43, 45 Flashcards

Innate immunity
A) is activated immediately upon infection.
B) depends on a newly infected animal's previous exposure to the same pathogen.
C) is based on recognition of antigens that are specific to different pathogens.
D) is found only in vertebrate animals.
E) utilizes highly specific antigen receptors on B cells.

Acidity in human urine is an example of
A) cell-mediated immune responses.
B) antibody activation.
C) acquired immunity.
D) adaptive immunity.
E) innate immunity.

A fruit fly, internally infected by a potentially pathogenic fungus, is protected by
A) its plasma cells.
B) its immunoglobulins.
C) its antibodies.
D) its antimicrobial peptides.
E) its B cells.

Engulfing-phagocytic cells of innate immunity include all of the following except
A) neutrophils.
B) macrophages.
C) dendritic cells.
D) natural killer cells.

The lymphatic fluid
A) is a filtrate of the blood, as is urine.
B) is completely separate from the circulatory system for blood.
C) carries both red and white blood cells.
D) functions in adaptive immunity but not in innate immunity.
E) carries a toxic gas that kills cancerous cells.

An inflammation-causing signal released by mast cells at the site of an infection is
A) an interferon.
B) lymphatic fluid.
C) histamine.
D) mucus.
E) sodium ions.

A systemic inflammatory response that is often life-threatening is
A) mild fever.
B) aches and dull pain.
C) septic shock.
D) high blood pressure.
E) increased white blood cell count.

The eyes and the respiratory tract are both protected against infections by
A) the mucous membranes that cover their surface.
B) the secretion of complement proteins.
C) the release of slightly alkaline secretions.
D) the secretion of lysozyme onto their surfaces.
E) interferons produced by immune cells.

Salmonella bacterial poisoning can be initiated when
A) the microbe survives the acidic environment of the stomach and resists lysosomal degradation in macrophages.
B) the chemotactic messengers released by the microbe do not attract sufficient neutrophils to entirely destroy the infection.
C) there is a delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and fight these microbes.
D) the microbes release chemical messengers that make them resistant to phagocytosis.
E) The combination of foods eaten at the meal reduces the pH of the stomach sufficiently so that ingested microbes are not destroyed.

) The complement system is
A) a set of proteins involved in innate but not acquired immunity.
B) a set of proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells and other CD8 cells.
C) a group of proteins that includes interferons and interleukins.
D) a group of antimicrobial proteins that act together in a cascade fashion.
E) a set of proteins that act individually to attack and lyse microbes.

Antihistamine treatment reduces
A) blood vessel dilation.
B) phagocytosis of antigens.
C) MHC presentation by macrophages.
D) the secondary immune response.
E) clonal selection by antigens.

Cave art by early humans recognized the existence of the major signs of inflammation. The most inclusive set of symptoms of inflammation that might appear in such early human art is
A) heat, pain, and redness.
B) pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue.
C) swelling and pain.
D) antibody-producing cells.
E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain.

Ancient peoples sought to identify the indicators of inflammation because
A) seeing such signs would be cause for their seeking out a healer in their community.
B) the presence of the signs of inflammation in a patient could be a condemnation of the healer.
C) the ancients probably knew of plant derivatives that could reduce the pain of inflammation.
D) the presence of these signs suggests that healing was taking place; otherwise, the patient would likely die.
E) the signs of inflammation served as a caution to keep people away from the patient.

The cells and signaling molecules that initiate inflammatory responses are
A) the phagocytes and the lysozymes.
B) the phagocytes and the chemokines.
C) the dendritic cells and the interferons.
D) the mast cells and the histamines.
E) the lymphocytes and the interferons.

Inflammatory responses typically include
A) clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection.
B) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area.
C) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma.
D) release of substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area.
E) inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow.

Bacteria entering the body through a small cut in the skin
A) inactivate the erythrocytes.
B) stimulate apoptosis of nearby body cells.
C) stimulate release of interferons.
D) stimulate natural killer cell activity.
E) activate a group of proteins called complement.

An invertebrate, such as an insect, has innate immunity activity in its intestine that likely includes
A) complement.
B) lysozyme.
C) mucus.
D) neutrophils.
E) dendritic cells.

In some insects, such as Drosophila, fungal cell wall elements can activate the protein Toll, which
A) acts as a receptor that, when activated, signals synthesis of antimicrobial peptides.
B) functions directly to attack the fungi presented to it.
C) produces antimicrobial peptides by interaction with chitin.
D) secretes special recognition signal molecules that identify specific pathogens.
E) causes some hemocytes to phagocytize the pathogens.

Mammals have Toll-like receptors (TLRs) that can recognize a kind of macromolecule that is absent from vertebrates but present in/on certain groups of pathogens, including viral
A) lipopolysaccharides.
B) double-stranded DNA.
C) double-stranded RNA.
D) glycoproteins.
E) phospholipids.

Histamines trigger dilation of nearby blood vessels as well as an increase in their permeability, producing
A) redness and heat only.
B) swelling only.
C) pain.
D) redness, heat, and swelling.
E) all of the signs of a major infection.

Septic shock, a systemic response including high fever and low blood pressure, is a response to
A) certain bacterial infections.
B) specific forms of viruses.
C) the presence of natural killer cells.
D) a fever of >103°F in adults.
E) increased production of neutrophils.

