BI 241 Final Flashcards


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1

Heartburn is most often felt in the ____.

epigastric region

2

A transverse plane ____.

divides the body into superior and inferior parts

3

The plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts is called the ____.

frontal plane

4

Determines the set point and appropriate response in a negative feedback system.

control center

5

Provides the means to respond to the stimulus in a negative feedback system.

effector

6

Cervical refers to the ____.

neck

7

Pedal refers to the ____.

foot

8

Homeostatic imbalance has occurred when a person ____.

becomes ill

9

The ____ cavity contains the bladder and rectum.

pelvic

10

Which internal organ is NOT housed in the ventral body cavity?

spinal cord

11

The abdominal regions that are lateral to the hypogastric region.

iliac

12

Listening to heart and breathing sounds with a stethoscope is ____.

auscultation

13

Lungs are located in the ____ cavities

pleural, ventral, and thoracic

14

Given these levels of organization: a) cell, b) chemical, c) organelle, d) organ, e) tissue. Choose the arrangement that lists the levels of organization in the correct order from smallest to largest.

chemical, organelle, cell, tissue, organ

15

____ is considered the "father of physiology." He was the first to propose that all parts of the body are served by a vein, artery, and nerve.

Erasistratus

16

Pollex is _____ to carpal.

distal

17

The term _____ refers to the arm.

brachial

18

Internal body temperature averages 37 C but fluctuates from 36.5 to 37.5 C. A body temperature of 37 C can therefore be considered the ____ for this variable.

set point

19

The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except _____.

palms turned posteriorly

20

Which of the following imaging devices would best identify blockages in arteries that supply the brain or heart wall?

DSA

21

____ is a chemical reaction that breaks bonds between the monomers in a polymer (e.g., polysaccharide), and this process ____ water.

Dehydration synthesis ... utilizes

22

Which of the following lipids in your diet are thought to decrease the risk of heart disease?

omega-3 fatty acids

23

Human blood has a pH of about ___ and this is slightly ____.

7.4 ... basic

24

Prostaglandins are ____.

lipids

25

Which of the following molecules' major function is to provide a ready, easily used source of cellular fuel?

carbohydrates

26

The single most abundant protein in the body is ____.

collagen

27

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of ____.

glycogen

28

Which of the following is NOT true of proteins?

They are the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information.

29

A "chain" of 25 amino acids is best referred to as a relatively ____.

small polypeptide

30

Strands of RNA are made from ____ (units), and they are produced via the ____ of a water molecule between each two units.

nucleotides ... "removal"

31

The coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix is referred to as the ____ structure.

secondary

32

Glycogen is a _____ composed of ____.

polysaccharide ... glucose

33

The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ____.

sequence of the nucleotides

34

The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ____.

carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

35

The _____ structure of a protein is the sequence of ____.

primary ... amino acids

36

Which statement about enzymes is false?

Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction.

37

A phospholipid is usually ____.

partially hydrophilic and partially hydrophobic

38

Sucrose is a ____.

disaccharide

39

An example of a protein that functions in transport is ____.

hemoglobin

40

Triglycerides and steroids are ____.

hydrophobic

41

Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?

A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.

42

Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals known as "second messengers?"

Cyclic AMP and calcium are second messengers.

43

Which of the following correctly lists the relative abundance of membrane lipids from the most abundant to the least abundant?

phospholipids, cholesterol, glycolipids

44

In osmosis, net movement of water occurs toward the solution with the lower solute concentration.

false

45

Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure?

Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules.

46

Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?

molecular transport through the membrane

47

Cell junctions that promote the coordinated activity of cells by physically binding them together into a cell community include all of the following except ________.

microvilli

48

Peroxisomes ____.

are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action

49

Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?

microvilli

50

The ____ is a coating of glycoproteins and glycolipids on the surface of a cell that can be involved in cell recognition.

glycocalyx

51

A red blood cell placed in pure water would ____.

swell and burst

52

Which of the following statements is correct regarding diffusion?

The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion.

53

Which of the following correctly matches a cell structure with its function?

Nucleoli ... Dense spherical bodies in the nucleus that are the synthesis site for ribosomal RNA.

