Visual Anatomy and Physiology: Anatomy and Physiology Final Flashcards


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1

Blood consists of:

a. Plasma and proteins

b. RBC

c. WBC

d. Platelets

e. all of the above

d. all of the above

2

Granular leucocytes consist of:

a. Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinphils

b. Neutrophils, basophils, and platelets

a. Neutrophils, basophils, and eosionphils

3

A hematocrit of 65% could indicate

  1. an abnormality
  2. normal blood
  3. Polycythemia
  4. Answers A and c
  5. All of the above

D) answers a and c

4

The three hemostatic mechanisms are:

  1. vasospasm, platelet plug, and coagulation
  2. vasospaam, coagulation, and fibrinolysis
  3. Coagulation, platelet plug and vasodilation

a) vasospasm, platelet plug, and coagulation

5

What is the average normal pH range of blood?

  1. 8.35-8.45
  2. 7.75-7.85
  3. 7.35-7.45
  4. 4.65-4.75

c) 7.35-7.45

6

Which blood type is called the universal donor?

A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O

D)O

7

Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood?

A) delivery of oxygen to body cells
B) transport of metabolic wastes from cells
C) prevention of blood loss
D) maintenance of normal pH in body tissues

D) Maintenance of normal pH in body tissues

8

Which of the following is a protective function of blood?

A) prevention of blood loss
B) maintenance of adequate fluid volume
C) maintenance of normal pH in body tissue
D) maintenance of body temperature

A) prevention of blood loss

9

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

A) hypoxia of EPO-producing cells
B) decreased tissue demand for oxygen
C) an increased number of RBCs
D) moving to a lower altitude

A) hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

10

When neither anti-A sera nor anti-B sera clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type_____.

A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O

D) O

11

All of the following can be expected with polycytemia

A) high hematocrit
B) low blood viscosity
C) increased blood volume
D) high blood pressure

B) low blood viscosity

12

Which of the following is characteristic of all leucocytes?

A) They are nucleated.
B) They have cytoplasmic granules.
C) They are phagocytic.
D) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood

A) they are nucleated

13

Plateles ______.

A) stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break
B) have a life span of about 120 days
C) are the precursors of leukocytes
D) have multiple nuclei

A) stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break.

14

When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother?

A) if the child is type O positive
B) if the child is Rh+
C) if the father is Rh+
D) if the father is Rh-

D) if the father is Rh-

15

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

A) Kidney
B) Brain
C) Liver
D) Pancreas

A) kidney

16

the major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure

  1. albumin
  2. fibrinogen

A) albumin

17

thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma.

  1. albumin
  2. fibrinogen

B) fibrinogen

18

makes up most of the plasma protein

  1. albumin
  2. fibrinogen

A) albumin

19

forms the structural framework of a blood clot

  1. albumin
  2. fibrinogen

B) fibrinogen

20
  1. Term that describes a faulty valve that allows blood to leak backwards in the heart
  2. Condition in which pumping efficiency of the heart is to low due to meet tissue needs
  3. Condition of rapid, irregular contractions of heart
  4. Abnormally slow heart rate desired by athletes
  5. Condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled
  1. Circulatory shock
  2. bradycardia
  3. congestive heart failure
  4. incompetent
  5. fibrillation

D

C

E

B

A

21
  1. Increase in size of and number of existing vessels in a specific area to enrich blood flow
  2. Persistent high blood pressure which is the silent killer
  3. way to measure blood pressure
  4. narrowing of artery lumen due to fatty plaques
  5. Alternating stretch and recoil of arteries during each cardiac cycle; way to measure heart rate
  1. chronic hypertension
  2. atherosclerosis
  3. pulse
  4. sphygmomanometer
  5. angiogenesis

E

A

D

B

C

22
  1. Resistance vessels most active in vasoconstriction
  2. thinnest vessels where exchange of nutrients and gases are made between blood and interstitial fluid.
  3. lead blood away from capillaries and deliver it to veins
  4. site where the velocity of blood flow is slowest
  5. contain the greatest volume of blood at the lowest pressure
  6. vessels that carry blood pressure at high pressure
  1. Veins
  2. Arteries
  3. Venule
  4. Arterioles
  5. Capillaries

D

E

C

E

A

B

23

The chamber that is the most powerful pump and moves blood at its highest pressure is the

  1. the right atrium
  2. the right ventricle
  3. the left atrium
  4. the left ventricle

D) left ventricle

24

Which of the following is NOT true about the size, shape, position, and location of the heart?

  1. The heart is enclosed in a double-layered sac called the pleural membrane
  2. THe heart is located between the two lungs within the mediastinum
  3. The heart is cone shaped and about the size of a fist.
  4. The heart rests on the superior surface of the diaphragm

A) The heart is enclosed in a double-layered sac called the pleural membrane.

