Psych Module 1 Flashcards

Which theorists are associated with attachment theory?

A) Freud and Erikson

B) Piaget and Freud

C) Bowlby and Ainsworth

D) Erikson and Piaget

Who developed the psychosocial stages of the lifecycle?

A) Erikson

B) Freud

C) Piaget

D) Bowlby

Which three components are included in Freud's theory?

A) Attachment, cognition, behavior

B) Security, confidence, independence

C) Classical, operant, psychosocial

D) Id, ego, superego

Which theorist is associated with psychoanalytic and psychodynamic defense mechanisms?

A) Piaget

B) Freud

C) Erikson

D) Ainsworth

Which theorist is associated with cognitive development?

A) Bowlby

B) Erikson

C) Piaget

D) Freud

Which listed theory combines cognitive and behavioral approaches?

A) Attachment theory

B) Cognitive behavioral theory

C) Psychosocial lifecycle theory

D) Psychoanalytic theory

Which two conditioning approaches are included in behavioral theories?

A) Classical and operant conditioning

B) Attachment and operant conditioning

C) Classical conditioning and cognitive development

D) Psychosocial and classical conditioning

What should parents do when their 3-month-old cries for a long time after being placed in a crib?

A) Allow crying without intervention

B) Stand nearby without picking up

C) Pick up and hold baby

D) Check briefly without picking up

What developmental benefits result from holding a crying 3-month-old according to these notes?

A) Reduced need for parental availability

B) Security, self-regulation, confidence, independence

C) Increased dependence and reduced confidence

D) Reduced security and emotional regulation

What parenting approach is recommended for children aged 2 or 5 years?

A) Warmth, availability, and authoritative parenting

B) Complete independence without parental guidance

C) Crying without any parental response

D) Avoiding warmth and parental availability

Which additional attachment theorist is listed alongside Bowlby and Ainsworth?

A) Erikson

B) Harlow

C) Freud

D) Piaget

What does attachment mean in developmental psychology?

A) Emotional bonding with a primary caregiver

B) Cognitive recognition of unfamiliar people

C) Conditioning through repeated rewards

D) Learning independence without caregiver involvement

Which developmentally appropriate caregiver behavior supports secure attachment?

A) Withholds comfort during infant distress

B) Meets needs with affection and soothing

C) Gives attention only after prolonged crying

D) Responds inconsistently to the child's needs

Which qualities develop with secure attachment?

A) Anxiety, dependence, and low self-worth

B) Emotional distance and poor trust

C) Fear, irritability, and unstable affection

D) Security, self-regulation, and self-worth

Which play behavior suggests secure attachment?

A) Explores, checks caregiver, resumes playing

B) Avoids exploration despite caregiver availability

C) Acts out to obtain attention

D) Clings without returning to play

How does a securely attached child respond to appropriate soothing during high anxiety?

A) Avoids all contact and stays distressed

B) Acts out despite reassuring responses

C) Shows anxiety without seeking comfort

D) Seeks caregiver and calms

Which longer-term qualities are linked to secure attachment?

A) Low self-esteem and poor regulation

B) Emotional distance and intimacy problems

C) Positive self-esteem and better coping

D) Overdependence and abandonment anxiety

Which caregiver pattern is associated with insecure attachment?

A) Reliable soothing and stable affection

B) Consistent attention to developmental needs

C) Inconsistent care and unstable affection

D) Responsive caregiving with dependable comfort

Which emotional outcomes may follow insecure attachment?

A) Anxiety, poor regulation, low self-worth

B) Security, regulation, and strong self-worth

C) Confidence, independence, and positive self-esteem

D) Calmness, trust, and effective coping

How does insecure attachment commonly affect exploration?

A) Anxiety about exploring and playing

B) Comfortable independent exploration and play

C) Confident exploration with caregiver check-ins

D) Easy return to play after reassurance

Which attention-seeking behavior may occur with insecure attachment?

A) Calm exploration without seeking attention

B) Excessive seeking or acting out

C) Consistent independent play without anxiety

D) Immediate calming from ordinary soothing

What other caregiver-seeking pattern may occur with insecure attachment?