54

Which of the following is a concept of the cell theory?

A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms.

55

Which of the following correctly matches the term with its definition?

Cholesterol ... Plasma membrane lipid that improves the rigidity of the plasma membrane and increases the membrane's impermeability to water.

56

Which of the following correctly matches the term with its definition?

Osmosis ... The movement of water across a selectively permeable plasma membrane from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.

57

Which of the following correctly matches the substance(s) with the method that would move it into a cell?

Large particles, bacteria, or cellular debris ... Phagocytosis

58

Which of the following structures is correctly matched with its function?

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum ... Lipid synthesis

59

The active transport of sodium ions across the cell membrane which then provides a diffusion gradient for the transport of glucose, is an example of ____.

secondary active transport

60

Most of the molecules in the cell membrane that serve as receptors, gates, and carriers are _____.

proteins

61

Which of the following correctly matches a membrane to its location?

Serous ... makes up the pleura and pericardium

62

Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue?

simple columnar

63

The shape of the external ear is maintained by ____.

elastic cartilage

64

Which statement best describes connective tissue?

usually contains a large amount of matrix

65

____ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.

Pseudostratified columnar

66

Which of the following is TRUE about the mode of secretion by exocrine glands?

Secretory cells of merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.

67

Matrix is ____.

protein fibers and ground substance

68

Which of the following is NOT connective tissue?

muscle

69

Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.

Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.

70

The presence of lacunae and calcium salts would indicate ____ tissue.

osseous

71

Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ____.

endocrine

72

What type of connective tissue has matrix composed almost entirely of parallel collagen fibers and is found in tendons and ligaments?

dense regular

73

Ovarian follicles and seminiferous tubules (of the testes) are lined with ____ epithelium.

stratified cuboidal

74

Glands that release an oily substance on the skin surface are ____.

sebaceous

75

Striated, branched cells with intercalated discs are characteristic of ____.

cardiac muscle

76

____ covers the outer surface of the lungs.

Visceral pleura

77

____ membranes form the lining of joint cavities.

synovial

78

____ tissue covers external and internal surfaces of the body and forms most glands.

epithelial

79

____ epithelium forms the lining of respiratory airways.

Pseudostratified columnar

80

Fibrocartilage is found in ____.

disks between the vertebrae

81

The ____ are muscles attached to the hair follicles which can cause "goose bumps" when they contract?

arrector pili

82

Fingernails are ____.

a modification of the epidermis

83

Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?

The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.

84

Diaphoresis refers to secretions from ____ glands that help to cool the body.

sudiferous glands

85

A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

86

Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been stretched and/or torn?

The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.

87

Select the correct statement concerning skin cancer.

Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.

88

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage because the role of the keratinocytes is to ____.

accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a pigment barrier that protects DNA from UV radiation

89

What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?

dehydration

90

Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?

Lamellated granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum (a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces).

91

Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem NOT to be useful in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?

in the axillary and anogenital area

92

Melanocytes are ____.

in contact with cells in the stratum basale

93

Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head (scalp) because ____.

eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months of the year

94

The epidermis consists of four to five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?

stratum basale

95

Which of the following touch receptors is found in the epidermis?

Merkel cells

96

The integumentary system is protected by our immune system through the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this immune function?

dendritic cells

97

The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?

reticular layer

98

The ____ glands are modified apocrine glands that secrete a waxy material.

ceruminous

99

A large amount of the body's stored fat is located in the _____.

hypodermis

100

Which of the following skin conditions is correctly matched with its cause?

porphyria ... an inherited metabolic disorder

101

Both compact bone and a medullary cavity are present in the ____ bones.

diaphysis of long

102

The ____ are layers of calcified matrix that appear as concentric rings in a cross-section of bone.

lamellae

103

____ are found in both compact and spongy bone.

lacunae, caniliculi, lamellae

104

____ ossification produces flat bones of the skull and ____ ossification produces long bones.

Intramembranous ... endochondral

105

Bones of the axial skeleton include ____.

occipital, parietal, & atlas

106

Examples of long, short, flat & irregular bones are ____, respectively.

humerus, carpals, sternum & vertebrae

107

The fundamental structural unit of compact bone is the ____.