Infection by a bacterium that has elements on its surface that enhance its resistance to lysozyme will likely result in
A) destruction of the bacterium by NK cells.
B) successful reproduction of the bacterium and continued progression of the disease.
C) removal of the bacterium by dendritic cells and its concentration in lymph nodes.
D) the infected individual's humoral immunity becoming the only route of infection response.
E) lymphocytes migrating from the thymus to attack the bacterium.

Adaptive immunity depends on
A) traits common to groups of pathogens.
B) pathogen-specific recognition.
C) maternal provision of antibodies to offspring.
D) plants being exposed to new pathogens.
E) having exhausted all options for innate immunity responses.

Bacterial infection in a previously uninfected house cat would most quickly activate its
A) Toll-like receptors that bind to lipopolysaccharides.
B) memory cells to produce antibodies.
C) plasma cells to produce antigens.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) humoral immune responses

A key part of the humoral immune response is
A) the attack of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells.
B) the production of antibodies by plasma cells.
C) perforation of infected host cells by perforin.
D) the attack of phagocytes on living pathogens.
E) the initiation of programmed cell death in infected host cells.

The receptors on T cells and B cells bind to
A) antibodies.
B) antigens.
C) natural killer cells.
D) double-stranded RNA.
E) immunoglobulins.

An epitope is
A) part of the interferons that penetrate foreign cells.
B) a protein protruding from the surface of B cells.
C) two structurally similar antibodies dissolved in the blood plasma.
D) that part of an antigen that actually binds to an antigen receptor.
E) a mirror image of an antigen.

B cells have antigen receptors that bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells. T cells have antigen receptors that
A) are active only in lymph nodes.
B) bind only to antigens present on the surface of the invading/foreign cells.
C) bind only to freely dissolved antigens in the plasma.
D) bind to antigens presented on major histocompatability complexes by host cells.
E) bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells.

Within a differentiated B cell, the rearrangement of DNA sequences between variable regions and joining regions is accomplished by
A) polyadenylase.
B) RNA polymerase.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) epitopase.
E) recombinase.

Clonal selection of B cells activated by antigen exposure leads to production of
A) large numbers of neutrophils.
B) large quantities of the antigen initially recognized.
C) vast numbers of B cells with random antigen-recognition receptors.
D) long-lived erythrocytes that can later secrete antibodies for the antigen.
E) short-lived plasma cells that secrete antibodies for the antigen.

Antigens are
A) proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump.
B) proteins embedded in B cell membranes.
C) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains.
D) foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies.
E) proteins released during an inflammatory response.

A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most likely
A) lack class I MHC molecules on cell surfaces.
B) lack humoral immunity.
C) be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors.
D) be unable to differentiate and mature T cells.
E) have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies.

Clonal selection implies that
A) brothers and sisters have similar immune responses.
B) antigens increase mitosis in specific lymphocytes.
C) only certain cells can produce interferon.
D) a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors.
E) the body selects which antigens it will respond to.

Clonal selection is an explanation for how
A) a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells.
B) V, J, and C gene segments are rearranged.
C) an antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies.
D) HIV can disrupt the immune system.
E) macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells.

Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a pathogen are due to the activation of
A) memory cells.
B) macrophages.
C) stem cells.
D) B cells.
E) T cells.

The MHC is important in a T cell's ability to
A) distinguish self from nonself.
B) recognize specific parasitic pathogens.
C) identify specific bacterial pathogens.
D) identify specific viruses.
E) recognize differences among types of cancer.

A patient who can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens, but not against viral infections, probably has a disorder in his
A) B cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) natural killer cells.
D) T cells.
E) macrophages.

The activation of helper T cells is likely
A) when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell.
B) when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines.
C) when natural killer (NK) cells come in contact with a tumor cell.
D) in the bone marrow during the self-tolerance test.
E) when B cells respond to T-independent antigens.

An immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule, of whatever class, with regions symbolized as C or V, H or L, has a light chain made up of
A) one C region and one V region.
B) three C regions and one V region.
C) one H region and one L region.
D) three H regions and one L region.
E) two C regions and two V regions.

The ability of one person to produce over a million different antibody molecules does not require over a million different genes; rather, this wide range of antibody production is due to
A) alternative splicing of exons after transcription.
B) increased rate of mutation in the RNA molecules.
C) DNA rearrangements.
D) rearrangements of cytosolic proteins in the thymus cells.
E) crossing over between the light and heavy chains of each antibody molecule during meiosis I.

Immunological memory accounts for
A) the human body's ability to distinguish self from nonself.
B) the observation that some strains of the pathogen that causes dengue fever cause worse disease than others.
C) the ability of a helper T cell to signal B cells via cytokines.
D) the ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague could safely care for those newly diseased.
E) the ability of the immune system to present antigen fragments in association with MHC antigens.

The function of antibodies is to
A) inject toxins into living pathogens.
B) secrete cytokines that attract macrophages to infection sites.
C) release perforins to disrupt infected cells.
D) act as Toll-like receptors.
E) mark pathogenic cells for destruction.