25

The right atrium recieves unoxygenated blood from all of the following except the:

  1. coronary sinus
  2. pulmonary vein
  3. inferioer vena cava
  4. superior vena cave

b) pulmonary vein

26

Which is NOT true of the pericardial membranes?

  1. the serous fluid prevents friction between the serous layers when the heart beats
  2. the fibrous pericardium is the thick, outermost protective CT layer.
  3. the parietal pericardium lines the fibrous pericardium
  4. the visceral pericardium is also called the endocardium

D) the visceral pericardium is also called the endocardium

27

The correct sequence of blood flow through the pulmonary circuit is:

  1. aorta...pulmonary trunk.... pulmonary arteries... venae cavae... right atrium... right ventricle
  2. venae cavae... right ventricle.... left atrium..aorta...pulmonary trunk....left atrium
  3. right atrium... right ventricle... pulmonary arteries... aveolar capillaries... pulmonary veins

C) right atrium... right ventricle... pulmonary arteries... aveolar capillaries... pulmonary veins

28

Small cone shapes muscle masses attached to chordae tendineae that anchor AV valves are the:

  1. trabeculae carneae
  2. pectinate muscle
  3. papillary muscles
  4. vanae cavae

c) papillary muscles

29

Which of the following is NOT true during ventricular systole during the cardiac cycle?

  1. The AV valves are closed and the semilunar valves are open.
  2. Blood pressure in the ventricles and great arteries is rising
  3. All of the blood in the ventricles is forced out and ESV is 0ml.

C) All of the blood in the ventricles is forced out and ESV is 0 ml.

30

Which of the following is true of a myocardial infarction (MI)?

  1. It is the term for chest pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart muscle.
  2. It causes death of cardiac muscle cells that can totally regenerate to repair the myocardium
  3. It causes death of cardiac muscle cells that are eventually with nonconractile scar tissue.
  4. It is a type of heart arrhythmia

C) It causes death of cardiac muscle cells that are eventually replaced with noncontractile scar tissue.

31

All of the following are function of intercalated discs in cardiac muscle EXCEPT:

  1. they prevent the heart chambers from overfilling with blood.
  2. the contain desmosomes or "spot welds" that prevent separation of cardiac muscle fibers during contraction
  3. they contain gap junctions which allow ions to travel freely from cell to cell
  4. they enable the synctia of the heart to contract as one unit or not at all "all-or-none"

A) they prevent the heart chambers from overfilling with blood.

32

Blood high in oxygen is carried to capillaries in the myocardium by way of:

  1. the coronary sinus
  2. the ductus arteroisus
  3. right and left coronary arteries
  4. great, middle, and small cardiac veins

C) right and left coronary arteries

33

Which of the following is NOT true of a normal electrocardiogram (EKG)?

  1. It is a graphic record of the electrical activity of the heart.
  2. The P wave represents artial depolarization
  3. The QRS wave is caused by artial repolarization and ventricular depolarization
  4. The T wave is caused by ventricular contraction

D) The T wave is caused by ventricular contraction.

34

Which of the following best defines cardiac output (CO)?

  1. It is the amount of blood filling each ventricle at the end of diastole
  2. It is the amount of blood pumped out of a ventricle in one beat
  3. It is the amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle in one minute
  4. It is equal to stroke volume times mean arterial pressure

C) It is the amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle in one minute

35

The term for the pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasms of coronary arteries is _____.

A) ischemia
B) pericarditis
C) myocardial infarct
D) angina pectoris

D) angina pectoris

36

The ductus arteriosus:

  1. connects the two atria in the fetal heart
  2. is a congenital heart defect
  3. is a shallow depression in the interatrial septum in the adult heart
  4. is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus

D) is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus.

37

Which of the following factors does not influence heart rate?

A) skin color
B) age
C) gender
D) body temperature

A) skin color

38

The cells of the myocardium behave as a single coordinated unit called a:

  1. pacemaker potential
  2. cardiac cycle
  3. functional syncytium
  4. sarcomere

C) functional syncytium

39

Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.

A) The fibrous skeleton forms the bulk of the heart.
B) Connective tissue in the heart wall aids in the conduction of the action potential.
C) The heart chambers are lined by the endomysium.
D) The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.

D) The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.

40

Which of the following is true of the relationship between heartbeat rate (HR), stroke volume (SV) and cardiac output (CO)?

  1. If stroke volume(SV) increases... cardiac output(CO) will decrease
  2. If heartbeat rate (HR) increases...cardiac output (CO) will remain the same.
  3. If stroke volume (SV) or heartbeat rate (HR) increases...cardiac output (CO) will increase
  4. If stroke vovlume (SV) or heartbeat (HR) decreases...cardiac output (CO) will increase.

C) If stroke volume (SV) or heartbeat rate (HR) increases ... cardiac output (CO) will increase.

41

Which of the following factors would NOT increase stroke volume(SV)?