osteon

108

Bone growth that increases bone width or diameter occurs primarily ____.

on the bone surface under the periosteum

109

The endosteum is ____ tissue that ____.

connective ... lines medullary cavities

110

During childhood, an increase in the length of long bones occurs via ____ growth at the ____.

interstitial ... epiphyseal plate

111

Trabeculae occur ____ bones.

inside flat

112

Blood vessels and nerve fibers pass through the ____ of each osteon.

central canal

113

____ marrow is the site of blood-forming (stem) cells. This type of marrow is most abundant in ____.

Red ... young children

114

The fusion of marrow stem cells produces the ____ which are located on the bone surface and can remove bone as needed.

osteoclasts

115

Epiphyses are the ____.

ends of long bones

116

Little cavities occupied by osteocytes in mature bone are ____.

lacunae

117

Little canals that connect adjacent lucunae in bone are ____.

canaliculi

118

In middle-aged adults, ___ marrow is found primarily in the bones of the axial skeleton whereas ___ marrow is found primarily in the long bones of the limbs.

red ... yellow

119

Within the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows on the ____ side and new bone is formed on the ____ side.

epiphyseal ... diaphyseal

120

Ossification is produced by the ____.

osteoblasts

121

Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium levels?

thyroid

122

Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?

calcitrol

123

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?

osteoclast

124

In bone formation, a deficiency of growth hormone will cause _____.

decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage

125

Factors in preventing (or delaying) osteoporosis include _____.

drinking fluoridated water

126

What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?

hyaline cartilage

127

When blood calcium levels become too low, ____ promotes the transfer of calcium from ____.

parathyroid hormone ... bone to blood

128

Which of the following would NOT be a potential cause of hypocalcemia?

underactive thyroid C cells

129

____ is the softening of bones in adults due to vitamin D or calcium deficiency.

Osteomalacia

130

Which of the following would NOT tend to increase levels of calcium in the blood?

increased activity of osteoblasts

131

The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ____.

cruciate ligaments

132

In the classification of joints, which of the following is TRUE?

All synovial joints are freely movable.

133

When a ballerina points the toes, the ankle movement is known as ____.

plantar flexion

134

Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ____.

bursae

135

Fibrous joints are classified as ____.

sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

136

A synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are present in a ____.

hinge joint

137

Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is/are often damaged as a result?

medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate

138

Which of these joint types affords uniaxial movement?

hinge

139

Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?

cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

140

Menisci refer to ____.

semilunar cartilage pads

141

Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ____.

amphiarthroses

142

Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ____.

hyperextension

143

An interosseus fibrous joint is present between the ____.

radius and ulna along its length

144

____ are cartilaginous joints.

Synchondroses

145

The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to movements at the ____.

feet

146

Synarthrotic joints ____.

permit essentially no movement

147

The shoulder joint is a good example of a(n) ____ synovial joint.

multiaxial

148

On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?

syndesmosis

149

When one is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane, it is called ____.

abduction

150

A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that permits a slight degree of movement is a ____.

symphysis

151

The muscle cell membrane is called a(n) ____.

sarcolemma

152

Smooth muscles that function somewhat like skeletal muscles but are controlled by autonomic nerves and hormones are _____ muscles.

multiunit

153

Which of the following is NOT a usual result of cross-training exercise?

a significant increase in the number of muscle cells

154

____ is used by muscle cells to convert ADP to ATP.

Creatine phosphate

155

Which of the following surrounds a muscle fascicle?

perimysium

156

Most skeletal muscles contain ____.

a mixture of slow-oxidative, fast-oxidative, and fast-glycolytic fibers

157

During muscle contraction, ____ heads attach to active sites on the ____ to form cross-bridges.

myosin ... actin

158

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ____.

changes in length and moves the "load"

159

After nervous stimulation of the muscle cell has ceased, the calcium ____.

level in the sarcoplasm declines

160

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.

161

Which of the following does NOT correctly match a muscle fiber band with its appropriate feature?

Does not decrease in width during muscle contraction. --- I band

162

Which of the following does NOT correctly match a muscle fiber type with its appropriate feature?