A) Consistent seeking followed by calming

B) Predictable checking followed by play

C) Ambivalent or absent seeking

D) Comfortable exploration with positive self-esteem

How does an insecurely attached child often respond to a caregiver's soothing?

A) Calms promptly and resumes play

B) Remains distressed despite the response

C) Develops immediate confidence and independence

D) Shows secure regulation after comfort

A child avoids a caregiver upon reunion after early rejection or emotional unavailability. Which style?

A) Insecure-avoidant attachment

B) Secure attachment

C) Insecure-ambivalent attachment

D) Insecure-disorganized attachment

What adult pattern is associated with insecure-avoidant attachment?

A) Overdependence with abandonment anxiety

B) Difficulty with intimacy; emotional distance

C) Unstable relationships with trust problems

D) Positive self-esteem with effective coping

Intense separation distress and mixed reunion reactions after inconsistent care indicate which style?

A) Insecure-disorganized attachment

B) Secure attachment

C) Insecure-avoidant attachment

D) Insecure-ambivalent attachment

What adult pattern is associated with insecure-ambivalent attachment?

A) Emotional distance and avoidance of intimacy

B) Overdependence and anxiety about abandonment

C) Unstable relationships and trust difficulties

D) Self-confidence and strong emotional regulation

Which attachment style features contradictory behavior toward caregivers who provide both comfort and fear?

A) Insecure-avoidant attachment

B) Insecure-ambivalent attachment

C) Insecure-disorganized attachment

D) Secure attachment

What adult outcome is associated with insecure-disorganized attachment?

A) Positive self-esteem and better coping

B) Preference for emotional distance alone

C) Unstable relationships and trust issues

D) Overdependence with abandonment fears alone

When does normal stranger anxiety develop?

A) 10–18 months

B) 18–24 months

C) 2–5 years

D) 26–32 weeks

When does normal separation anxiety occur?

A) 26–32 weeks

B) 10–18 months

C) 18–24 months

D) 2–5 years

What normally follows a child's developing ability to move away?

A) Immediate independence without needing caregivers

B) Persistent avoidance followed by emotional withdrawal

C) Rigid opposition followed by loss of security

D) Rapprochement then gradual object constancy

At what age does initial rapprochement occur?

A) 18–24 months

B) 26–32 weeks

C) 10–18 months

D) 3–5 years

Which behavior reflects normal independence during the "terrible twos"?

A) Persistent rigid opposition into older childhood

B) Avoiding all exploration or play

C) Showing contradictory fear of caregivers

D) Saying no while asserting oneself

When does oppositional behavior become concerning rather than developmental?

A) Toddlers occasionally say no

B) Toddlers develop greater independence

C) Rigid opposition persists into older childhood

D) Children begin moving away from caregivers

What may explain persistent rigid opposition in older children?

A) Ineffective attachment or neurodevelopmental problems

B) Normal self-assertion during toddlerhood alone

C) Secure attachment and healthy self-regulation

D) Ordinary rapprochement and object constancy

What term describes compatibility between a child's temperament, environment, caregiver expectations, and parenting style?

A) Object constancy

B) Rapprochement

C) Stranger anxiety

D) Goodness of fit

What is the distribution of easy, mixed, and difficult temperaments?

A) 50% easy; 40% mixed; 10% difficult

B) 40% easy; 10% mixed; 50% difficult

C) 40% easy; 50% mixed; 10% difficult

D) 10% easy; 50% mixed; 40% difficult

Which statement summarizes Erikson's lifespan theory?

A) Avoiding emotional conflicts across six stages

B) Resolving core conflicts across eight stages

C) Mastering physical milestones across four stages

D) Learning behaviors through ten conditioning stages

What age range corresponds to trust versus mistrust?

A) 1.5–3 years

B) 3–5 years

C) 5–12 years

D) 0–1.5 years

Which basic virtue develops from trust versus mistrust?

A) Will B) Hope C) Purpose D) Love

How does caregiver reliability affect infant development?

A) Reliable care builds shame; unreliability autonomy

B) Reliable care builds guilt; unreliability purpose

C) Reliable care builds trust; unreliability mistrust

D) Reliable care builds isolation; unreliability intimacy

What age range corresponds to autonomy versus shame and doubt?