  1. Increased force of contraction due to increased Ca+ entry into cardiac cells.
  2. Increased preload or stretch of the myocardium
  3. Increased afterload due to high blood pressure
  4. Increased venoous return or EDV.

C) Increased afterload due to high blood pressure

42

Which correctly describes the flow of blood away from the heart?

  1. Muscular artery --> Arteriole--> Elastic Artery--> Capillary --> Venule --> Vein
  2. Elastic artery --> Muscular artery--> Arteriole --> Capillary --> Vein --> Venule
  3. Elastic artery --> Muscular artery--> Arteriole --> Capillary --> Venule --> Vein
  4. Vein --> Venule--> Arteriole --> Capillary --> Muscular artery --> Elastic artery

C) Elastic artery --> Muscular artery--> Arteriole --> Capillary --> Venule --> Vein

43

Which statement best describes arteries?

A) All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.
B) All carry blood away from the heart.
C) All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.
D) Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.

B) All carry blood away from the heart.

44

Which is TRUE of fluid shifts in the capillary beds?

  1. There is a net flow of fluid out of the capillaries at the arterial end and venous end.
  2. There is a net flow of fluid into the capillaries at the arterial end and venous end.
  3. There is net flow of fluid out at the arterial end and inflow of fluid at the venous end.
  4. Any fluid that leaves a capillary bed is returned to the blood in that capillary bed.

C) There is a net flow of fluid out at the arterial end and inflow of fluid at the venous end.

45

Which tunic of an artery or arteriole is capable of undergoing vasoconstriction or vasodilation in influence blood flow and pressure?

  1. tunica interna (intima)
  2. tunica media
  3. tunica externa
  4. tunic adventitia

B) tunic media

46

Histologically, the ____ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer.

    1. tunica interna (intima)
    2. tunica media
    3. tunica externa
    4. tunic adventitia

A) tunica intima (intima)

47

The leaky capillaries that allow large molecules and blood cells to pass from blood to tissues have extremely large intercellular clefts and pores. They are found in the lymphoid tissues, bone marrow, and liver are called:

  1. fenestrated capillaries
  2. sinusoidal cappilaries
  3. continuous capillaries
  4. vasa vasorum capillaries

B) sinusoidal capillaries.

48

Which statement does NOT accurately descries the veins of systemic circulation?

  1. They have a thinker tunica adventia than arteries
  2. They have one way valves
  3. They have a very large lumen in relation to the thickness of the vessel wall
  4. They carry oxygen rich blood back to the heart.

D) They carry oxygen rich blood back to the heart.

49

Factors that aid venous return include all except:

A) activity of skeletal muscles
B) pressure changes in the thorax
C) venous valves
D) urinary output

D) urinary output

50

______ is the condition in which the arteries become hardened with calcified plaques and can lead to hypertension, stroke, and heart attacks.

  1. aneurysm
  2. atherosclerosis
  3. arteriosclerosis
  4. congestive heart failure

C) arteriosclerosis

51

The highest pressure that occurs in the arteries when the ventricles contract averages 120 mm Hg. This pressure reading is known as:

  1. mean arterial pressure
  2. pulse pressure
  3. diastolic pressure
  4. systolic pressure

D) Systolic pressure

52

Which happens when cells in a particular area require enhanced blood delivery and all of the autoregulatory stimuli are operational?

  1. The precapillary sphincters are relaxed and open
  2. The arterioles are dilated
  3. Blood bypasses the vascular shunt and moves into the true capillaries
  4. All of the above

D) All of the above

53

The force per unit area exerted on a vessel wall by the contained blood is:

  1. blood pressure
  2. the same as blood flow
  3. peripherial resistance
  4. the same as cardiac output

A) blood pressure

54

Peripheral resistance:

  1. A) decreases with increasing length of the blood vessel
    B) increases as blood vessel diameter increases
    C) increases as blood viscosity increases
    D) is not a major factor in blood pressure in healthy individual

C) increases as blood vicosity increases due to polycythemia or dehydration

55

Which is TRUE of the relationship between blood flow, blood pressure and peripheral resistance?

  1. If blood pressure increases...peripheral resistance decreases
  2. If blood pressure decreases...blood flow increases
  3. If peripheral resistance decreases.... blood flow increases
  4. If peripheral resistance increases...blood flow increases

c) If peripheral resistance decreases .. blood flow increases.

56

Which of the following will NOT increase blood pressure?

  1. increase in cardiac output
  2. increase in blood volume
  3. increase in periperal resistance in blood vessels
  4. increases parasympathetic nerve stimulation

D) increased parasympathic nerve stimulation

57

Which of the following blood pressure reading would be indicative of hypertension?

A) 120/80 in a 30-year-old man
B) 140/90 in a 70-year-old woman
C) 170/96 in a 50-year-old man
D) 110/60 in a 20-year-old woman

C) 170/96 in a 50-year-old man

58

The arteries that directly feed into capillary beds are called _____.