This type of immunity is present only when a newborn infant is being fed by actively nursing on its mother and ends when nursing ends.
A) innate immunity
B) active immunity
C) passive immunity
D) cell-mediated immunity
E) adaptive immunity

Yearly vaccination of humans for influenza viruses is necessary because
A) of an increase in immunodeficiency diseases.
B) flu can generate anaphylactic shock.
C) surviving the flu one year exhausts the immune system to nonresponsiveness the second year.
D) rapid mutation in flu viruses alters the surface proteins in infected host cells.
E) flu leads to autoimmune disorders.

The cell-mediated immunity that destroys virally infected cells involves
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) natural killer cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) B cells.

Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and also respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) natural killer cells
C) helper T cells
D) macrophages
E) B cells

The cells involved in innate immunity, whose absence increases the chances of developing malignant tumors, are
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) natural killer cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) B cells.

Select the pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells.
A) B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs
B) body cell becomes infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → class I MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface
C) self-tolerance of immune cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released
D) complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated → cytokines released
E) cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed → cytokines released → cell lysis

Among the last line of defenses against prolonged exposure to an extracellular pathogen is
A) lysozyme production.
B) phagocytosis by neutrophils.
C) antibody production by plasma cells.
D) histamine release by basophils.
E) lysis by natural killer cells.

Arrange these components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen in the correct sequence.

I. Pathogen is destroyed.
II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V. Only memory cells remain.

A) I → III → II → IV → V
B) III → II → I → V → IV
C) II → I → IV → III → V
D) IV → II → III → I → V
E) III → IV → II → I → V

A cell type that interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune pathways is a
A) plasma cell.
B) cytotoxic T cell.
C) natural killer cell.
D) CD8 cell.
E) helper T cell.

A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable to
A) respond to T-independent antigens.
B) lyse tumor cells.
C) stimulate a cytotoxic T cell.
D) interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex.
E) interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex.

CD4 and CD8 are
A) proteins secreted by antigen-presenting cells.
B) receptors present on the surface of natural killer (NK) cells.
C) T-independent antigens.
D) molecules present on the surface of T cells where they interact with MHC molecules.
E) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they enhance B cell activity.

T cells of the immune system include
A) CD4, CD8, and plasma cells.
B) cytotoxic and helper cells.
C) plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells.
D) lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
E) class I MHC, class II MHC, and memory cells.

B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when
A) B cells produce IgE antibodies.
B) B cells release cytokines.
C) helper T cells present the class II MHC molecule-antigen complex on their surface.
D) helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells.
E) helper T cells release cytokines.

Normal immune responses can be described as polyclonal because
A) blood contains many different antibodies and antigens.
B) construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells.
C) multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell.
D) diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen.
E) macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in a normal immune response.

Antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE differ from each other
A) in the way they are produced.
B) in their heavy-chain structure.
C) in the type of cell that produces them.
D) by the antigenic determinants that they recognize.
E) by the number of carbohydrate subunits they have.

When antibodies bind antigens, the clumping of antigens results from
A) the multivalence of the antibody having at least two binding regions.
B) disulfide bridges between the antigens.
C) complement that makes the affected cells sticky.
D) bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules.
E) denaturation of the antibodies.

Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by
A) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes.
B) antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes.
C) the release of cytokines by activated B cells.
D) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes and antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes only.
E) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes, antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes, and the release of cytokines by activated B cells.

The primary function of humoral immunity is
A) to defend against fungi and protozoa.
B) to reject transplanted tissues.
C) to protect the body against cells that become cancerous.
D) to protect the body against extracellular pathogens.
E) to defend against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells.

Naturally acquired passive immunity results from the
A) injection of vaccine.
B) ingestion of interferon.
C) placental transfer of antibodies.
D) absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes.
E) injection of antibodies.

In active immunity, but not passive immunity, there is
A) acquisition and activation of antibodies.
B) proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow.
C) the transfer of antibodies from the mother across the placenta.
D) the requirement for direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen.
E) the requirement of secretion of interleukins from macrophages.

Jenner's successful use of cowpox virus as a vaccine against the smallpox virus is due to the fact that
A) the immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens.
B) the cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox.
C) cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties.
D) there are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses.
E) cowpox and smallpox are caused by the same virus.

An individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin would likely benefit from
A) vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin.
B) injection of antibodies to the toxin.
C) injection of interleukin-1.
D) injection of interleukin-2.
E) injection of interferon.

For the successful development of a vaccine to be used against a pathogen, it is necessary that
A) the surface antigens of the pathogen not change.
B) a rearrangement of the B cell receptor antibodies takes place.
C) all of the surface antigens on the pathogen be identified.
D) the pathogen has only one epitope.
E) the MHC molecules are heterozygous.

A diseased patient is exposed to an unknown agent while out of the country. The patient's blood is found to have a high proportion of lymphocytes with CD8 surface proteins in her blood, a likely result of
A) the patient having encountered a bacterial infection which elicited CD8+ T cells.
B) the disease having been caused by a multicellular parasite, such as can be encountered in polluted water sources.
C) the CD8 proteins having been discharged from these lymphocytes to lyse the infected cells.
D) a viral infection eliciting proliferation of CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.
E) the CD8 proteins having "marked" the surface of cells that accumulate after the infection is over and signal patient recovery.