Contain abundant amounts of glycogen. --- Slow-oxidative

163

Rigor mortis occurs because ____.

ATP is required to release the attached actin and myosin molecules

164

The functional role of the T tubules is to ____.

inititate excitation-contraction coupling via conduction of action potentials

165

A motor unit is ____.

a nerve and the fibers that it controls

166

Myoglobin ____.

holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells

167

An elaborate network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that functions in calcium storage is the ____.

sarcoplasmic reticulum

168

Situation in which the contraction of an isolated muscle becomes stronger due to an increase in stimulus frequency. Partial relaxation occurs between muscle twitches.

summation

169

A bundle (group) of muscle cells forms a ____ in skeletal muscle.

muscle fascicle

170

____ is a neurotransmitter released at motor end plates (neuromuscular junctions) by the axonal endings of neurons.

Acetylcholine

171

In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is ____.

negatively charged and contains less sodium

172

Ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid are called ____.

ependymal cells

173

The sympathetic and parasympathetic are subdivisions of the ____.

autonomic nervous system

174

Immediately after an action potential has peaked (finished the depolarization phase), which cellular gates open to cause repolarization?

potassium

175

Which of the following does NOT correctly match a term with its description?

Depolarization --- Period during which sodium ions diffuse out of the neuron due to a change in permeability for these ions.

176

An efferent neuron ____.

carries motor output from the CNS to an effector

177

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is best associated with ____.

hyperpolarization

178

The sodium-potassium pump ____ the cell for every ____ the cell.

pumps three sodium ions outside ... two potassium ions inside

179

The substance released at axon terminals (knobs) to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ____.

neurotransmitter

180

Schwann cells are functionally similar to ____.

oligodendrocytes

181

The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ____.

axon

182

An excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle is ____.

acetylcholine

183

The point at which an impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell is the ____.

synapse

184

The term central nervous system refers to the ____.

brain and spinal cord

185

"Change in local potential producing slight depolarization" best describes ____.

an excitatory postsynaptic potential

186

A neuron with which of the following features would transmit action potentials at the fastest speed?

large diameter axon with myelin

187

Most neurons are ____ with one axon and many dendrites.

multipolar

188

During the depolarization phase of an action potential in a neuron, ____ gates open and these ions move ____ the cell.

Na+ ... into

189

The ___ of action potentials that travel through a sensory neuron codes for stimulus intensity.

frequency

190

List the following events of synaptic transmission in the correct sequence: (A) neurotransmitter binds to receptor on receiving cell, (B) excess neurotransmitter is reabsorbed into sending cell, (C) action potential occurs in sending cell, (D) neurotransmitter is released from vesicles in sending cell, (E) local potential is generated in receiving cell.

C, D, A, E, B

191

The spinal cord has gray matter on the ____.

inside, white matter on the outside, and a ventral motor root

192

The brain stem consists of the ____.

midbrain, medulla, and pons

193

The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?

arachnoid and pia

194

The brain area that regulates activities which control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ____.

reticular formation

195

An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ____.

paraplegia

196

The hypothalamus ____.

is the thermostat of the body since it regulates temperature

197

Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ____.

the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

198

Which of the following correctly matches a brain area with its function or description?

This brain area associates experiences necessary for the production of abstract ideas, judgment, and conscience. --- Prefrontal area

199

The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensations of the full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the _____.

visceral sensory area

200

The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ____.

medulla

201

Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ____.

upper motor neurons

202

The primary auditory cortex is located in the ____.

temporal lobe

203

Which of the following correctly matches a brain lobe with its function?

Seat of intelligence, abstract reasoning. --- Frontal

204

The blood-brain barrier is effective against ____.

metabolic waste such as urea

205

Spinocerebellar tracts ____.

carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum

206

Which of the following is not a midbrain structure?

third ventricle

207

Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?

red blood cells

208

The white matter of the spinal cord is composed of ____.

both sensory & motor neurons

209

Molecular changes in post-synaptic neurons such as an increase in NMDA receptors and release of nitric oxide to enhance signal transmission is primarily associated with forming ____ memory.

long-term

210

The spinal cord ends at the level of ____.