A) muscular arteries
B) elastic arteries
C) arterioles
D) venules

C) arterioles

59

All of the following changes are commonly observed in the cardiovascular system in response to aging EXCEPT:

  1. decreased cardiac output
  2. increased compliance of the aorta
  3. loss of cardiac muscle strength
  4. decline in maximum heart rate

B) increased compliance of the aorta

60

What would the pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure be for an individual with a blood pressure of 120/80?

  1. 40: 100
  2. 40:93.3
  3. 200:100
  4. 100:200

B) 40: 93.3

61

Bill carelessly wandered into a wasp's nest in an old barn on his farm. Since he is very allergic to bee stings, what is the likely outcome of this event.

  1. Bill will experience a severe loss of blood and probably go into hypovelemic shock
  2. Bill will run away from the scene and may experience transient vascular shock
  3. Bill will experience total failure and will go into cardiogenic shock
  4. Bill will probably have an anaphylactic shock episode and may go into vascular schock

D) Bill will probably have an anaphylactic shock episode and may go into vascular shock.

62

What is the cream-colored tissue?

fat deposits

63

What is the purpose of the cuff

cut off the blood flow to the brachial artery

64

What does 140mmHG mean?

  1. 140millimeters of Mercury above normal atmospheric pressure
  2. 140 pounds of pressure
  3. 140 inches of arteriol pressure
  4. 140 millimeters of pressure above the normal pressure of 80 millimeters of pressure

A) 140 milimeters of Mercury above normal atmospheric pressure.

65

Where is the Circle of Willis circulation found?

  1. in the liver
  2. in the foot
  3. in the heart
  4. in the brain

D) the brain

66

What is the correct flow of arterial blood from the abdominal aorta to knee?

  1. Right common iliac..R.popliteal..R. External iliac.. R. femoral...aorta
  2. Aorta..R.external iliam..R.femoral..R.common iliac...Popliteal
  3. Aorta..R.femoral..R.common iliac.. R.external iliac..popliteal
  4. Aorta.. R common iliac.. R external iliac... R femoral... popliteal

D) Aorta.. R common iliac.. R external iliac... R femoral... popliteal

67

Which artery when occluded adversely affect the brain?

  1. Subclavian
  2. Carotid
  3. axillary
  4. Radial

B) carotid

68

When taking a blood pressure reading to what approximate pressure should you pump up the cuff before listening for sounds?

  1. 130
  2. 120
  3. 160
  4. 200

C) 160

69

A man enter the hospital complaining of chest pain.

  1. He has indigestion
  2. He needs to exercise more often
  3. He needs to change jobs and relieve some stress
  4. His heart is not receiving enough blood

D) His heart is not receiving enough blood.

70

Lymph

Protein-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels

71

Stores blood plates

Spleen

72
  1. Protein-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels
  2. Stores blood plates
  3. Receives lymph from most of the body
  4. Small organs intimately associated with the lymphatic vessels.
  5. Largest lymphatic organ
  6. Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine
  1. Thoracic duct
  2. Spleen
  3. Lymph
  4. Lymph Nodes
  5. Peyer's Patches

C

B

A

D

B

E

73

Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed ___.

A) lymph follicles
B) lymph nodes
C) axillary nodes
D) cisterna chyli

B) lymph nodes

74

Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

A) pancreas
B) spleen
C) tonsils
D) Peyer's patches of the intestine

A) pancreas

75

The thymus is most active during ____.

A) fetal development
B) childhood
C) middle age
D) old age

b) childhood

76

Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and right side of the head and thorax?

A) lumbar trunk
B) thoracic duct
C) right lymphatic duct
D) cisterna chyli

C) right lymphatic duct

77

What effect does age have on the size of the thymus?

A) The size of the thymus increases continuously from birth to death.
B) The size of the thymus decreases continuously from birth to death.
C) The thymus is not affected by age.
D) The thymus initially increases in size and then decreases in size from adolescence through old age.

D) The thymus initially increase in size and then decreases in size from adolescence through old age.

78

The lymphatic capillaries are _______.

A) more permeable than blood capillaries
B) less permeable than blood capillaries
C) as permeable as blood capillaries
D) completely impermeable

A) more permeable than blood capillaries

79

Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except:

A) inguinal region
B) cervical region
C) axillary region
D) lower extremities

D) lower extremities

80

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

A) draining excess interstitial fluid
B) carrying out immune responses
C) transporting dietary fats
D) transporting respiratory gases

D) transporting respiratory gases

81

Lymph cappilaries are absent in all but which of the following?

A) bones and teeth
B) bone marrow
C) CNS
D) digestive organs

D) Digestive organs

82

Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?

A) basophils
B) lymphocytes
C) macrophages
D) monocytes

B) lymphocytes

83

Functions of the spleen include all of those below except ______.

A) removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood
B) forming crypts that trap bacteria
C) storage of blood platelets
D) storage of iron

b) forming crypts that trap bacteria

84

When the lymphatic structures are blocked due to tumors, the result is ____.