The switch of one B cell from producing one class of antibody to another antibody class that is responsive to the same antigen is due to
A) mutation in the genes of that B cell, induced by exposure to the antigen.
B) the rearrangement of V region genes in that clone of responsive B cells.
C) a switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune response.
D) a patient's reaction to the first kind of antibody made by the plasma cells.
E) the rearrangement of immunoglobulin heavy-chain C region DNA.

The number of MHC protein combinations possible in a given population is enormous. However, an individual in that diverse population has a far more limited array of MHC molecules because
A) the MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number of ways.
B) MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II.
C) each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual only inherits two for each gene.
D) once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response categories.
E) once a T cell has matured in the thymus, it can only respond to two MHC categories.

A bone marrow transplant may not be appropriate from a given donor (Jane) to a given recipient (Jane's cousin Bob), even though Jane has previously given blood for one of Bob's needed transfusions, because
A) even though Jane's blood type is a match to Bob's, her MHC proteins may not be a match.
B) a blood type match is less stringent than a match required for transplant because blood is more tolerant of change.
C) for each gene, there is only one blood allele but many tissue alleles.
D) Jane's class II genes are not expressed in bone marrow.
E) Bob's immune response has been made inadequate before he receives the transplant.

Infection with HIV typically
A) increases the level of helper T cells for the first year after infection.
B) eliminates all T cells immediately.
C) leads to an immediate decrease in the number of HIV in the blood.
D) alters mitochondrial but not genomic DNA sequences.
E) is found in B cells but not in T cells.

The transfusion of type A blood to a person who has type O blood would result in
A) the recipient's B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B antibodies.
B) the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells.
C) the recipient's anti-A and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the donor was a heterozygote (Ai) for blood type.
D) no reaction because type O is a universal donor.
E) no reaction because the O-type individual does not have antibodies.

An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because
A) MHC molecules of the donor may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue, but bacteria lack MHC molecules.
B) the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and will not enter into an immune response.
C) a response to the graft will involve B cells and a response to the bacterium will not.
D) a bacterium cannot escape the immune system by replicating inside normal body cells.
E) the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient.

In the human disease known as lupus, there is an immune reaction against a patient's own DNA from broken or dying cells, which categorizes lupus as
A) an allergy.
B) an immunodeficiency.
C) an autoimmune disease.
D) an antigenic variation.
E) a cancer.

A patient who undergoes a high level of mast cell degranulation, dilation of blood vessels, and acute drop in blood pressure is likely suffering from
A) an autoimmune disease.
B) a typical allergy that can be treated by antihistamines.
C) an organ transplant, such as a skin graft.
D) the effect of exhaustion on the immune system.
E) anaphylactic shock immediately following exposure to an allergen.

An example of a pathogen that undergoes rapid changes resulting in antigenic variation is
A) the influenza virus, which expresses alternative envelope proteins.
B) the strep bacteria, which can be communicated from patient to patient with high efficiency.
C) human papilloma virus, which can remain latent for several years.
D) the causative agent of the autoimmune disease known as rheumatoid arthritis.
E) multiple sclerosis, which attacks the myelinated cells of the nervous system.

The ability of some viruses to remain inactive (latent) for a period of time is exemplified by
A) influenza, a particular strain of which returns every 10-20 years.
B) herpes simplex viruses (oral or genital) whose reproduction is triggered by physiological or emotional stress in the host.
C) Kaposi's sarcoma, which causes a skin cancer in people with AIDS, but rarely in those not infected by HIV.
D) the virus that causes a form of the common cold, which recurs in patients many times in their lives.
E) myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease that blocks muscle contraction from time to time.

Most newly emerging diseases result in
A) greater severity as there are more and more occurrences of the infection.
B) major pandemics, spreading the infection far and wide in the population.
C) the waning of the disease, due to evolutionary selection for resistant hosts and milder pathogens.
D) a destruction of the host's immune system and eventual cancer.
E) no discoverable relationship with other pathogens in the same or related species.

Preventing the appearance of the symptoms of an allergy attack would be the likely result of
A) blocking the attachment of the IgE antibodies to the mast cells.
B) blocking the antigenic determinants of the IgM antibodies.
C) reducing the number of helper T cells in the body.
D) reducing the number of cytotoxic cells.
E) reducing the number of natural killer cells.

A patient complaining of watery, itchy eyes and sneezing after being given a flower bouquet as a birthday gift should first be treated with
A) a vaccine.
B) complement.
C) sterile pollen.
D) antihistamines.
E) monoclonal antibodies.

A patient who has a parasitic worm infection and another patient responding to an allergen such as ragweed pollen have which of the following in common?
A) an increase in cytotoxic T cell number
B) suffering from anaphylactic shock
C) risking development of an autoimmune disease
D) suffering from a decreased level of innate immunity
E) an increase in the levels of IgE

An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had already been infected when she was a child, at which time she had merely experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck. This time, though infected, she does not get sick.

89) Her immune system's recognition of the second infection involves the
A) helper T cells.
B) memory B cells.
C) plasma cells.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) natural killer cells.

An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had already been infected when she was a child, at which time she had merely experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck. This time, though infected, she does not get sick.

90) The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the virus-infected cells along with
A) complement.
B) antibodies.
C) class I MHC molecules.
D) class II MHC molecules.
E) dendritic cells.

Immunodeficiencies can be genetic in origin, and two examples are Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, an X-linked disorder, and DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.

