)

The dots on the map represent reported cases of a disease. This distribution is a(n) ______ pattern

A. pandemic

B. epidemic

C. endemic

D. emerging

E. sporadic

C

18

Phagocytic cells in the epidermis known as _______ contribute to its ability to prevent microbial invasion.

A. natural killer lymphocytes

B. wandering macrophages

C. microglia

D. dendritic cells

E. neutrophils

D

19

Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is

A. the first line of defense.

B. the second line of defense

C. the third line of defense.

D. microbial antagonism

E. innate immunity

C

20

What do the nasal cavity, mouth, and urinary system have in common?

A. They are lined with mucous membranes.

B. They are lined with tightly packed dead cells.

C. The outer layers remain intact for many days.

D. They have roles in excretion of waste products.

E. They are poorly vascularized.

A

21

Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion?

A. Tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

B. Tears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them.

C. A mucus layer traps and removes microbes.

D. Tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

E. Tears contain lysozyme and salt.

D

22

What is the function of NK cells?

A. They release toxins to damage helminth parasites.

B. They release defensins to damage bacteria.

C. They release interferons in response to detecting virus particles.

D. They phagocytose virus particles.

E. They identify and poison virus-infected cells.

E

23

Which of the following statements concerning the alternative complement systems is TRUE?

A. It is more efficient than the classical pathway.

B. It is not useful in the early stages of fungal infection.

C. It works best on Gram-positive bacteria.

D. Its activation is independent of antibodies

E. It plays a very significant role in elimination of parasitic helminthes.

D

24

The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as

A. detecting the unique features of specific pathogens.

B. responders to invasion.

C. passive barriers.

D. mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense.

E. both passive barriers and detecting specific pathogen features.

B

25

(pic of a cell with C5a & C3a attaching & other 'particles' leaving)

the process shown in the figure will lead to

A. formation of NETS

B. formation of MAes

C. chmeotaxis and opsonization

D. capillary constriction

E. vasodilation

E

26

Which of the following statements is TRUE of eosinophils?

A. They produce the coating of a pathogen by complement.

B. They secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites.

C. They are in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc.

D. they decline during allergic reaction.

E. They release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.

B

27

One of the advantages of adaptive immunity over innate immunity is

A. a huge variety of cells are produced in response to an infection.

B. the response targets classes of pathogens instead of specific pathogens.

C. The ability to recognized antigens common to many microbes.

D. The response is far faster.

E. the response is targeted against a single pathogen.

E

28

Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?

A. Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function.

B. Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body.

C. to become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific.

D. Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single antigenic determinant.

E. Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.

C

29

Which of the following is an exogenous antigen?

A. the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell

B. a noninfected human cell

C. a bacterium outside a cell

D. a bacterium inside a cell

E. a virus inside a cell

C

30

In what way is the lymphatic system similar to the circulatory system?

A. The lymphatic system is also a circulatory system.

B. The same types of cells flow through both systems.

C. The composition of lymphatic fluid is similar of that of blood plasma.

D. The lymph nodes can contract to push fluid through the system.

E. Fluid flows from larger vessels to capillaries.

C

31

The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are

A. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

B. macrophages and neutrophils.

C. macrophages and eosinophils.

D. neutrophils and dendritic cells.

E. NK lymphocytes and neutrophils.

A

32

(illustration that looks like a snowflake)

The type of immunoglobulin illustrated here is

A. IgE

B. IgA

C. IgG

D. IgD

E. IgM

E

33

The Fc portion of an antibody is formed by

A. the light chains only.

B. portions of both the heavy chains only.

C. the variable regions of the heavy chains.

D. the variable regions of the light chains.

E. one heavy chain.

B

34

Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE?

A. They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens.

B. They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx).

C. They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes.

D. They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes.

E. They can prevent virus attachment to host cells.

A

35

Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE?

A. They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites.

B. They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen.

C. Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs.

D. They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter.

E. Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR.

B

36

Which of the following pairs of lymohoctye and glycoprotein is MISMATCHED?

A. TR: CD25

B. Th2: CD4

C. CTL: CD8

D. Th1: CD8

E. Tr: CD4

D

37

(pic of interaction in a lymph node)

What will be the direct result of the interaction shown in this figure? (This interaction is occurring in a lymph node.)

A. activation of a helper T lymphocyte

B. activation of a B lymphocyte

C. activation of a cytotoxic T lymphocyte

D. clonal deletion of a B lymphocyte

E. clonal deletion of a T lymphocyte

A

38

The role of dendrites in the adaptive immune response is to

A. attack and destroy invading pathogens,

B. process endogenous antigens for presentation on MHC I molecules

C. distinguish between endogenous and exogenous antigens.

D. detect auto-reactive lymphocytes and trigger apoptosis.

E. degrade exogenous antigens for presentation on MHC II molecules.

E

39

When immunization levels in a population are high, _____ provides protection from infection for at-risk persons who cannon be immunized.

