Nutrition 6 Flashcards


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1

Which type of fatty acid contains no double bonds?

A. Monounsaturated fat

B. Saturated fat

C. Omega-3 fat

D. Trans fat

B. Saturated fat

2

Most foods high in saturated fat are what at room temperature?

A. Solid

B. Liquid

C. Gaseous

D. Gel-like

A. Solid

3

Most dietary saturated fats come from which source?

A. Fruits

B. Grains

C. Animal foods

D. Legumes

C. Animal foods

4

Which oils are exceptions because they are plant-based yet high in saturated fat?

A. Olive and canola

B. Corn and soybean

C. Flax and walnut

D. Palm and coconut

D. Palm and coconut

5

For someone who needs to lower LDL-C, saturated fat should be reduced to about what percentage of calories?

A. 5–6%

B. 10–12%

C. 15–20%

D. 25–30%

A. 5–6%

6

Linoleic acid belongs to which fatty-acid family?

A. Omega-3

B. Omega-6

C. Omega-9

D. Trans fat

B. Omega-6

7

Why must linoleic acid be obtained from food?

A. It raises HDL

B. It contains cholesterol

C. The body cannot synthesize it

D. It contains no carbon

C. The body cannot synthesize it

8

What is the adequate daily intake of linoleic acid for men?

A. 8 g/day

B. 10 g/day

C. 12 g/day

D. 17 g/day

D. 17 g/day

9

What is the adequate daily intake of linoleic acid for women?

A. 12 g/day

B. 17 g/day

C. 20 g/day

D. 25 g/day

A. 12 g/day

10

Which two very-long-chain fatty acids are omega-3 fats?

A. Oleic and linoleic

B. EPA and DHA

C. Palmitic and stearic

D. Linoleic and arachidonic

B. EPA and DHA

11

Which 18-carbon omega-3 fatty acid is essential?

A. Oleic acid

B. Linoleic acid

C. Alpha-linolenic acid

D. Palmitic acid

C. Alpha-linolenic acid

12

What is the main lipid-lowering effect of omega-3 fatty acids?

A. Lower HDL

B. Lower LDL greatly

C. Raise triglycerides

D. Lower triglycerides

D. Lower triglycerides

13

What small effect can omega-3 fatty acids have on LDL-C?

A. Slightly increase it

B. Greatly decrease it

C. Eliminate it

D. No effect ever

A. Slightly increase it

14

How many double bonds does a monounsaturated fat contain?

One

15

What is the most common dietary monounsaturated fatty acid?

A. Linoleic acid

B. DHA

C. Oleic acid

D. EPA

C. Oleic acid

16

Which oils are rich in monounsaturated fat?

A. Coconut and palm

B. Corn and soybean

C. Flax and walnut

D. Olive and canola

D. Olive and canola

17

What does hydrogenation add to an unsaturated fat?

A. Hydrogen atoms

B. Oxygen atoms

C. Nitrogen atoms

D. Calcium ions

A. Hydrogen atoms

18

Hydrogenation can change a double bond from which configuration to trans?

A. Saturated

B. Cis

C. Omega

D. Aromatic

B. Cis

19

What is the minimum safe level of trans-fat intake?

No safe level

20

What effect do trans fats have on LDL cholesterol?

A. Lower it

B. Do not affect it

C. Eliminate it

D. Raise it

D. Raise it

21

What effect do trans fats have on HDL cholesterol?

A. Decrease it

B. Increase it

C. Double it

D. Do not affect it

A. Decrease it

22

Most serum triglycerides are carried in which lipoprotein?

A. HDL

B. VLDL

C. LDL

D. Chylomicrons

B. VLDL

23

Most cholesterol in the blood is carried by which lipoprotein?

A. HDL

B. VLDL

C. LDL

C. IDL

C. LDL

24

Which animal food is especially high in cholesterol?

A. Chicken breast

B. Skim milk

C. Egg whites

D. Egg yolk

D. Egg yolk

25

Which other foods are especially high in cholesterol?