91) Select the description that likely indicates a child with Bruton's disease.
A) baby girl Denise, with low level of antibody response to streptococcal infection
B) baby boy John, with immature T cells, missing CD4 receptors
C) baby boy Jeff, with no plasma cells following infection by bacterial pneumonia
D) baby girl Susan, with no evidence of a thymus gland
E) baby boy Matt, with very low circulating antigens

Immunodeficiencies can be genetic in origin, and two examples are Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, an X-linked disorder, and DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.

92) Bruton's disorder will likely include
A) the failure of heavy-chain gene rearrangement in B cells.
B) the failure to incorporate CD4 receptors into cell membranes.
C) an underexpression of the gene for the β chain of the T cell receptor.
D) an underexpression of the gene for the CD8 receptor molecule.
E) the inability of the bone marrow cells to interact with MHC molecules

Immunodeficiencies can be genetic in origin, and two examples are Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, an X-linked disorder, and DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.

93) Assume that a DGS-like phenotype was produced in a specific "gene-knockout" mouse, one lacking expression of HA3, a Hox gene known to be involved in developmental regulation in the mouse.
The phenotype of the HA3 knockout can be ascertained by
A) a bone marrow biopsy.
B) an assay for environmental agents known to cause birth defects.
C) a chest X-ray.
D) the measurement of the proportion of CD4 cells to total lymphocytes.
E) an autopsy examination of the adrenal glands.

Which of these is not part of insect immunity?
A) enzyme activation of microbe-killing chemicals
B) activation of natural killer cells
C) phagocytosis by hemocytes
D) production of antimicrobial peptides
E) a protective exoskeleton

An epitope associates with which part of an antigen receptor or antibody?
A) the disulfide bridge
B) the heavy-chain constant regions only
C) variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined
D) the light-chain constant regions only
E) the tail

Which statement best describes the difference in responses of effector B cells (plasma cells) and cytotoxic T cells?
A) B cells confer active immunity; cytotoxic T cells confer passive immunity.
B) B cells kill pathogens directly; cytotoxic T cells kill host cells.
C) B cells secrete antibodies against a pathogen; cytotoxic T cells kill pathogen-infected host cells.
D) B cells carry out the cell-mediated response; cytotoxic T cells carry out the humoral response.
E) B cells respond the first time a pathogen is present; cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times.

Which of the following statements is not true?
A) An antibody has more than one antigen-binding site.
B) An antigen can have different epitopes.
C) A pathogen makes more than one antigen.
D) A lymphocyte has receptors for multiple different antigens.
E) A liver cell makes one class of MHC molecule.

Which of the following should be the same in identical twins?
A) the set of antibodies produced
B) the set of MHC molecules produced
C) the set of T cell antigen receptors produced
D) the susceptibility to a particular virus
E) the set of immune cells eliminated as self-reactive

Vaccination increases the number of
A) different receptors that recognize a pathogen.
B) lymphocytes with receptors that can bind to the pathogen.
C) epitopes that the immune system can recognize.
D) macrophages specific for a pathogen.
E) MHC molecules that can present an antigen.

Which of the following would not help a virus avoid triggering an adaptive immune response?
A) having frequent mutations in genes for surface proteins
B) infecting cells that produce very few MHC molecules
C) producing proteins very similar to those of other viruses
D) infecting and killing helper T cells
E) building the viral shell from host proteins

Which of the following would not help a virus avoid triggering an adaptive immune response?
A) having frequent mutations in genes for surface proteins
B) infecting cells that produce very few MHC molecules
C) producing proteins very similar to those of other viruses
D) infecting and killing helper T cells
E) building the viral shell from host proteins

In a positive-feedback system where hormone A alters the amount of protein X
A) an increase in A always produces an increase in X.
B) an increase in X always produces a decrease in A.
C) a decrease in A always produces an increase in X.
D) a decrease in X always causes a decrease in A.
E) it is impossible to predict how A and X affect each other.

Testosterone is an example of a chemical signal that affects the very cells that synthesize it, the neighboring cells in the testis, along with distant cells outside the gonads. Thus, testosterone is an example of
A) an autocrine signal.
B) a paracrine signal.
C) an endocrine signal.
D) both an autocrine signal and a paracrine signal.
E) an autocrine signal, a paracrine signal, and an endocrine signal.

Which category of signal exerts its effects on target cells by binding to membrane-bound receptor proteins?
A) neurohormones
B) estrogens
C) androgens
D) vitamin D
E) neurohormones, estrogens, androgens, and vitamin D

A paracrine signal that relaxes smooth muscle cells is
A) nitric oxide.
B) vitamin D.
C) testosterone.
D) cortisol.
E) antidiuretic hormone.

Prostaglandins are local regulators whose chemical structure is derived from
A) oligosaccharides.
B) fatty acids.
C) steroids.
D) amino acids.
E) nitric oxide.

Ecdysone is a(n)
A) peptide hormone.
B) amine derivative.
C) steroid hormone.
D) iodinated protein hormone made by the thyroid gland.
E) gaseous neurotransmitter.

Aspirin and ibuprofen both
A) inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins.
B) inhibit the release of nitric oxide, a potent vasodilator.
C) activate the paracrine signaling pathways that form blood clots.
D) stimulate the release of oxytocin.
E) stimulate vasoconstriction in the kidneys.