L1

211

Transduction refers to the conversion of ____.

stimulus information (energy) to afferent nerve impulses

212

A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle contraction is called a ____.

Golgi tendon reflex

213

In a crossed extensor reflex, if the right arm were grabbed it would flex and the left arm would _____.

extend

214

Which of the following correctly matches a reflex with its function or attribute?

Checks the integrity of the spinal cord and dorsal rami at the level of T8 to T12. --- Abdominal

215

Irritation of a major nerve of this plexus may cause hiccups.

cervical plexus

216

Which of the following is FALSE about the integration center of a reflex arc?

There are always multiple synapses with chains of interneurons.

217

The "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) ____.

stretch reflex

218

Bell's palsy is ____.

characterized by paralysis of facial muscles

219

Which of the following numbers of pairs of spinal nerves is correct?

12 thoracic

220

Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following?

oculomotor

221

Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?

vestibulocochlear

222

Receptors for ____ are NOT free nerve endings.

heavy touch

223

Which of the following correctly matches a cranial nerve with its function or attribute?

Helps to regulate blood pressure and digestion. --- Vagus

224

Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ____.

nociceptors

225

A simple spinal reflex goes along which of the following reflex arcs?

receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

226

A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye, and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve has been damaged?

facial

227

Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except ____.

Pacinian corpuscles

228

Meissner's corpuscles are ____.

mechanoreceptors

229

Which of the following correctly matches a nerve plexus with its function or attribute?

Trauma to a nerve of this plexus may cause wrist drop. --- Brachial

230

The cranial nerves that have neural connections with the tongue include all except the ____.

trochlear

231

The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ____.

parasympathetic division

232

In contrast to the somatic nervous system, the autonomic nervous system ____.

has two efferent neurons

233

Which of the following correctly matches an ANS motor fiber with its neurotransmitter?

Postganglionic parasympathetic -- Acetylcholine

234

Autonomic ganglia contain ____.

the cell bodies of postganglionic motor fibers

235

The site(s) of origin of the preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system is (are) the ____.

brain stem and the sacral region of the spinal cord

236

The parasympathetic nervous system is characterized by peripheral ganglia near the ____.

organs and by short postganglionic fibers

237

Erection of the penis or clitoris ____.

is primarily under parasympathetic control

238

The autonomic nervous system ____.

is controlled by the hypothalamus and reticular formation

239

Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ____.

sympathetic nervous system

240

Which of the following correctly matches a division of the ANS with one of its effects?

Decreases heart rate -- Parasympathetic

241

The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ____ stimulation.

sympathetic

242

Which of the following is NOT a result of parasympathetic stimulation?

increased vasoconstriction of most blood vessels

243

Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ____.

X

244

Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ____.

single preganglionic axons make multiple synapses with ganglionic neurons

245

Effects of the sympathetic division include all except ____.

dilation of the blood vessels serving the digestive viscera

246

Sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord in the ____.

thoracic and lumbar regions

247

Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?

regulation of body temperature

248

A drug that might be used specifically to reduce heart rate in cardiac patients could be ____.

a beta-blocker

249

Albuterol stimulates dilation of bronchioles and thus acts as a ____ medication.

sympathomimetic

250

Emotions influence autonomic reactions (reflexes) primarily through integration in the ____.

hypothalamus

251

Which of the following correctly matches an eye or ear condition with its appropriate description?

An inflammation of the lining of the middle ear. -- Otitis media

252

Which of the following correctly matches an eye structure with its appropriate description?

Helps maintain the intraocular pressure; located in the anterior part of the eye. -- Aqueous humor

253

There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves?

ganglion cells

254

Light passes through the following structures in which order?

cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

255

Motion sickness seems to ___.

result from a mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs

256

Which the following incorrectly matches an ear condition with its description?

Can result from the fusion of the auditory ossicles. -- Sensorineural deafness

257

The receptor for static equilibrium is the ___.

macula

258

What is the main function of the rods in the eye?

vision in dim light

259

During dark adaptation ___.

rhodopsin accumulates in the rods

260

Photoreceptors ___.

package visual pigment in membrane-bound discs, which increases the efficiency of light trapping

261

Which of the following incorrectly matches an eye structure with its description?