A) 1.5–3 years

B) 0–1.5 years

C) 3–5 years

D) 5–12 years

Which basic virtue develops during autonomy versus shame and doubt?

A) Hope

B) Fidelity

C) Purpose

D) Will

How do encouragement and excessive restriction affect toddlers?

A) Trust versus mistrust

B) Independence versus shame

C) Intimacy versus isolation

D) Competence versus inferiority

At what ages does initiative versus guilt occur?

A) 3–5 years

B) 1.5–3 years

C) 5–12 years

D) 12–18 years

What encourages initiative, and what can produce guilt?

A) Task mastery; caregiver rejection

B) Identity exploration; social abandonment

C) Self-assertion through play; excessive restriction

D) Life reflection; lack of achievement

What age range corresponds to industry versus inferiority?

A) 3–5 years

B) 5–12 years

C) 12–18 years

D) 18–40 years

Which basic virtue develops during industry versus inferiority?

A) Purpose

B) Competency

C) Fidelity

D) Care

What leads to competence versus inferiority during the school years?

A) Consistent versus unreliable caregiving

B) Close relationships versus loneliness

C) Task mastery versus task failure

D) Identity exploration versus confusion

What age range corresponds to identity versus role confusion?

A) 5–12 years

B) 18–40 years

C) 40–65 years

D) 12–18 years

Which basic virtue is associated with identity versus role confusion?

A) Hope

B) Love

C) Care

D) Fidelity

What results from successful versus unresolved adolescent identity exploration?

A) Intimacy versus isolation

B) Wisdom versus regret

C) Strong identity versus confusion

D) Competency versus inferiority

What age range corresponds to intimacy versus isolation?

A) 12–18 years

B) 40–65 years

C) 65+ years

D) 18–40 years

Which basic virtue is linked to intimacy versus isolation?

A) Love

B) Fidelity

C) Hope

D) Care

What follows successful versus unsuccessful close relationships in young adulthood?

A) Intimacy versus loneliness and isolation

B) Trust versus mistrust

C) Purpose versus guilt

D) Identity versus role confusion

What age range corresponds to generativity versus stagnation?

A) 18–40 years

B) 40–65 years

C) 65+ years

D) 12–18 years

Which basic virtue develops during generativity versus stagnation?

A) Care

B) Hope

C) Wisdom

D) Will

What follows contributing to society and future generations versus failing to do so?

A) Trust versus mistrust

B) Autonomy versus shame

C) Generativity versus stagnation and self-absorption

D) Integrity versus regret

What age range corresponds to integrity versus despair?

A) 40–65 years

B) 18–40 years

C) 65+ years

D) 12–18 years

Which basic virtue develops during integrity versus despair?

A) Care

B) Love

C) Fidelity

D) Wisdom

What distinguishes integrity from despair in maturity?

A) Meaning and satisfaction versus regret

B) Independence versus shame after restriction

C) Close relationships versus loneliness

D) Task mastery versus inferiority

Which function belongs to the superego?

A) Tests external reality and relationships

B) Represents morality, conscience, and controls id

C) Seeks primitive sexual gratification

D) Regulates instincts using defense mechanisms

Which developmental timeline for personality structures matches these notes?

A) Ego birth; id later; superego ~6

B) Superego birth; ego later; id ~6

C) Id birth; ego shortly after; superego ~6

D) Id birth; superego shortly after; ego ~6

Which personality structures operate at unconscious, preconscious, and conscious levels?

A) Id and ego

B) Id and superego

C) Id alone

D) Ego and superego

What characterizes the unconscious in these notes?

A) Secondary process within awareness

B) Accessible memories just below awareness

C) Primary process below awareness, reflected behaviorally

D) Conscious logic that delays gratification

What characterizes the preconscious?

A) Instinctual impulses completely outside awareness

B) Accessible memory just below awareness

C) Conscious logic and delayed gratification

D) Primitive drives seeking immediate fulfillment

What characterizes conscious functioning?

A) Primary process and instinctual wishes

B) Unconscious behavior outside awareness

C) Accessible memories just below awareness

D) Secondary process, logic, delayed gratification

How does the ego regulate the id?

A) By eliminating primitive drives completely

B) Through reality and defense mechanisms

C) By enforcing moral values exclusively

D) Through instinctive wish fulfillment alone

Which ego function helps navigate internal and external worlds, including relationships?