A) shrinkage of tissues distal to the blockage due to inadequate delivery of lymph
B) severe localized edema distal to the blockage
C) increased pressure in the lymphatics proximal to the blockage
D) abnormally high lymph drainage from the distal region

B) severe localized edema distal to the blockage

85

Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all the following except ______.

A) Peyer's patches
B) palatine tonsils
C) lingual tonsils
D) islets of Langerhans

D) Islets of Langerhans

86

The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not ______.

A) have lymphocytes
B) produce hormones
C) have a cortex and medulla
D) directly fight antigens

D) directly fights antigens`

87
  1. Small proteins secreted by virus-containing cells.
  2. Major innate mechanism that mediates destruction of foreign substance in the body.
  3. Stimulate the proliferation of other lymphocytes
  4. Dampen the activity of both T Cells and B Cells.
  5. Present the double activation signal to T Cells.
  1. Interferon
  2. Regulatory T Cells
  3. Complement
  4. Helper T Cells
  5. APC's

A

C

D

B

E

88

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

A) exposure to an antigen
B) infusion of weakened viruses
C) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
D) booster shot of vaccine

C) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

89

Which of the following is not a type of TCell?

A) cytotoxic
B) antigenic
C) helper
D) regulatory

B) antigenic

90

Lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ______.

A) thymus
B) spleen
C) bone marrow
D) lymph nodes

C) bone marrow

91

Which of the following is not a symptom of the inflammatory response?

a) heat

b) redness

c) bleeding

d) pain

C) bleeding

92

Small molecules that bind wit self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called _______.

A) haptens
B) antibodies
C) ions
D) reagins

A) haptens

93

Interferons _____________.

A) are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus
B) act by increasing the rate of cell division
C) interfere with viral replication within cells
D) are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold

C) interfere with viral replication within cells

94

Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed _________.

A) diapedesis
B) agglutination
C) opsonization
D) chemotaxis

C) opsonization

95

The process by which nuetrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called __________.

A) diapedesis
B) chemotaxis
C) margination
D) phagocytosis

B) Chemotaxis

96

Which of the following does not respond to cell-mediated immunity?

A) intracellular pathogens that reside within host cells
B) some cancer cells
C) foreign tissue transplants
D) pathogens in the CNS

D) pathogens in the CNS

97

Memory T cells protect a person by __________.

b) allowing B cells to produce specific antibodies in great number quickly

c) Helping the body remember how severe an infection can be

d) Causing Cytotoxic T Cells to replicate quickly

b) allowing B cells to produce specific antibodies in great numbers quickly

98
  1. No exchange of gases occurs here
  2. Secrete a fluid containing surfactant.
  3. Where the respiratory zone of the lungs begins
  4. Composed of simple squamous epithelium
  5. Terminates in alveoli
  1. Segmental bronchi
  2. Type II Cells
  3. Alveolar Duct
  4. Respiration bronchioles
  5. Alveolar walls

A

B

D

E

C

99

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is:

A) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
D) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure.

B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere

100

Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?

A) the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid
B) the expansion of respiratory muscles that were contracted during inspiration and the lack of surface tension on the alveolar wall
C) the negative feedback of expansion fibers used during inspiration and the outward pull of surface tension due to surfactant
D) combined amount of CO2 in the blood and air in the alveoli

A) the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film alveolar fluid.

101

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is?

A) loss of oxygen in tissues
B) increase of carbon dioxide
C) pH (acidosis)
D) pH (alkalosis)

B) Increase in carbon dioxide

102

tidal volume is air ______.

A) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration
B) exchanged during normal breathing
C) inhaled after normal inspiration
D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration

B) Exchanged during normal breathing

103

The lung volume that represents that total volume of exchangeable air is the?

A) tidal volume
B) vital capacity
C) inspiratory capacity
D) expiratory reserve volume

B) vital capacity

104

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

A) solubility in water
B) partial pressure gradient
C) the temperature
D) molecular weight and size of the gas molecule

B) partial pressure gradient

105

Respiratory control centers are located in the ______.

A) midbrain and medulla
B) medulla and pons
C) pons and midbrain
D) upper spinal cord and medulla

B) medulla and pons

106

The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called the:

A) reserve air
B) expiratory reserve
C) inspiratory reserve
D) vital capacity

C) inspiratory reserve

107

Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation?

A) pneumonia
B) tuberculosis
C) emphysema
D) coryza

C) emphysema

108

If your regular TV is 500ml per breath (assume a breathing rate of 12 breaths per minute), but you are having to take shallow breaths (TV=200ml) because of severe pain from broken ribs, what breathing rate will you need to achieve that same minute volume as when you are normal?

a) 30 breaths/min.

b) 15 breaths/min

c) 50 breaths/min

d) 100 breaths/min

A) 30 breaths/min.