A. herd immunity

B. adjuvant therapy

C. variolation

D. contact immunity

E. active immunization

A

40

Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by

A. genetic manipulation

B. raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.

C. treatment with formaldehyde.

D. genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde.

E. genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.

E

41

What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?

A. a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus

B. a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde

C. inactivated whole pathogen

D. toxoid vaccine

E. attenuated vaccine

A

42

An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lav for may generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this?

A. attenuated

B. toxoid

C. combination

D. subunit

E. inactivated whole

E

43

The saliva of a highly venomous reptile is found to contain multiple toxic compounds. What is a practical approach to providing people with protection from the deadly effects of a bite from this reptile?

A. Use recombinant techniques to prepare modified versions of the toxins.

B. Prepare extracts of the toxins, inactivate them, and use them one at a time in a series of immunizations.

C. Prepare antibodies from the blood of people who survived bites to prepare antisera.

D. Prepare hybridomas specific for each toxin and use the resulting monoclonal antibodies for passive immunotherapy.

E. Prepare antitoxins by immunizing a large animal with the toxins, and use extracted antibodies for treating exposed persons.

E

44

Monoclonal antibodies can be used for

A. labeled antibodies in immunoassays

B. passive immunization.

C. active immunization.

D. passive immunization and labeled antibodies in immunoassays.

E. active immunization and agglutination assay reagents.

D

45

(Pic of an assay)

The diagnostic assay represented in the figure is useful when.

A. verifying the presence of a pathogen.

B. determining the concentration of antibodies in sera.

C. an immune response is too weak to be detected by other means.

D. an immune response may result in production of a mix of antibodies against complex antigens.

E. determining blood type.

D

46

(Pic with substrate & colored product labeled)

Which type of antibody assay is represented in this figure?

A. a direct ELISA

B. a western blot

C. an immunodiffusion assay

D. an indirect ELISA

E. an indirect immunofluorescence assay

D

47

Which of the following is NOT considered a hypersensitivity reaction?

A. immune system attack on the thyroid gland

B. itchy eyes and a runny nose in a dusty environment

C. a rash caused by poison ivy

D. dermatitis at the site of a metal watchband

E. breaking into hives after eating strawberries

A

48

Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen?

A. IgA

B. 19G

C. IgD

D. 19M

E. 19E

E

49

The redness, swelling and itching of urticarial is due to _____ release.

A. leukotriene

B. kinin and protease

C. protease

D. histamine

E. kinin

D

50

(Pic of a cell (I think) # 62 on paper)

The events illustrated in the figure are part of a(n) ______ disorder.

A. type I hypersensitivity

B. type II hypersensitivity

C. type III hypersensitivity

D. autoimmune

E. immunodeficiency

A

51

An accident victim receives a blood transfusion. Shortly therafter, he begins to have difficulty breathing, develops a fever, and experiences nausea and vomiting.Which of the following is the most likely interpretation of the events?

A. The blood transfusion was mismatched and contained pyrogens

B. The blood transfusion contained pyrogens

C. The recipient had previously been exposed to foreign blood group antigens

D. The blood transfusion was mismatched.

E. The blood transfusion was mismatched and the recipient had previously been exposed to the foreign blood group antigens

E

52

Which of the following could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A. Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father

B. Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father

C. Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father

D. Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father

E. either Rh-positive and Rh-negative father or Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father

D

53

an agricultural worker experiences difficulty breathing, which becomes progressively worse. Tests show inflammation and damage of the lung tissue, but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are in the normal ranges. With which disorder of the immune system are these signs and symptoms consistent?

A. acquired immunodeficiency

B. allergic reaction

C. autoimmunity

D. type III (immune comlex-mediated) hypersensitivity

E. type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity

D

54

A person with no siblings or children receives a kidney transplant. The kidney is an example of

A. dermograft

B. autograft

C. isograft

D. allograft

E. xenograft

D

55

Which of the following statements concerning rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is TRUE?

A. Accumulations of antibody complexes lead to inflammation in and destruction of the joints.

B. There is no genetic influence on the likelihood of developing RA.

C. It occurs in humans and animals.

D. The symptoms are due to damage caused by cytotoxic T cells.

E. The onset of disease is clearly correlated with having ben infected with a specific microbe.

A

56

(pic of HIV infection cycle)

The figure represents the HIV infection cycle. What virus-specified proteins are required for the events indicated by 1 and 2? (Be sure they are in the correct sequence.)

A. RNA polymerase, gp120

B. gp120, protease

C. reverse transcriptase, protease

D. integrase, protease

E. integrase, gp120

C