A) Primary process

B) Reality testing

C) Instinctive gratification

D) Moral conscience

What describes the id's primary process?

A) Primitive drives, impulses, and wish fulfillment

B) Moral conscience and social standards

C) Realistic decisions and defense mechanisms

D) Logical reasoning and delayed gratification

Which combination describes the id?

A) Conscious; motivated by moral values

B) Preconscious; driven by reality testing

C) Conscious; focused on social relationships

D) Unconscious; driven by sex and aggression

What is the general purpose of Freud's defense mechanisms?

A) To eliminate unconscious drives permanently

B) To prevent all emotional responses

C) To help individuals cope

D) To replace moral values with instinct

Which defenses are described as more mature in these notes?

A) Denial and repression

B) Regression and reaction formation

C) Sublimation and introjection

D) Intellectualization and passive aggression

A parent rejects their child's positive autism test and requests more testing. Which defense?

A) Repression

B) Denial

C) Intellectualization D) Reaction formation

Which defense unconsciously adopts others' attributes, illustrated by a child at school thinking of park time with a parent?

A) Repression

B) Regression

C) Sublimation

D) Introjection

A restaurant patron says "thank you" but refuses to eat the wrong meal instead of voicing resentment. Which defense?

A) Passive aggression

B) Reaction formation

C) Denial

D) Intellectualization

A 50-year-old driver yells and kicks the car after a flat tire, reverting to earlier behavior. Which defense?

A) Regression

B) Sublimation

C) Repression

D) Introjection

A person dispassionately analyzes why their relationship ended to avoid emotional distress. Which defense?

A) Denial

B) Sublimation

C) Intellectualization

D) Regression

A family member unconsciously cannot recall distressing events from a recent car accident. Which defense?

A) Repression

B) Introjection

C) Reaction formation

D) Intellectualization

A reprimanded adolescent sweats and giggles, acting opposite to their true feelings. Which defense?

A) Denial

B) Sublimation

C) Regression

D) Reaction formation

An anger-prone medical student channels unacceptable impulses into surgery residency. Which defense?

A) Sublimation

B) Passive aggression

C) Repression

D) Denial

What can a fetus "learn" during gestation?

A) Object permanence

B) Conservation rules

C) Sounds

D) Hypothetical reasoning

Which stage spans birth to about two years and develops object permanence?

A) Concrete operations

B) Preoperational

C) Sensorimotor

D) Formal operations

How do children learn and gain motor control during the sensorimotor stage?

A) Abstract deductive logic

B) Sensory observation and experience

C) Propositional reasoning

D) Hierarchical classification

At birth to one month, which sensorimotor phase links stroking with sucking?

A) Reflexive

B) Secondary circular

C) Tertiary circular

D) Mental representation

Which phase at 4–8 months involves looking for partially hidden objects?

A) Reflexive

B) Tertiary circular

C) Mental representation

D) Secondary circular

At 8–12 months, which phase involves finding hidden objects and one-month memory?

A) Mental representation

B) Tertiary circular

C) Reflexive

D) Coordinated secondary circular

Which 12–18-month phase involves dropping objects, exploring properties, and improving memory?

A) Reflexive

B) Mental representation

C) Tertiary circular

D) Secondary circular

At 18 months–2 years, which phase includes make-believe, object memory, and remembering hidden objects?

A) Mental representation

B) Reflexive

C) Secondary circular

D) Tertiary circular

Which stage spans roughly 2–6 years and involves semiotic symbols?

A) Preoperational

B) Sensorimotor

C) Concrete operations

D) Formal operations

What best describes preoperational understanding of cause and effect?

A) Consistent logical reasoning

B) Magical rather than logical thinking

C) Conservation with reversibility

D) Abstract deductive reasoning

Which preoperational trait prevents taking another person's perspective?

A) Decentration

B) Conservation

C) Horizontal décalage

D) Egocentrism

Which organizational ability is absent during the preoperational stage?

A) Symbol use

B) Magical thinking

C) Centration

D) Hierarchy

A preoperational child focuses on only one aspect of a situation. What is this?

