ch. 17, 18, 19 art questions

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1
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Into which chamber of the heart do the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus return deoxygenated blood?

right atrium

2
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Which chamber of the heart sends oxygenated blood to the aorta to the systemic circuit?

left ventricle

3
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Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood via the pulmonary circuit?

left atrium

4
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Which of the following is a branch of the right coronary artery?

posterior interventricular artery

5
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Which artery serves the myocardium of the lateral right side of the heart?

right marginal artery

6
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From what vessel do the left and right coronary arteries arise?

aorta

7
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What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium?

pericardial cavity

8
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Which of the following is the outermost covering of the heart?

fibrous pericardium

9
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Which layer of the heart wall contracts and is composed primarily of cardiac muscle tissue?

myocardium

10
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Which of the following is NOT a vein that returns blood to the right atrium of the heart?

pulmonary vein

11
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Into what vessel does the left ventricle eject blood?

aorta

12
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Into which chamber do the pulmonary veins send blood?

left atrium

13
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Which statement regarding cardiac muscle structure is accurate?

Myofibrils of cardiac muscle tissue vary in diameter and branch extensively.

14
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Consider the following characteristics of the cells found in muscle tissue. Which feature is shared by both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?

striations

15
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Which functional feature best describes the manner in which cardiac muscle contracts?

Automaticity (autorhythmicity) promotes the spontaneous contraction of the cardiac muscle cells.

16
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At what rate does the sinoatrial (SA) node ensure depolarization in the heart?

75 beats of the heart per minute

17
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Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates the atrioventricular (AV) node to conduct impulses to the atrioventricular bundle?

sinoatrial (SA) node

18
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Which of the following pacemaker cells generates impulses of approximately 75 depolarizations per minute in order to control the heart's contraction rate?

sinoatrial (SA) node

19
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Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the depolarization wave received from the sinoatrial (SA) node through the atria?

P wave

20
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Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during which the atria repolarize?

QRS complex

21
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During which portion of the electrocardiogram do the atria contract?

P-R interval

22
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Determine which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) tracings is missing P waves. Select from letters A-D.

B

23
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Determine which ECG shows a normal sinus rhythm. Select from letters A-D.

A

24
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Determine which ECG shows a mostly 2:1 ratio of P waves to QRS waves. Select from letters A-D.

C

25
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What is the period during the cardiac cycle when the ventricles are completely closed chambers and blood volume in the chambers remains constant as the ventricles contract?

isovolumetric contraction phase

26
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At what point in the cardiac cycle is pressure in the ventricles the highest (around 120 mm Hg)?

ventricular systole

27
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How long is the cardiac cycle, assuming the heart beats 75 times per minute?

0.8 seconds

28
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Which of the following would cause a decrease in the contractility of the heart?

increasing extracellular potassium levels

29
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Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL/beat and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL/beat.

75 mL/beat

30
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Which of the following increases stroke volume?

exercise

31
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Point that represents the "dup" sound made by the heart.

E

32
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What is hematocrit a measure of?

Hematocrit is the percentage of erythrocytes in a whole blood sample.

33
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Which of the following is best suited to the clotting process that occurs when blood vessels are ruptured?

platelets

34
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Which event of hemostasis constricts the damaged artery to reduce blood loss? Select from letters A-D.

A

35
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During which event of hemostasis do clotting factors (procoagulants) assist with the transformation of blood from a liquid to a gel? Select from letters A-D.

D

36
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What "clot buster" enzyme removes unneeded clots after healing has occurred during fibrinolysis?

plasmin

37
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When a person has an acute bacterial infection, such as meningitis or appendicitis, which type of leukocyte increases in number?

neutrophils

38
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Which type of leukocyte is responsible for antibody production?

lymphocytes

39
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When we take anti-histamines, we are countering the effects of which type of leukocyte?

basophils

40
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What do the lymphoid stem cells give rise to?

lymphocytes

41
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Which cell of the myeloid stem cell pathway has accumulated granules?

myelocytes

42
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From which cell do the granulocytes descend?

myeloblast

43
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What part of the pathway to produce platelets is shared with other formed elements?

hematopoietic stem cell (hemocytoblast)

44
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Which formed element can be described as cytoplasmic fragments?

platelets

45
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Which of the following is true of the structure of an erythrocyte?

Erythrocytes are shaped like biconcave discs.

46
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What is the name of the protein found in erythrocytes that allows for respiratory gas transport?

hemoglobin

47
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What triggers erythropoietin (EPO) production to make new red blood cells?

reduced availability of oxygen

48
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Which part of the hemoglobin molecule binds carbon dioxide for transport?

amino acids of globin

49
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How many oxygen molecules can be transported by one hemoglobin molecule?