A cell with membrane-bound proteins that selectively bind a specific hormone is called that hormone's
A) secretory cell.
B) plasma cell.
C) endocrine cell.
D) target cell.
E) regulatory cell.

The reason that the steroid hormone aldosterone affects only a small number of cells in the body is that
A) only its target cells get exposed to aldosterone.
B) only its target cells contain aldosterone receptors.
C) it is unable to enter nontarget cells.
D) nontarget cells destroy aldosterone before it can produce any effect.
E) nontarget cells convert aldosterone to a hormone to which they do respond.

Different body cells can respond differently to the same peptide hormones because
A) different target cells have different sets of genes.
B) each cell converts that hormone to a different metabolite.
C) a target cell's response is determined by the components of its signal transduction pathways.
D) the circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets.
E) the hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through the circulatory system.

Insect hormones and their receptors
A) act independently of each other.
B) are a focus in pest-control research.
C) utilize cell-surface receptors only.
D) are active independently of environmental cues.
E) are not relevant to the study of steroid hormones.

Endocrine glands that are sources of steroid hormones
A) secrete the steroids through ducts into the blood.
B) store those hormones in membrane-bound vesicles.
C) have a very short latency between steroid synthesis and steroid release.
D) are all controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
E) operate independently of other hormonal cuing systems.

A chemical signal operating in a paracrine manner is one that
A) is active at a neuronal synapse.
B) affects only the cells that synthesize the paracrine signal.
C) requires transport in the blood before it can act on its target cells.
D) evokes responses from all parts of the vascular system.
E) must move through the air before it reaches its target cells.

Hormone X activates the cAMP second messenger system in its target cells. The greatest response by a cell would come from
A) applying a molecule of hormone X to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell.
B) injecting a molecule of hormone X into the cytoplasm of the cell.
C) applying a molecule of cAMP to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell.
D) injecting a molecule of cAMP into the cytoplasm of the cell.
E) injecting a molecule of activated, cAMP-dependent protein kinase into the cytoplasm of the cell.

When a steroid hormone and a peptide hormone exert similar effects on a population of target cells, then
A) the steroid and peptide hormones must use the same biochemical mechanisms.
B) the steroid and peptide hormones must bind to the same receptor protein.
C) the steroid hormones affect the synthesis of effector proteins, whereas peptide hormones activate effector proteins already present in the cell.
D) the steroid hormones affect the activity of certain proteins within the cell, whereas peptide hormones directly affect the processing of mRNA.
E) the steroid hormones affect only the release of proteins from the target cell, whereas peptide hormones affect only the synthesis of proteins that remain in the target cell.

For hormones that homeostatically regulate cellular functions,
A) negative feedback typically regulates hormone secretion.
B) the circulating level of a hormone is held constant through a series of positive feedback loops.
C) both lipid-soluble hormones and water-soluble hormones bind to intracellular protein receptors.
D) endocrine organs release their contents into the bloodstream via specialized ducts.
E) it is impossible to also have neural regulation of that system.

Nitric oxide and epinephrine
A) both function as neurotransmitters.
B) both function as steroid hormones.
C) are both involved in the "fight-or-flight" response.
D) bind the same receptors.
E) both cause a reduction in the blood levels of glucose.

Suppose that substance X is secreted by one cell, travels via interstitial fluid to a neighboring cell, and produces an effect on that cell. All of the following terms could describe this substance except
A) paracrine signal.
B) neurotransmitter.
C) prostaglandin.
D) pheromone.
E) growth factor.

Hormones that promote homeostasis
A) are not found as members of antagonistic signaling mechanisms.
B) travel to target cells without passage in the plasma.
C) utilize receptors that bind any hormone.
D) initiate signal transduction in the target cell without binding to receptors.
E) usually operate as part of a negative feedback system.

During mammalian labor and delivery, the contraction of uterine muscles is enhanced by oxytocin. This is an example of
A) a negative feedback system.
B) a hormone that acts in an antagonistic way with another hormone.
C) a hormone that is involved in a positive feedback loop.
D) signal transduction immediately changing gene expression in its target cells.
E) the key role of the anterior pituitary gland in regulating uterine contraction.

) During short-term starvation, most available fuel molecules are catabolized to provide energy for metabolism rather than being used as building blocks for growth and repair, a trade-off that is hormonally regulated by
A) acetylcholine.
B) glucagon.
C) oxytocin.
D) antidiuretic hormone.
E) insulin.

Based on their effects, which pair below would not be expected to be active at the same time and place?
A) prostaglandin F and nitric oxide
B) growth hormone and insulin-like growth factors
C) endocrine and exocrine glands
D) hormones and target cells
E) neurosecretory cells and neurotransmitters

The interrelationships between the endocrine and the nervous systems are especially apparent in
A) a neuron in the spinal cord.
B) a steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex.
C) a neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus.
D) a brain cell in the cerebral cortex.
E) a cell in the pancreas that produces digestive enzymes.

The hypothalamus modulates hormone secretion by the anterior pituitary by means of
A) peptide hormones.
B) steroid hormones.
C) electrical synapses.
D) neurotransmitters.
E) paracrine signals.

Portal blood vessels connect two capillary beds found in the
A) hypothalamus and thalamus.
B) anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary.
C) hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.
D) posterior pituitary and thyroid gland.
E) anterior pituitary and adrenal gland.