A. Organ meats

B. Whole grains

C. Legumes

D. Vegetables

A. Organ meats

26

Which condition is a secondary cause of dyslipidemia?

A. Type 1 diabetes only

B. Type 2 diabetes

C. Iron deficiency

D. Hyperparathyroidism

B. Type 2 diabetes

27

Which endocrine disorder can cause secondary dyslipidemia?

A. Hyperthyroidism

B. Addison disease

C. Hypothyroidism

D. Diabetes insipidus

C. Hypothyroidism

28

Which lifestyle factor can cause secondary dyslipidemia?

A. High water intake

B. Regular exercise

C. High fiber intake

D. Excessive alcohol use

D. Excessive alcohol use

29

Which liver condition can cause secondary dyslipidemia?

A. Cholestatic liver disease

B. Acute appendicitis

C. Peptic ulcer disease

D. Pancreatitis

A. Cholestatic liver disease

30

Which kidney disorder can cause secondary dyslipidemia?

A. Kidney stones

B. Nephrotic syndrome

C. Simple cystitis

D. Acute pyelonephritis

B. Nephrotic syndrome

31

Which additional renal condition can cause secondary dyslipidemia?

A. Renal artery stenosis only

B. Nephrolithiasis

C. Chronic renal failure

D. Ureteral obstruction

C. Chronic renal failure

32

Which habit is a secondary cause of dyslipidemia?

A. Walking

B. Meditation

C. Hydration

D. Cigarette smoking

D. Cigarette smoking

33

Which body-weight condition can contribute to secondary dyslipidemia?

A. Obesity

B. Underweight

C. Normal weight

D. Short stature

A. Obesity

34

Besides diseases and lifestyle factors, what else can cause secondary dyslipidemia?

A. Vitamins

B. Certain medications

C. Vaccines

D. Electrolytes

B. Certain medications

35

About 2 tablespoons of sterol-fortified spread provides how much sterol/stanol ester daily?

A. 0.5–1 g

B. 1–2 g

C. 2–3 g

D. 5–6 g

C. 2–3 g

36

Plant sterol/stanol intake can lower LDL-C by about how much?

A. 1–3%

B. 3–5%

C. 20–30%

D. 7–15%

D. 7–15%

37

Plant sterols and stanols may be added to which foods?

A. Margarine, yogurt, orange juice

B. Beef, chicken, fish

C. Rice, pasta, bread

D. Eggs, cheese, butter

A. Margarine, yogurt, orange juice

38

In the GI tract, sterols and stanols compete with what for micelle entry?

A. Triglycerides

B. Cholesterol

C. Glucose

D. Amino acids

B. Cholesterol

39

What is the result of sterol/stanol competition with cholesterol?

A. Increased cholesterol synthesis

B. Increased cholesterol absorption

C. Reduced cholesterol absorption

D. Increased triglyceride absorption

C. Reduced cholesterol absorption

40

Long-term use of sterol/stanol products may reduce absorption of what nutrients?

A. Calcium

B. Iron

C. Vitamin B12

D. Carotenoids

D. Carotenoids

41

How can patients help offset reduced carotenoid absorption from plant sterols?

A. Eat more fruits and vegetables

B. Avoid all vegetables

C. Increase saturated fat

D. Reduce fiber intake

A. Eat more fruits and vegetables

42

How much viscous soluble fiber does ACC/AHA recommend at minimum?

A. 1–3 g/day

B. 5–10 g/day

C. 20–30 g/day

D. 40–50 g/day

B. 5–10 g/day

43

What total daily fiber intake is recommended in these notes?

A. 5–10 g/day

B. 10–15 g/day

C. 25–35 g/day

D. 50–60 g/day

C. 25–35 g/day

44

About 5–10 g/day of soluble fiber lowers LDL by approximately how much?

A. 1%

B. 2%

C. 15%

D. 5%

D. 5%

45

How does soluble fiber help lower cholesterol?

A. Binds bile acids in gut

B. Increases cholesterol absorption

C. Blocks pancreatic enzymes

D. Raises LDL receptors

A. Binds bile acids in gut

46

What happens to bile acids after soluble fiber binds them?