109
  1. Wavelike smooth muscle contractions that move foodstuffs through the alimentary tube.
  2. Chemical or mechanical process of breaking down foodstuffs to substances that can be absorbed.
  3. Enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule.
  4. Process by which the products of digestion pass through the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract into the blood or lymph.
  5. Inner layer of the gastrointestinal tract.
  1. Peristalsis
  2. Absorption
  3. digestion
  4. hydrolysis
  5. mucosa

A

C

D

B

E

110

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located _____.

A) in the glandular tissue that lines the organ lumen
B) in the walls of the tract organs
C) in the pons and medulla
D) only in the esophagus because this is the only part of the tract that needs to change to accommodate food passage

B) in the walls of the tract organs

111

The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to _____.

A) carry toxins to the venous system for disposal through the urinary tract
B) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage
C) distribute hormones
D) return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low

B) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage

112

When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split the molecules. This series of reactions is called:

A) absorption
B) secretion
C) chemical digestion
D) mechanical digestion

C) chemical digestion

113

The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called _____.

A) mesenteries
B) lamina propria
C) serosal lining
D) mucosal lining

A) mesenteries

114

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen outward.

A) muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa
B) serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa
C) submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa
D) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

D) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

115

Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier?

A) thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus
B) tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells
C) replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells
D) rennin

D) renin

116

The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ____.

A) muscularis mucosae
B) serosa
C) adventitia
D) lamina propria

D) lamina propria

117

Which hormone causes an increased output of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile?

A) gastrin
B) secretin
C) cholecystokinin CCK
D) gastric inhibitor peptide

C) cholecystokinin

118

Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.

A) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestive secretion.
B) Bile functions to emulsify fats.
C) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of worn-out RBCs.
D) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.

D) bile contains enzymes for digestion

119

The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?

A) plicae circulares and intestinal villi
B) the vast array of digestive enzymes
C) Brunner's glands
D) the rugae

A) plicae circulares and intestinal cilli

120

Which of the following is not true of saliva?

A) cleanses the mouth
B) contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of proteins
C) moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus
D) dissolves food chemicals so they can be tasted

B) contains enzymes that begin the breakdown proteins

121

Chyme is created in the ______.

A) mouth
B) stomach
C) esophagus
D) small intestine

B) stomach

122

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach?

A) chief cells
B) parietal cells
C) serous cells
D) mucous neck cells

B) partietal cells

123

There are three phrases of gastric secretions. The cephalic phase occurs ______.

A) before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought
B) immediately after food enters the stomach, preparing the small intestine for the influx of a variety of nutrients
C) at the end of a large meal, and the juices secreted are powerful and remain in the GI tract for a long period of time
D) when the meal is excessively high in acids and neutralization is required

A) before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought

124

Gastrin is a digestive hormone that is responsible for the stimulation of acid secretions in the stomach. These secretions are stimulated by the presence of ____.

A) starches and complex carbohydrates
B) protein and peptide fragments
C) simple carbohydrates and alcohols
D) fatty acids

B) protein and peptide fragments

125

Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the _______.

A) chief cells of the stomach
B) parietal cells of the duodenum
C) Brunner's glands
D) goblet cells of the small intestine

A) chief cells of the stomach

126

The enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule is called _____.

A) diffusion
B) active transport
C) hydrolysis
D) denatured

C) hydrolysis

127

Short-chain triglycerdes found in foods such as buttfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible?

A) rennin
B) pepsin
C) lipase
D) cholecystokinin

C) lipase

128

Hepatocytes do not _____.

A) produce digestive enzymes
B) process nutrients
C) store fat-soluble vitamins
D) detoxify

A) produce digestive enzymes

129

The terminal portion of the small intestine is known as the ____.

A) duodenum
B) ileum
C) jejunum
D) pyloric sphincter

B) ileum

130

The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for?

A) incisor tooth
B) molar tooth
C) premolar tooth
D) canine tooth

D) canine tooth

131

Digestion of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged?

A) lipids
B) carbohydrates
C) proteins
D) starches

A) lipids

132

Which of the following is an essential role played by large intestine bacteria?

A) produce gas
B) absorb bilirubin
C) synthesize vitamin K and B-complex vitamins
D) synthesize vitamins C and D

C) synthesize vitamin k and B-complex vitamins

133

What stomach secretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in RBC's?

A) HCl
B) pepsinogen
C) intrinsic factor
D) gastric lipase

C) Intrinsic factor

134

In order to receive a customized diet from ChooseMyPlate.gov, you must provide your:

a) age

b) gender

c) the amount you exercise

d) all of the above

D) all of the above

135

ChooseMyPlate.gov is a website managed by

a) the USDA

b) The Food and Drug Administration

c) The FFA

d) The U.S. Department of Health and Welfare

a) the USDA

136

Which of the following are not considered human nutrients

a) carbohydrates

b) lipids

c) vitamins

d) minerals

e) all are considered nutrients

E) all are considered nutrients

137

Which of the following is not a pathway for carbohydrates metabolism?