If a person loses a large amount of water in a short period of time, he or she may die from dehydration. ADH can help reduce water loss through its interaction with its target cells in the
A) anterior pituitary.
B) posterior pituitary.
C) adrenal gland.
D) bladder.
E) kidney.

The hypothalamus
A) functions only as an endocrine target, by having lots of receptors on its cells.
B) functions only in neuronal transmission.
C) does not have any hormone receptors on its cells.
D) secretes tropic hormones that act directly on the gonads.
E) includes neurosecretory cells that terminate in the posterior pituitary.

Prolactin stimulates mammary gland growth and development in mammals and regulates salt and water balance in freshwater fish. Many scientists think that this wide range of functions indicates that prolactin
A) is a nonspecific hormone.
B) has a unique mechanism for eliciting its effects.
C) is an evolutionarily conserved hormone.
D) is derived from two separate sources.
E) interacts with many different receptor molecules.

A product of the anterior pituitary gland that causes color changes in its target cells is
A) FSH.
B) LH.
C) TSH.
D) MSH.
E) ACTH.

To prevent insect pests from maturing into reproducing adults, pest controllers use synthetic agonists of
A) ecdysone.
B) juvenile hormone.
C) oxytocin.
D) brain hormone.
E) prothoracic hormone.

In a lactating mammal, the two hormones that promote milk synthesis and milk release, respectively, are
A) prolactin and calcitonin.
B) prolactin and oxytocin.
C) follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone.
D) luteinizing hormone and oxytocin.
E) prolactin and luteinizing hormone.

Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are synthesized in the
A) hypothalamus.
B) adenohypophysis.
C) anterior pituitary.
D) adrenal cortex.
E) posterior pituitary.

Endocrine structures derived from nervous tissue include the
A) thymus and the thyroid.
B) ovaries and the testes.
C) liver and the pancreas.
D) anterior pituitary gland and the adrenal cortex.
E) posterior pituitary gland and the adrenal medulla.

Iodine is added to table salt to help prevent deficiencies of an essential mineral needed for the proper function of the
A) parathyroid glands.
B) adrenal glands.
C) thyroid glands.
D) the endocrine pancreas.
E) the exocrine pancreas

A tropic hormone from the anterior pituitary gland regulates the secretion of
A) parathyroid hormone.
B) calcitonin.
C) epinephrine.
D) thyroxine.
E) glucagon.

Which endocrine disorder is correctly matched with the malfunctioning gland?
A) diabetes insipidus and the posterior pituitary gland
B) giantism and the posterior pituitary gland
C) goiter and the adrenal medulla
D) diabetes mellitus and the parathyroid glands
E) dwarfism and the adrenal cortex

One reason a person might be severely overweight is due to
A) an undersecretion of thyroxine.
B) a defect in hormone release from the posterior pituitary.
C) a lower than normal level of insulin-like growth factors.
D) hyposecretion of oxytocin.
E) a higher than normal level of melatonin.

Fight-or-flight reactions include activation of
A) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate.
B) the thyroid gland, leading to an increase in the blood calcium concentration.
C) the anterior pituitary gland, leading to cessation of gonadal function.
D) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine.
E) the pancreas, leading to a reduction in the blood sugar concentration.

The endocrine glands include the
A) parathyroid glands.
B) salivary glands.
C) sweat glands.
D) sebaceous glands.
E) gallbladder.

The body's reaction to PTH (parathyroid hormone), a reduction in plasma levels of calcium, can be opposed by
A) thyroxine.
B) epinephrine.
C) growth hormone.
D) calcitonin.
E) glucagon.

Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine activity?
A) the pituitary gland
B) parathyroid glands
C) salivary glands
D) the pancreas
E) adrenal glands

Linkage to membrane-bound receptor proteins on target cells activates the typical actions of the
A) androgens.
B) glucocorticoids.
C) estrogens.
D) pancreatic hormones.
E) progestins.

Analysis of a blood sample from a fasting individual who had not eaten for 24 hours would be expected to reveal high levels of
A) insulin.
B) glucagon.
C) secretin.
D) gastrin.
E) glucose

When the beta cells of the pancreas release insulin into the blood,
A) the blood glucose levels rise to a set point and stimulate glucagon release.
B) the skeletal muscles and the adipose cells take up glucose at a faster rate.
C) the liver catabolizes glycogen.
D) the alpha cells of the pancreas release glucose into the blood.
E) the kidneys begin gluconeogenesis.

A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is
A) parathyroid hormone.
B) calcitonin.
C) epinephrine.
D) acetylcholine.
E) ecdysone.

The amino acid tyrosine is a starting substrate for the synthesis of
A) epinephrine.
B) steroid hormones.
C) parathyroid hormone.
D) vitamin D.
E) acetylcholine.

The autonomic nervous system includes an endocrine gland known as the
A) ovary.
B) adrenal medulla.
C) adrenal cortex.
D) testis.
E) thyroid.

A disease that destroys the adrenal cortex should lead to an increase in the plasma levels of
A) glucocorticoid hormones.
B) epinephrine.
C) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
D) glucose.
E) acetylcholine.

During a stressful interval
A) TSH stimulates the adrenal cortex and medulla to secrete acetylcholine.
B) the alpha cells of islets secrete insulin and simultaneously the beta cells of the islets secrete glucagon.
C) ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex, and neurons of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the adrenal medulla.
D) the posterior pituitary gland secretes more growth hormones.
E) the calcium levels in the blood are increased due to actions of two antagonistic hormones, epinephrine and norepinephrine.