A) Reversibility

B) Object permanence

C) Centration

D) Conservation

A child insists on Daddy's route because Daddy always goes that way. Which reasoning?

A) Formal reasoning

B) Transductive reasoning

C) Propositional thinking

D) Deductive reasoning

Which abilities are absent in preoperational thought?

A) Symbol use and magical thinking

B) Centration and egocentrism

C) Conservation, logic, and reversibility

D) Transductive reasoning and symbol use

Which stage spans approximately 7–11 years and develops conservation and reversibility?

A) Preoperational

B) Concrete operations

C) Formal operations

D) Sensorimotor

What social-cognitive ability begins in concrete operations?

A) Complete egocentrism

B) Imaginary audience

C) Some perspective-taking of others

D) Inability to understand others

What improves during concrete operations regarding behavior?

A) Reasoning, rule-following, and self-regulation

B) Wish fulfillment and instinctual impulses

C) Magical thinking and egocentrism

D) Imitation without logical organization

How do concrete-operational children begin to organize experiences?

A) Primarily through magical thinking

B) In logical, sequential ways

C) Through reflexive motor responses

D) Through imaginary audience beliefs

Which concrete-operational skill permits arranging toys into hierarchical categories?

A) Transductive reasoning

B) Hierarchical classification

C) Imaginary audience

D) Personal fable

According to these notes, what describes decentration?

A) Focusing or obsessing over small details

B) Missing partially hidden objects

C) Feeling watched by everyone

D) Lack of any hierarchy

What is horizontal décalage in concrete operations?

A) Refusal to take another perspective

B) Understanding object permanence in infancy

C) Failing to generalize a learned skill

D) Magical reasoning about causation

Which stage runs from about age 11 through adolescence and involves hypotheticodeductive thinking?

A) Sensorimotor

B) Preoperational

C) Concrete operations

D) Formal operations

What cognitive abilities characterize formal operations?

A) Reflexive movement and sucking

B) Symbol use without logic

C) One-aspect focus and egocentrism

D) Abstract thinking and deductive reasoning

Which mathematical idea can individuals understand during formal operations?

A) Only object permanence

B) Only hierarchical categories

C) Probabilities

D) Only conservation

Which interpersonal capacity is noted during formal operations?

A) Reflecting on others’ perspectives

B) Complete inability to take perspectives

C) Exclusive focus on one aspect

D) Avoidance of logical reasoning

Which thought pattern is noted during formal operations?

A) Slower thinking without explanations

B) Quick thinking and making excuses

C) Reflexive stroking-sucking association

D) Inability to reason logically

An adolescent feels everyone is watching them. What is this called?

A) Imaginary audience

B) Personal fable

C) Horizontal décalage

D) Centration

Which adolescent concept involves an inflated opinion of oneself?

A) Personal fable

B) Imaginary audience

C) Object permanence

D) Transductive reasoning

Which formal-operational ability involves using logic about propositions?

A) Reflexive thinking

B) Magical thinking

C) Transductive reasoning

D) Propositional thinking

Which functions can internal beliefs and cognitive distortions adversely affect?

A) Mood, reflexes, and object permanence

B) Memory, language, and motor milestones

C) Mood, behavior, and physical function

D) Attachment, cognition, and fetal development

What factors contribute to internal beliefs and cognitive distortions?

A) Memories, biology/neurology, and experiences

B) Reflexes, chromosomes, and gestational age

C) Conditioning, birthweight, and fetal movement

D) Attachment, cervical development, and sleep

What is a primary goal of cognitive behavioral therapy?

A) Reinforce distortions and existing core beliefs

B) Eliminate all unconscious memory and emotion

C) Identify and modify distortions and core beliefs

D) Replace experience with instinctual impulses

Which techniques are listed under cognitive behavioral therapy?

A) Denial, regression, and repression

B) Cognitive reframing, relaxation, and mindfulness

C) Extinction, attachment, and reflexes

D) Conservation, reversibility, and classification

Which two types of conditioning are included in behavioral theory?

A) Classical and cognitive conditioning

B) Classical and operant conditioning

C) Operant and attachment conditioning

D) Prenatal and classical conditioning

Which methods eliminate a response linked to a conditioned stimulus?