The vascular coat of the eyeball; deeply pigmented. -- Cornea

262

An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is (are) the ___.

otoliths

263

The ciliary body does not ___.

belong to the anterior chamber of the eye

264

Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ___.

substances in solution

265

The blind spot of the eye is where ___.

the optic nerve leaves the eye

266

Which of the following incorrectly matches a receptor with its location?

The receptors of olfaction are found in this structure. -- Vestibule.

267

Which of the following incorrectly matches an ear structure with its description?

A membrane that transmits sound vibrations to the auditory ossicles. -- Oval window

268

___ is a disorder of the olfactory nerves.

Anosmias

269

Which of the following incorrectly matches an ear structure with its description?

Separates external auditory canal from the middle ear. -- Round window

270

Receptors for hearing are located in the ___.

cochlea

271

What are the special senses in human?

vision, olfaction, gustation, hearing, equilibrium

272

How do the special senses in humans differ from general senses?

General senses are scattered throughout the body and have simple make up. Special senses have distinct receptors and have a complex make up.

273
card image

know this

274

What is the sequence of structures and fluids that light rays must pass through to reach the retina?

conjuctiva, cornea, anterior segment, margin of pupil, lens, ciliary body, ciliary process, ciliary zonule, posterior segment, retina.

275

Which of the eye structures does most of the refraction of light rays?

cornea

276

What is astigmatism?

a defect in the eye or in a lens caused by a deviation from spherical curvature, which results in distorted images, as light rays are prevented from meeting at a common focus.

277

How does the ANS control pupil diameter?

The parasympathetic controls constriction and the sympathetic controls dilation

278

How does the ANS control changes in lens shape during accommodation (how does the ciliary muscle change lens shape when viewing a near versus distant object)?

For near objects, the ciliary muscle relaxes and the lens flattens.

For distant objects, the ciliary muscle contracts and the lens bulges.

279

What are the layers of cells that constitute the retina?

horizontal, bipolar, amacrine, and ganglion cells

280

In which direction does light pass through these cell layers in the retina?

horizontal, bipolar, amacrine, and ganglion??

281

Which neurons of the retina form the optic nerve?

ganglion cells

282

How do rods and cones differ anatomically?

Rods contain rhodopsin; they are for black and white.

Cones contain retinal; they are for colors.

283

What is the outer segment?

contains visual pigment molecules

284

What is photodissociation?

bleaching of visual pigments

285

What is rhodopsin?

visual pigment made of retinal and opsin

286

What is retinal?

protein derived from vitamin A

287

What is opsin?

protein that helps make up rhodopsin and is activated by light.

288

Why is vitamin A important for vision?

retinal comes from vitamin A

289

What vision problem occurs as a result of vitamin A deficiency?

night blindness

290

What is responsible for dark adaptation?

rhodopsin

291

How are action potentials (nerve impulses) generated in the optic nerve when light strikes the photoreceptors?

phototransduction closes the Na channels; no release of inhibitory neurotransmitter

292

What are the types of cones?

red, green, blue

293

How do the different types of cones differ?

Each type contains retinal attached to different types of opsin

red(560 nm), green(530 nm), blue(420 nm)

294

What anatomical features of the retina are responsible for producing high visual sensitivity?

rods

295

What anatomical features of the retina are responsible for producing high visual acuity?

cones

296

What are the relative distribution of rods and cones in the retina?

way more rods than cones

297

What is the extent of neuronal convergence from these photoreceptors to the ganglion cells?

Extensive neuronal convergence from rods; no neuronal convergence from cones.

298

What is myopia?

nearsightedness

299

What is hyperopia?

farsightedness

300

What produces conditions of myopia?

the eye is too long

301

What produces conditions of hyperopia?

the eye is too short

302

How do corrective lenses compensate for myopia?

concave lenses

303

How do corrective lenses compensate for hyperopia?

convex lenses

304

What is glaucoma?

inadequate drainage of aqueous humor

305

What produces glaucoma?

high intraocular pressure damages optic nerve

306

What is cataract?

inadequate delivery of nutrients to deeper lens fibers

307

What produces cataract?

clumping of crystallin proteins

308

What types of receptors are responsible for the sense of taste?