A. They enter the liver

B. They are excreted in stool

C. They enter the bloodstream

D. They become triglycerides

B. They are excreted in stool

47

Why does losing bile acids in stool lower serum cholesterol?

A. Kidneys excrete more LDL

B. Intestines stop absorbing fat

C. Liver uses cholesterol to make bile

D. HDL is converted to LDL

C. Liver uses cholesterol to make bile

48

What does soluble fiber form in the GI tract?

A. Crystalline deposits

B. Fat droplets

C. Protein plaques

D. Gel-like material

D. Gel-like material

49

What total daily fiber intake is recommended in these notes?

A. 25–35 g/day

B. 5–10 g/day

C. 40–50 g/day

D. 10–15 g/day

A. 25–35 g/day

50

Which legume is especially high in soluble fiber?

A. Corn

B. Beans

C. Rice

D. Potatoes

B. Beans

51

Is antioxidant supplementation recommended as an added treatment for high cholesterol and heart disease?

No

52

Why are antioxidant supplements not recommended for cholesterol management in these notes?

A. They raise triglycerides

B. They increase LDL greatly

C. They cause hypertension

D. They may lower HDL and drug benefit

D. They may lower HDL and drug benefit

53

What is the preferred way to obtain dietary antioxidants?

A. Food sources

B. High-dose supplements

C. IV vitamins

D. Herbal extracts

A. Food sources

54

Alcohol intake above what amount per day is associated with increased mortality?

A. 10 g

B. 30 g

C. 50 g

D. 70 g

B. 30 g

55

More than about how many alcoholic drinks per day is associated with increased mortality in these notes?

A. One

B. Four

C. Two

D. Six

C. Two

56

How much wine counts as one standard drink in these notes?

A. 2 ounces

B. 3 ounces

C. 8 ounces

D. 5 ounces

D. 5 ounces

57

How much 80-proof liquor counts as one drink?

A. 1.5 ounces

B. 3 ounces

C. 5 ounces

D. 12 ounces

A. 1.5 ounces

58

How much beer counts as one standard drink?

A. 5 ounces

B. 12 ounces

C. 16 ounces

D. 20 ounces

B. 12 ounces

59

One proposed cardioprotective effect of alcohol is an increase in what?

A. LDL-C

B. Triglycerides

C. HDL-C

D. VLDL

C. HDL-C

60

Alcohol may reduce LDL oxidation through which compounds?

A. Sterols

B. Bile acids

C. Saturated fats

D. Polyphenols

D. Polyphenols

61

Which group contains examples of antioxidant polyphenols in alcohol?

A. Catechin, quercetin, resveratrol

B. EPA, DHA, linoleic acid

C. Cholesterol, bile, sterols

D. Calcium, sodium, potassium

A. Catechin, quercetin, resveratrol

62

EPA and DHA supplementation is mainly used to lower what lipid?

A. HDL-C

B. LDL-C

C. Triglycerides

D. Total protein

C. Triglycerides

63

How should high-dose EPA plus DHA be taken according to these notes?

A. Only through food

B. Without supervision

C. As IV therapy

D. Capsules under physician care

D. Capsules under physician care

64

The triglyceride-lowering benefit of EPA and DHA comes from which type of fat?

A. Marine omega-3 PUFA

B. Saturated animal fat

C. Trans fat

D. Omega-6 only

A. Marine omega-3 PUFA

65

How often should adults perform aerobic exercise to improve LDL and non-HDL cholesterol?

A. Daily only

B. 3–4 sessions weekly

C. Once weekly

D. Twice monthly

B. 3–4 sessions weekly

66

How long should each aerobic exercise session last on average?

A. 15 minutes

B. 20 minutes

C. 40 minutes

D. 90 minutes

C. 40 minutes

67

What intensity of exercise is recommended for lipid improvement?

A. Very light

B. Stretching

C. Maximal

D. Moderate-to-vigorous

D. Moderate-to-vigorous

68

According to these notes, adults older than 60 should receive hypertension treatment when systolic BP exceeds what value?