A) Reframing and mindfulness

B) Introjection and regression

C) Desensitization and extinction

D) Repression and denial

What sequence describes the behavioral framework in these notes?

A) Behavior → antecedent → consequence

B) Consequence → behavior → antecedent

C) Antecedent → behavior → consequence

D) Antecedent → consequence → behavior

When do fetal movements begin?

A) 10–12 weeks gestation

B) 25–28 weeks gestation

C) 30–32 weeks gestation

D) 16–20 weeks gestation

By what gestational week can the fetus hear?

A) 16 weeks

B) 18 weeks

C) 20 weeks

D) 25 weeks

When does bright-light responsiveness begin as retinal structures start functioning?

A) 17 weeks

B) 18 weeks

C) 20 weeks

D) 25 weeks

What developments occur around seven months of gestation?

A) Eyelids open; taste and smell develop

B) Eyelids open; grasp reflex first appears

C) Cerebral cortex forms; hearing begins

D) Neural plate forms; sucking reflex begins

When does the fetal grasp reflex appear?

A) 18 weeks

B) 17 weeks

C) 25 weeks

D) 28 weeks

When does the Moro (startle) reflex appear?

A) 17 weeks

B) 20 weeks

C) 28 weeks

D) 25 weeks

When does the fetal suckling reflex appear?

A) 28 weeks

B) 17 weeks

C) 20 weeks

D) 25 weeks

What forms on day 16 from dorsal ectoderm thickening?

A) Cerebral vesicle

B) Association cortex

C) Neural plate

D) Cerebral hemisphere

By week six, the neural plate gives rise to which cerebral-hemisphere precursor?

A) Cerebral vesicle

B) Sensory cortex

C) Association cortex

D) Motor cortex

At what gestational age does the cerebral cortex develop?

A) 6 weeks

B) 16 weeks

C) 10 weeks

D) 20 weeks

Which cortical regions form before the association cortex?

A) Association and motor cortices

B) Association and sensory cortices

C) Sensory and motor cortices

D) Association cortex and neocortex

How much does the brain increase from birth to full development through new neocortical connections?

A) Twofold

B) Fourfold

C) Threefold

D) Sixfold

According to these notes, uterine contractions contribute to what?

A) Fetal memory extinction

B) Fetal neural development

C) Fetal sexual differentiation

D) Fetal cortical inhibition

Which substances increase in fetal blood with maternal stress?

A) Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and ACTH

B) Oxytocin, prolactin, and ACTH

C) Epinephrine, prolactin, and oxytocin

D) Norepinephrine, prolactin, and oxytocin

Which infant outcomes are linked to high maternal stress or anxiety?

A) Calmness, improved growth, easier feeding/sleeping

B) Reduced activity, higher birthweight, better sleep

C) Improved regulation, high birthweight, easy feeding

D) Hyperactivity, irritability, low birthweight, feeding/sleeping difficulties

Approximately what fraction of infants born to alcoholic mothers develop FAS?

A) One-quarter

B) One-half

C) Two-thirds

D) One-third

Beyond fetal alcohol syndrome, what condition may maternal alcohol use contribute to?

A) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

B) Sudden infant death syndrome

C) Neonatal withdrawal syndrome

D) Autism spectrum disorder

Which growth and head findings occur with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A) Growth retardation and larger head

B) Growth retardation and microcephaly

C) Accelerated growth and microcephaly

D) Accelerated growth and larger head

Which facial findings occur with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A) Hypertelorism and midface hypoplasia

B) Hypertelorism and enlarged midface

C) Reduced orbital spacing and midface hypoplasia

D) Reduced orbital spacing and enlarged midface

What organ-system defects are associated with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A) Cardiac defects and CNS abnormalities

B) Uterine defects and cervical abnormalities

C) Vaginal defects and urethral abnormalities

D) Ovarian defects and vestibular abnormalities

Which behavioral and learning findings occur with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A) Irritability, tremors, and hyperemesis

B) Crying, reduced contact, and withdrawal

C) Poor feeding, sleep disruption, low birthweight

D) Hyperactivity, attention deficit, learning disability

What additional neurologic outcomes are possible in fetal alcohol syndrome?

A) Tremors and hyperemesis

B) Developmental delay and possible seizures

C) Reduced human contact and crying

D) Sleep problems and poor feeding

Which outcomes are associated with prenatal smoking?