4

50
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When oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, what bright red molecule is formed?

oxyhemoglobin

51
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Specifically, what is the production of red blood cells called?

erythropoiesis

52
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What is a young, anucleate erythrocyte called?

reticulocyte

53
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What part of the body does erythropoietin (EPO) target to increase erythropoiesis?

bone marrow

54
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What part of the hemoglobin molecule is recycled to form bile?

a portion of the heme group

55
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What erythrocyte production disorder results from an autoimmune disease associated with vitamin B12 absorption?

pernicious anemia

56
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What role do the kidneys play in erythropoiesis?

The kidneys detect low levels of oxygen in the blood.

57
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The majority of whole blood is __________.

plasma

58
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What does dark red blood indicate?

oxygen-poor blood

59
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Which layer of the typical blood vessel is constructed from simple squamous epithelium?

tunica intima

60
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Which layer of the typical vessel can be regulated via vasoconstriction or vasodilation?

tunica media

61
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What is the outermost layer of the blood vessel wall for an artery or vein?

tunica externa

62
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Which type of vessel contains elastin in all three tunics to allow the vessel to expand and recoil as the heart ejects blood?

elastic artery

63
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What type of vessel has relatively more smooth muscle and less elastic tissue?

muscular artery

64
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What type of vessel has relatively little smooth muscle or elastin in the tunica media, a large lumen (average of 5.0 mm in diameter), and thin walls (average of 0.5 mm)?

vein

65
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Calculate mean arterial pressure (MAP) if systolic blood pressure is 120 mm Hg and diastolic blood pressure is 70 mm Hg.

87 mm Hg

66
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What blood vessel experiences the steepest drop in blood pressure?

arterioles

67
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What vessels sustain a drop in pressure from approximately 35 mm Hg to around 17 mm Hg?

capillaries

68
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Which hormone of the indirect renal mechanism promotes sodium reabsorption by the kidneys to increase mean arterial pressure?

aldosterone

69
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Which of the following is NOT one of the four ways in which angiotensin II works to increase arterial blood pressure and extracellular fluid volume?

Angiotensin II promotes vasodilation that decreases peripheral resistance.

70
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Which of the following would be interrupted in the indirect renal mechanism if angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) is blocked from performing its job?

conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II

71
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Which of the following is a metabolic factor that influences blood flow?

low oxygen levels

72
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Which of the following promotes vasodilation?

nitric oxide

73
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Which of the following intrinsic mechanisms (autoregulation) for controlling arteriolar smooth muscle diameter promotes vasoconstriction?

endothelins

74
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What pressure is responsible for reabsorption and for pulling fluids into the venous end of capillaries?

osmotic pressure in capillary (OPc)

75
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What is the value for the net filtration pressure (NFP) at the arteriolar end of the capillary?

10 mm Hg

76
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Assume a person is experiencing a hemorrhage and the HPc has dropped to 23 mm Hg at the arteriole end of the capillary. Calculate net filtration pressure (NFP) at the arteriole end of the capillary.

-2 mm Hg

77
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Which vessel leaves the right ventricle of the heart to take oxygen-poor, dark red blood into pulmonary circulation?

pulmonary trunk

78
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Which vessel(s) return(s) oxygenated blood to the left atrium of the heart to complete the pulmonary circuit?

pulmonary vein

79
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Which vessel(s) of the pulmonary circuit transport(s) oxygen-rich blood?

pulmonary vein

80
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From what artery does the right common carotid artery arise?

brachiocephalic trunk

81
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Which artery branches off the subclavian arteries? Select from letters A-D.

A

82
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Which vessel sends branches to the thyroid, larynx, tongue, skin, and muscles of the anterior face and posterior scalp? Select from letters A-D.

C

83
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Which artery branches into the common hepatic artery, splenic artery, and left gastric artery? Select from letters A-D.

A

84
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Which artery serves the distal part of the large intestine via its left colic, sigmoidal, and superior rectal branches? Select from letters A-D.

D

85
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Which artery serves nearly all of the small intestine via the intestinal arteries and most of the large intestine via the ileocolic, middle colic, and right colic arteries? Select from letters A-D.

C

86
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Which vein is the longest in the body and empties into the femoral vein? Select from letters A-D.

B

87
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What vein is formed from the union of the anterior tibial vein and posterior tibial vein? Select from letters A-D.

C

88
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Which vein becomes the external iliac vein as it enters the pelvis? Select from letters A-D.

A