A. 150 mm Hg

B. 130 mm Hg

C. 140 mm Hg

D. 160 mm Hg

A. 150 mm Hg

69

For adults older than 60, what diastolic BP threshold is listed for treatment?

A. 80 mm Hg

B. 90 mm Hg

C. 100 mm Hg

D. 110 mm Hg

B. 90 mm Hg

70

According to these notes, adults younger than 60 should be treated when systolic BP exceeds what value?

A. 120 mm Hg

B. 130 mm Hg

C. 140 mm Hg

D. 150 mm Hg

C. 140 mm Hg

71

For adults younger than 60, what diastolic threshold is listed for treatment?

A. 70 mm Hg

B. 80 mm Hg

C. 100 mm Hg

D. 90 mm Hg

D. 90 mm Hg

72

The DASH diet provides high amounts of which two minerals?

A. Potassium and calcium

B. Sodium and chloride

C. Iron and copper

D. Zinc and magnesium

A. Potassium and calcium

73

The DASH diet is designed partly to reduce intake of what mineral?

Sodium

74

What type of relationship exists between obesity and hypertension severity?

A. Inverse

B. Random

C. Linear

D. Exponential

C. Linear

75

What is the recommended upper sodium limit for the general adult population in these notes?

2300 mg/day

76

What sodium limit is recommended for higher-risk groups in these notes?

1500 mg/day

77

Which group is specifically listed as needing a lower sodium target?

A. Healthy teenagers

B. Endurance athletes

C. Adults with hypertension

D. Pregnant adults only

C. Adults with hypertension

78

Which age group is included among those advised to limit sodium to 1500 mg/day?

A. Under 18

B. Under 30

C. Under 40

D. Age 51 or older

D. Age 51 or older

79

Which additional conditions place patients in the lower-sodium group?

A. Diabetes or chronic kidney disease

B. Asthma or COPD

C. Migraine or epilepsy

D. Anemia or hypothyroidism

A. Diabetes or chronic kidney disease

80

According to these notes, the AHA encourages what sodium goal for both hypertensive and healthy adults?

A. 2300 mg/day

B. 1500 mg/day

C. 3000 mg/day

D. 4000 mg/day

B. 1500 mg/day

81

Potassium supplementation can promote which renal effect?

A. Sodium retention

B. Water retention

C. Natriuresis

D. Glucose retention

C. Natriuresis

82

Potassium supplementation may reduce release of which hormone?

A. Aldosterone

B. ADH

C. Cortisol

D. Renin

D. Renin

83

Potassium supplementation may decrease production of which mediator?

A. Thromboxane

B. Histamine

C. Bradykinin

D. Serotonin

A. Thromboxane

84

Which food is high in potassium?

A. White rice

B. Bananas

C. Butter

D. Chicken breast

B. Bananas

85

Which citrus foods are good potassium sources?

A. Lemons only

B. Grapefruit only

C. Oranges and orange juice

D. Limes only

C. Oranges and orange juice

86

Which preparation of potatoes provides a particularly good potassium source?

A. Fried without skin

B. Mashed without skin

C. Peeled and boiled

D. Potatoes with skins

D. Potatoes with skins

87

What immediate effect does alcohol have on blood vessels?

Vasodilation

88

Chronic alcohol use increases production of which vasoconstrictor?

A. Bradykinin

B. Thromboxane

C. Histamine

D. Nitric oxide

B. Thromboxane

89

Which statement correctly compares acute and chronic alcohol effects?

A. Both cause only vasoconstriction

B. Both cause only vasodilation

C. Alcohol dilates; chronic use raises thromboxane

D. Alcohol constricts; chronic use lowers thromboxane

C. Alcohol dilates; chronic use raises thromboxane

90

What is cardiac cachexia?

A. Acute pulmonary congestion

B. Isolated lower-leg swelling

C. Rapid cardiac hypertrophy

D. Wasting from long-standing heart failure

D. Wasting from long-standing heart failure

91

Cardiac cachexia is most associated with which condition?