In response to stress, the adrenal gland promotes the synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrate substrates via the action of the steroid hormone
A) glucagon.
B) cortisol.
C) epinephrine.
D) thyroxine.
E) ACTH.

Melatonin is secreted by
A) the hypothalamus during the day.
B) the pineal gland during the night.
C) the autonomic nervous system during the winter.
D) the posterior pituitary gland during the day.
E) the thyroid gland during cold seasons.

Winter hibernation and spring reproduction in bears are cued by seasonal changes in the secretion of
A) melatonin from the pineal gland.
B) melatonin from the hypothalamus.
C) thyroxine from the anterior pituitary gland.
D) acetylcholine from the pineal gland.
E) thyroid-stimulating hormone from the posterior pituitary gland.

The steroid hormone that coordinates molting in arthropods is
A) ecdysone.
B) glucagon.
C) thyroxine.
D) oxytocin.
E) growth hormone.

After eating a carbohydrate-rich meal, the mammalian pancreas increases its secretion of
A) ecdysone.
B) glucagon.
C) thyroxine.
D) oxytocin.
E) insuli

The higher level of metabolic activity typical of nonhibernating temperate mammals during the winter months is due to increased secretion of
A) ecdysone.
B) glucagon.
C) thyroxine.
D) oxytocin.
E) growth hormone.

The increased contraction of the human uterus during labor and delivery is at least partially due to the actions of
A) ecdysone.
B) glucagon.
C) thyroxine.
D) oxytocin.
E) growth hormone.

Abnormally reduced somatic growth (dwarfism) can be a consequence of decreased hormone secretion from the
A) kidneys.
B) pancreas.
C) adrenal gland.
D) posterior pituitary gland.
E) anterior pituitary gland.

DES is called an "endocrine disrupting chemical" because it structurally resembles, and interferes with, the endocrine secretions of the
A) pancreatic islet cells.
B) thyroid gland.
C) adrenal medulla.
D) ovaries.
E) hypothalamus.

Testosterone is an example of
A) an androgen.
B) an estrogen.
C) a progestin.
D) a catecholamine.
E) an adrenal steroid.

Estradiol is an example of
A) an androgen.
B) an estrogen.
C) a progestin.
D) a catecholamine.
E) a glucocorticoid.

Epinephrine is an example of
A) an androgen.
B) an estrogen.
C) a progestin.
D) a catecholamine.
E) a glucocorticoid.

A fantasy movie features a caterpillar that never matures into an adult, but simply gets larger and larger with each molt. It might be possible that the caterpillar did not mature into an adult because of
A) a lack of ecdysone.
B) a lack of juvenile hormone.
C) a decreased level of ecdysone.
D) an increased level of juvenile hormone.
E) a lack of melatonin.

Which of the following is not an accurate statement?
A) Hormones are chemical messengers that travel to target cells through the circulatory system.
B) Hormones often regulate homeostasis through antagonistic functions.
C) Hormones of the same chemical class usually have the same function.
D) Hormones are secreted by specialized cells usually located in endocrine glands.
E) Hormones are often regulated through feedback loops.

An example of antagonistic hormones controlling homeostasis is
A) thyroxine and parathyroid hormone in calcium balance.
B) insulin and glucagon in glucose metabolism.
C) progestins and estrogens in sexual differentiation.
D) epinephrine and norepinephrine in fight-or-flight responses.
E) oxytocin and prolactin in milk production.

Growth factors are local regulators that
A) are produced by the anterior pituitary.
B) are modified fatty acids that stimulate bone and cartilage growth.
C) are found on the surface of cancer cells and stimulate abnormal cell division.
D) bind to cell-surface receptors and stimulate growth and development of target cells.
E) convey messages between nerve cells.

Which hormone is incorrectly paired with its action?
A) oxytocinstimulates uterine contractions during childbirth
B) thyroxinestimulates metabolic processes
C) insulinstimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver
D) ACTHstimulates the release of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex
E) melatoninaffects biological rhythms, seasonal reproduction

Steroid and peptide hormones typically have in common
A) the building blocks from which they are synthesized.
B) their solubility in cell membranes.
C) their requirement for travel through the bloodstream.
D) the location of their receptors.
E) their reliance on signal transduction in the cell.

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for hypothyroidism in a patient whose iodine level is normal?
A) greater production of T₃ than of T₄
B) hyposecretion of TSH
C) hypersecretion of TSH
D) hypersecretion of MSH
E) a decrease in the thyroid secretion of calcitonin

Shortly after ingesting a big plate of carbohydrate-rich pasta, you measure your blood's hormone levels. What results would you expect, compared to before the meal?
A) high insulin, low glucagon
B) low insulin, low glucagon
C) high insulin, high glucagon
D) low insulin, high glucagon
E) low insulin, no change in glucagon

The relationship between the insect hormones ecdysteroid and PTTH is an example of
A) an interaction of the endocrine and nervous systems.
B) homeostasis achieved by positive feedback.
C) how peptide-derived hormones have more widespread effects than steroid hormones.
D) homeostasis maintained by antagonistic hormones.
E) competitive inhibition of a hormone receptor.