  1. Glycolysis
  2. Krebs Cycle
  3. Electron Transport Chain
  4. Deamination

D) deamination

138

In the human body, glucose is stored primarily as ____.

  1. fat
  2. glycogen
  3. ketones
  4. glucose cannot be stored

b) glycogen

139

diabetes mellitus is a consequence of inadequate ____ production.

  1. amino acids
  2. fatty acids
  3. insulin
  4. triglycerides

C. Insulin

140

From which nutrient does the body receive the most concentrated source of energy?

  1. lipids
  2. carbohydrates
  3. proteins
  4. vitamins

A) lipids

141

Where does Kerb's cycle occur?

  1. blood
  2. liver
  3. cytosol of cells
  4. mitochondrial matrix

D) mitochondrial matrix

142

A toxic waste product of protein metabolism that must be removed from the body is ______.

  1. carbon dioxide
  2. urea
  3. uric acid
  4. ammonia

D) ammonia

143

The carbon dioxide of cellular respiration is formed during:

  1. glycolysis
  2. kreb's Cycle
  3. Electron transport
  4. the formationof pyruvic acid

b) Kreb's cycle

144

The function of the citric acid cycle is to ______.

  1. a remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules and transfer them to coenzymes
  2. transfer the acetyl group
  3. hydrolyze glucose
  4. produce carbon dioxide

A) a remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules and transfer them to coenzymes

145

Cells must synthesis new organic compounds

  1. to support growth
  2. to perform structural maintenance or repairs
  3. to produce secretions
  4. to store nutrient reserves
  5. all of the above

e) all of the above

146

Poisons like cyanide bind to ______ and prevent electron transfer.

  1. enzymes
  2. the endoplasmic
  3. acetyl-CoA
  4. cytochromes
  5. mitochondria

d) cytochromes

147

Catabolism off all the following is fairly common for energy production, except:

  1. carbohydrates
  2. lipids
  3. glucose
  4. proteins

d) protein

148

Although other nutrients can feed into the citric acid cycle, _____ yields energy the quickest.

  1. glycogen
  2. glucose
  3. protein
  4. fat

b) glucose

149

In transamination, the amino group of an amino acid is _____.

  1. converted to ammonia
  2. converted to urea
  3. transferred to another molecule
  4. absorbed by water
  5. transferred to acetyl-CoA

c) transferred to another molecule

150

When the body is relying on internal energy reserves to continue meeting its energy demands, it is in the:

  1. postabsorptive state
  2. absorptive state
  3. starvation state
  4. deprivation state

A) postabsorptive state

151

Deficiency in this vitamin can result in a condition called scurvy.

  1. A
  2. C
  3. D
  4. B12

B) C

152

What is the name of the compound that enters the Citric Acid Cycle series of reactions?

  1. Pyruvic Acid
  2. Acetyl-Coa
  3. Citric Acid
  4. NADH

B) Acetyl-CoA

153

Inadequate exposure to sunlight could result in decreased amounts of vitamin ____ in the body.

  1. A
  2. C
  3. D
  4. E

c. D

154

A balance diet should

  1. Include adequate substrates for the production of energy
  2. provide essential amino acids and fatty acids
  3. contain adequate amounts of vitamins and mineral
  4. all of the above

D) all of the above

155

A high uric acid level can lead to the painful condition known as

  1. gout
  2. rheumatoid arthritis
  3. anorexia nervosa
  4. lupus

A) gout

156

The energy of food is commonly given in units called

  1. calories
  2. Calories or Kilocalories
  3. oxidation units
  4. grams

b) Calories or kilocalories

157

Glyocolysis is the first step in glucose metabolism, and does not require _____.

  1. pyruvate
  2. Acetyl-CoA
  3. Oxygen
  4. Carbon Dioxide

C) Oxygen

158

Anaroebic respiration results in the build up of

  1. lactic acid
  2. carbon dioxide
  3. Acetyl-CoA
  4. citric acid

A) lactic acid

159

Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) refers to

  1. the rate of respiration of a resting person
  2. the recovery time for a person who has exercised for 1 hour
  3. the minimun resting energy expenditure of an awake, alert person

C) the minimum resting energy expenditure of an awake, alert person

160
  1. Site at which most of the tubular reabsorption occurs.
  2. Blood supply that directly receives substance from tubular cells.
  3. Site of filtrate formation
  4. Site that drian the distal convoluted tubule
  1. Proximal convoluted tubule
  2. Glomerulus
  3. Peritubular capillaries
  4. Collecting duct

A

C

B

D

161

The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the _____.

A) loop of Henle
B) glomerular filtration membrane
C) collecting duct
D) distal convoluted tubule

A) loop of henle

162

Urine passes through the ____.