taste buds aka taste cells or taste hairs

309

What types of receptors are responsible for the sense of olfaction?

olfactory cells

310

How are taste receptors stimulated?

dissolved molecules bind to protein receptors

311

How are olfaction receptors stimulated?

volatile molecules bind to protein receptors

312

How many different odors can humans distinguish?

more than 1 trillion

313

How many different tastes can humans distinguish?

five

314

What are the tastes that humans can distinguish?

salty, sweet, sour, bitter, savory

315
card image

know this

316

What structures are located in the outer ear region?

auditory canal, tympanic membrane

317

What structures are located in the middle ear region?

tympanic membrane, auditory tube, oval window

318

What structures are located in the inner ear region?

oval window, cochlea, auditory tube

319

What is the sequence of events that leads to generation of action potentials in cochlear nerve?

Sound waves vibrate tympanic membrane, the vibration moves ossicles, stapes move oval window, pressure waves created in fluid inside cochlea, pressure waves in cochlear fluid move the basilar membrane, hair cells in spiral organ are bent, bending of hair cells opens K+ channels of sterocilia, K+ inflow --> depolarization --> Ca influx --> release of glutamate --> APs in cochlear nerve fibers

320

What are the sensory receptor cells for hearing?

cochlear hair cells

321

Where are the sensory receptor cells for hearing located?

cochlea of the inner ear

322

How does transduction occur in hearing receptors?

outer modify responsiveness of inner

323

What is the reflex mechanism for preventing damage to hearing receptor cells when you are exposed to very loud sounds?

stapedius and tensor tympani limit movements from loud sounds

324

How does the ear detect differences in pitch of sound?

high pitch stimulates basilar membrane close to the oval window

low pitch stimulates basilar membrane farther from oval window

325

What types of problems can lead to conduction deafness?

auditory canal blockage, inflamed middle ear, abnormal bone growth near middle ear, damage to tympanic membrane

326

What types of problems can lead to sensorineural deafness?

loss of cochlear hair cells

327

Which structures of the inner ear are involved in sensory perception for balance?

hair cells in the inner ear

328

What are the sensory receptor cells for balance?

hair cells, visual receptors, somatic receptors(proprioceptors)

329

Where are the sensory receptor cells for balance located?

ear, eyes, neck, trunk, limbs

330

What are the stimuli for the balance (vestibular) receptors in these structures?

gravity and inertia

331

What are the motor responses for vestibular information?

reflexive eye movements, motion sickness

332

What are the anatomical and functional links between the endocrine system and nervous system?

hypothalamus and adrenal medulla

333

What is an endocrine glad?

gland that secretes hormones into the bloodstream

334

What is a hormone?

chemical that alters the activity of specific cells

335

What is a target cell?

specific cell targeted by hormones

336

How do paracrine regulators differ from hormones?

a paracrine regulator is a target cell near the secreting cell

337

How do autocrine regulators differ from hormones?

an autocrine regulator is a target cell that is also the secreting cell

338

What are the chemical classes of hormones?

polypeptides, steroids, amines

339

Lipid-soluble hormones mode of transport to the bloodstream

cytoplasm or nucleus

340

Water-soluble hormones mode of transport to the bloodstream

2nd messenger system

341

Lipid-soluble ability to pass through the cell membranes of target cells

directly trigger cell response

342

Water-soluble ability to pass through the cell membranes of target cells

indirectly trigger cell response via signal transduction

343

Lipid-soluble location of receptors at target cells

inside target cells

344

Water-soluble location of receptors at target cells

surface of target cells

345

How do lipid-soluble hormones typically affect target cells?

alter gene transcription and protein production

346

How do water-soluble hormones typically affect target cells?

alter membrane transport, enzyme activation, or gene transcription

347

Examples of lipid-soluble hormones

cortisol and thyroxine

348

Examples of water-soluble hormones

insulin and epinephrine

349

How can a single hormone have multiple effects?

different receptor types produce different responses

350

What are tissues that produce hormones?

endocrine tissues

351

What are organs that produce hormones?