A. Chronic heart failure

B. Stable hypertension

C. Acute pericarditis

D. Atrial fibrillation

A. Chronic heart failure

92

Which body areas commonly show wasting in cardiac cachexia?

A. Legs and ankles

B. Upper body and temples

C. Abdomen and pelvis

D. Hands and feet

B. Upper body and temples

93

Which finding commonly occurs along with upper-body wasting in cardiac cachexia?

A. Facial flushing

B. Upper-extremity edema

C. Lower-extremity edema

D. Abdominal rigidity

C. Lower-extremity edema

94

Which combination best suggests cardiac cachexia?

A. Obesity with facial edema

B. Leg wasting with hypertension

C. Ascites with weight gain

D. Temporal wasting with leg edema

D. Temporal wasting with leg edema

95

Why can heart failure cause bowel edema?

A. Hypoxemia and increased venous pressure

B. Increased arterial oxygen

C. Reduced venous pressure

D. Increased intestinal motility

A. Hypoxemia and increased venous pressure

96

Bowel edema in heart failure can impair absorption of which nutrients?

A. Calcium and iron

B. Fat and protein

C. Sodium and chloride

D. Glucose and potassium

B. Fat and protein

97

Hypoxia of the liver can reduce production of what?

A. Insulin

B. Albumin only

C. Bile salts

D. Gastric acid

C. Bile salts

98

Hypoxia of the pancreas can decrease production of what?

A. Bile salts

B. Aldosterone

C. Renin

D. Pancreatic enzymes

D. Pancreatic enzymes

99

Reduced bile salts and pancreatic enzymes can worsen what problem in cardiac cachexia?

A. Nutrient malabsorption

B. Hypertension

C. Hyperkalemia

D. Thrombosis

A. Nutrient malabsorption

100

Reduced renal blood flow in heart failure may contribute to what urinary finding?

A. Hematuria

B. Proteinuria

C. Glycosuria

D. Pyuria

B. Proteinuria

101

How do nutritional requirements change in heart failure?

A. They decrease

B. They remain unchanged

C. They increase

D. They disappear

C. They increase

102

Why do heart-failure patients often need more calories?

A. They become hypometabolic

B. Their digestion speeds greatly

C. Their kidneys waste glucose

D. They are hypermetabolic

D. They are hypermetabolic

103

Which factor contributes to the hypermetabolic state of heart failure?

A. Increased work of breathing

B. Reduced cardiac work

C. Reduced oxygen consumption

D. Decreased neuroendocrine activity

A. Increased work of breathing

104

Which additional factor raises energy needs in heart failure?

A. Reduced heart movement

B. Increased mechanical cardiac work

C. Reduced respiratory effort

D. Reduced sympathetic activity

B. Increased mechanical cardiac work

105

Altered neuroendocrine activity in heart failure increases what?

A. Bile production

B. Protein absorption

C. Oxygen consumption

D. Renal filtration

C. Oxygen consumption

106

A patient with heart failure has dilutional hyponatremia. What fluid limit may be needed?

A. 500–750 mL/day

B. 750–1000 mL/day

C. 2500–3000 mL/day

D. 1500–2000 mL/day

D. 1500–2000 mL/day

107

How much protein may help promote anabolism in cardiac cachexia?

A. 1.5 g/kg/day

B. 0.5 g/kg/day

C. 3 g/kg/day

D. 5 g/kg/day

A. 1.5 g/kg/day

108

Giving about 1.5 g/kg/day of protein in cardiac cachexia aims to achieve what?

A. Negative calcium balance

B. Positive nitrogen balance

C. Sodium retention

D. Ketosis

B. Positive nitrogen balance

109

What waist circumference defines abdominal obesity in men in these notes?

A. Greater than 30 inches

B. Greater than 35 inches

C. Greater than 40 inches

D. Greater than 45 inches

C. Greater than 40 inches

110

What waist circumference defines abdominal obesity in women?

A. Greater than 25 inches

B. Greater than 30 inches

C. Greater than 40 inches

D. Greater than 35 inches

D. Greater than 35 inches