A) Prematurity, seizures, and midface hypoplasia

B) Hyperemesis, tremors, and fetal hyperactivity

C) Hypertelorism, cardiac defects, and seizures

D) Prematurity, low birthweight, and SIDS

Which outcomes are associated with prenatal marijuana exposure?

A) Prematurity, low birthweight, SIDS

B) Microcephaly, hypertelorism, cardiac defects

C) Irritability, crying, reduced human contact

D) Prematurity, low birthweight, withdrawal symptoms

Which withdrawal symptoms are linked to prenatal marijuana exposure?

A) Crying, irritability, reduced human contact

B) Crying, tremors, and hyperemesis

C) Hyperactivity, attention deficit, learning disability

D) Growth retardation, microcephaly, hypertelorism

Which infant behaviors are linked to prenatal cocaine exposure?

A) Crying, tremors, and hyperemesis

B) Hyperactivity, attention deficit, learning disability

C) Irritability, crying, reduced desire for human contact

D) Midface hypoplasia, microcephaly, cardiac defects

Which infant condition is associated with prenatal narcotic exposure?

A) Fetal alcohol syndrome

B) Sudden infant death syndrome

C) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

D) Withdrawal syndrome

Which non-anticonvulsant medications are listed as teratogenic?

A) Tetracyclines, progesterone-estrogens, valproate, warfarin

B) Carbamazepine, progesterone-estrogens, lithium, phenytoin

C) Tetracyclines, valproate, carbamazepine, lithium

D) Tetracycline antibiotics, progesterone-estrogens, lithium, warfarin

Which anticonvulsants are listed among teratogenic drugs?

A) Valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin

B) Valproate, carbamazepine, and lithium

C) Phenytoin, lithium, and warfarin

D) Valproate, tetracycline, and carbamazepine

Motor: Classic neonate reflexes; hand-to-mouth, rooting, moro, sucking,
babinski

Behavior: anticipatory feeding, respond to sound and moving objects

Social: responds to mother, endogenous smiling, quiets when picked up,
impassive face

____ to ____ months

Motor: tonic neck reflex position, predominant hands fist, visual fixation,
head sags but can hold up head a little

Behavior: following moving objects, can show no interest and drop objects

Social: responds to speech, recognize face = stop crying, smiling to mom

____ to ____ months

Motor: symmetrical postures, hold & balance head, visual accommodation

Behavior: follow slow moving objects, start reacting to objects that fall

Social: exogenous/spontaneous smiles; aware of strange situations

____ to ____ months

Motor: starts to sit and bounces when in standing position (essentially use
a walker)

Behavior: One-handed grabbing, bangs and shakes rattle

____ to ____ months

Motor: walk with 1 hand held, can stand alone briefly

Behavior: seeks novelly

Social: cooperates with dressing

____ months

Motor: toddles & creeping up stairs

Behavior: none

Social: points/vocalize wants. Throwing objects and refusing things

____ months

Motor: coordinated walking and rarely falls, throw balls, walk stairs with help

Behavior: builds towers and attempt writing/drawing

Social: starts feeding self but messy, favorite toy/doll, start some imitation of
behaviors

____ months

Motor: running, no falling, kicks ball, independent on stairs, increase in motor
skills

Behavior: understanding of shapes, improved drawing skills, build a tower

Social: start putting on some clothes, domestic mimicry (baby
wants to clean like parents), saying “no”, loss of separation anxiety, love &
protest, parallel play

_____ years

Motor: tricycle, jumping, and alternating walking up stairs

Behavior: improved drawing, build higher towers/structure

Social: shoes, buttons, feeds sell well, taking turns

_____ years

Motor: easily walking stairs, stand on 1 foot

Behavior: can draw a cross, memorize 4 digits, counting

Social: washing hands/face, brushing teeth, play with other children

_____ years

Motor: skips feet, sphincter control (kids can go to school now), improved
coordination

Behavior: draw a square, can draw loose sketch of people, count 10 objects

Social: letters, dress and undress, play games/competition

_____ years

Motor: 2 wheel bicycle

Behavior: write name and triangles

Social: ties shoes

_____ years