endocrine glands

352

Anatomy of the anterior pituitary

pars distalis, Pars tuberalis, Pars intermedia

353

Function of the anterior pituitary

hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting hormones control release of hormones from anterior pituitary

354

Anatomy of the posterior pituitary

Pars nervosa, Infundibular stalk

355

Function of the posterior pituitary

neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus release hormones from posterior pituitary

356

Eight hormones released from the anterior pituitary (with their target cells and functions)

tropic, FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH, Prolactin, MSH, GH

357

Two hormones released from the posterior pituitary (with their target cells and functions)

oxytocin and ADH (vasopressin)

358

thyroid gland

T3 and T4; regulate metabolic rate and proper growth and development

calcitonin; lowers blood calcium

359

parathyroid gland

parathyroid hormone; increases blood calcium and completes vitamin D synthesis in kidneys

360

pancreas

insulin; lowers blood glucose

glucagon; raises blood glucose

361

thymus

thymosin; controls maturation of T cells

362

adrenal medulla

epinephrine and norepinephrine; promote fight-or-flight response

363

adrenal cortex

aldosterone and cortisol; increase blood glucose and pressure

364

pineal gland

melatonin; regulates daily and seasonal rhythms and controls the reproductive system

365

ovaries

estrogen and progesterone; control development of sex traits and reproduction

366

testes

testosterone; controls development of sex traits and sex drive

367

small intestines

secretin and CCK; stimulate pancreas to release bicarbonate and enzymes, and stimulates gall bladder to contract

368

kidney

erythropoieten; increases red blood cell production

369

placenta

HCG; maintains endometrium during pregnancy

370

What are the stress responses of glucocorticoids?

Proteins and fats broken down and converted to glucose, leading to increased blood glucose.

Partial suppression of immune system.

371

What are the stress responses of mineralocorticoids?

Retention of sodium ions and water by kidneys.

Increased blood volume and pressure.

372

What are the stress responses of epinephrine and norepinephrine?

glycogen broken down to glucose; increased blood glucose.

increased blood pressure, breathing rate, and metabolic rate.

Change in blood flow patterns.

373

What is the role of a second messenger in hormone action?

It relays a hormone's message inside a target cell.

374

Which one of the following endocrine organs does not actually manufacture hormones but, rather, stores hormones produced elsewhere?

posterior pituitary

375

A doctor might give an expectant mother _____ to stimulate uterine contractions (induce labor).

oxytocin

376

The regulation of water volume in the blood involves which hormone?

ADH

377

How does the hypothalamus control the secretion of growth hormone (GH) from the anterior pituitary?

The hypothalamus produces a releasing hormone that stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete GH.

378

Which of the following hormones specifically act(s) to trigger secretion of hormones by another endocrine gland?

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

379

The mammary glands of a pregnant female will begin to produce milk in response to changes in the level of which of the following hormones?

prolactin

380

Hyperthyroidism, typically characterized by a high metabolic rate and high blood pressure, might be expected when _____.

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) concentration is high

381

Which of the following hormones have antagonistic effects?

insulin and glucagon

382

At night, the _____ secretes _____ than during the day.

pineal gland ... more melatonin

383

Which of the following is a hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary?

oxytocin

384

FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are hormones known as _____.

gonadotropins

385

Which disorder is correctly matched with its cause?

pituitary dwarfism ... hyposecretion of growth hormone

386

If a diet is deficient in iodine, a goiter may form because _____.

low blood levels of T3 and T4 inhibit the negative feedback loop. An overload of TSH causes enlargement of the gland.

387

Every time you eat a cookie or candy bar, your blood sugar increases. This triggers an increase in the hormone _____.

insulin

388

Cortisol and estrogen are ____ hormones and thus the protein receptors for these hormones are ____ the target cells.

lipid soluble ... inside

389

The adrenal gland is ____ and secretes hormones such as ____.

near the kidney ... norepinephrine and corticosteroids

390

Which of the following INCORRECTLY matches hormone with its effect?

LH ... controls maturation of T cells

391

____ hormones such as ____ bind to receptors on the surface of target cells.

Water-soluble ...insulin

392

Calcitonin is secreted from the ____ and acts to ____ blood calcium.

thyroid gland ... decrease