A) renal hilum to the bladder to the ureter
B) pelvis of the kidney to ureter to bladder to urethra
C) glomerulus to ureter to renal tubule
D) hilum to urethra to bladder

B) pelvis of the kidney to ureter to bladder to uthera

163

Which of the following is not associated with the renal corpuscle?

A) a podocyte
B) a vasa recta
C) a fenestrated capillary
D) an efferent arteriole

B) a vasa recta

164

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a ____.

A) decrease in the production of ADH
B) increase in the production of ADH
C) increase in the production of aldosterone
D) decrease in the concentration of the blood plasma

A) decrease in the production of ADH

165

The urinary bladder is composed of ____ epithelium.

A) transitional
B) simple squamous
C) stratified squamous
D) pseudostratified columnar

A) transitional

166

Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?

A) helps maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition, volume, and pressure of blood
B) regulates blood glucose levels and produces hormones
C) maintains blood osmolarity
D) eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat

D) eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat

167

Which gland sits atop each kidney?

A) adrenal
B) thymus
C) pituitary
D) pancreas

A) adernal

168

The _______ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney.

A) lobar
B) arcuate
C) interlobar
D) cortical radiate

B) arcuate

169

The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it ______.

A) has a basement membrane
B) is impermeable to most substances
C) is drained by an efferent arteriole
D) has a blood pressure much lower than other organ systems

C) is drained by an efferent arteriole

170

The descending loop of Henle ________.

A) is not permeable to water
B) is freely permeable to sodium and urea
C) pulls water by osmosis into the lumen of the tubule
D) contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla

D) contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down the medulla

171

The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ______.

A) ensures adequate energy for the adrenal glands to operate efficiently
B) stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position
C) is necessary as a barrier between the adrenal glands and kidneys
D) produces vitamin D

B) stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position

172

The renal corpuscle is made up of _______.

A) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
B) the descending loop of Henle
C) the renal pyramid
D) the renal papilla

A) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus

173

The functional and structural unit of the kidney is the ______.

A) nephron
B) loop of Henle
C) glomerular capsule
D) basement membrane of the capillaries

A) nephron

174

The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ______..

A) the design and size of the podocytes
B) the thickness of the capillary endothelium
C) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)
D) the size of the pores in the basement membrane of the capillaries

C) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)

175

Which of the following statement describes the histology of the urters?

A) They are trilayered (mucosa, muscularis, and adventitia).
B) They are actually an extension of the visceral peritoneum.
C) They are made up of several layers of endothelium.
D) They are made up entirely of muscle tissue because they need to contract in order to transport urine efficiently.

A) they are trilayered (mucosa, muscularis, and adventita)

176

Which of the following statments is a false or incorrect statement?

A) The male urethra serves both the urinary and reproductive systems at the same time.
B) The male urethra serves both the urinary and reproductive systems but at different times.
C) The male urethra is longer than the female urethra.
D) The male urethra is a passageway for both urine and semen.

A) The male uthera serves both the urinary and reproductive system at the same time.

177

Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?

A) Na+
B) K+
C) glucose
D) creatinine

D) Creatinine

178

The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is _______.

A) active transport
B) osmosis
C) solvent drag
D) cotransport with sodium ion

B) osmosis

179

The function of antigiotensin II is to ________.

A) constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure
B) decrease the production of aldosterone
C) decrease arterial blood pressure
D) decrease water absorption

A) constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure

180

Which of the following acts as a trigger for the initiation of micturtion?

A) the stretching of the bladder wall
B) motor neurons
C) the pressure of the fluid in the bladder
D) the sympathetic efferents

A) the stretching of the bladder wall

181

The filtration membrane includes all except _____.

A) glomerular endothelium
B) podocytes
C) renal fascia
D) basement membrane

C) renal fascia

182

An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity, or density, which is _______.

A) 1.041-1.073
B) 1.001-1.035
C) 1.030-1.040
D) 1.000-1.015

B) 1.001 -1035

183

Alcohol acts as a diurtetic because it ________.

A) is not reabsorbed by the tubule cells
B) increases the rate of glomerular filtration
C) increases secretion of ADH
D) inhibits the release of ADH

D) inhibits the release of ADH

184

Which of the following is not a part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A) granular cells
B) macula densa
C) podocyte cells
D) mesangial cells

C)podocyte cells

185

If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean?

A) The glucose molecule is too large to be filtered out of the blood.
B) Most of the glucose is filtered out of the blood and is not reabsorbed in the convoluted tubules.
C) Normally all the glucose is reabsorbed.
D) The clearance value of glucose is relatively high in a healthy adult.

C) normally all the glucose is reabsorbed

186

Dissociate in water.

electrolytes

187

Do not dissociate.

Nonelectrolytes

188

The fluid compartments located outside the cell.

Extracellular

189

Fluid compartments located within the cell.

Intracellular

190

Spaces between the cells.

interstitial