Path 26B Flashcards

Does osteoarthritis present with symmetric or asymmetric joint involvement?

Does rheumatoid arthritis present with symmetric or asymmetric joint involvement?

Does osteoarthritis present with systemic symptoms (e.g. fever, fatigue)?

Does rheumatoid arthritis present with systemic symptoms (e.g. fever, fatigue)?

Knee cartilage loss in osteoarthritis begins medially or laterally?

What demographic is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

_____ > _____ years of age

Btwn RA and Osteoarthritis, which one improves with activity?

What demographic is associated with ankylosing spondylitis?

_____ adult _____

Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by a(n) "_____ _____" appearance on X-ray

Psoriatic arthritis most commonly involves the _____ joints of the hands and feet.

Psoriatic arthritis is associated with "_____" fingers and toes

Psoriatic arthritis is associated with a(n) "pencil-in-____" deformity on X-ray

Is gout more common in males or females?

Does gout present with symmetric or asymmetric joint involvement?

Is gout more common in males or females?

Is pseudogout more common in males or females?

A uterine mass is composed of a benign neoplastic proliferation of smooth muscle arising from the myometrium. Which diagnosis is most likely?

A. Leiomyoma

B. Leiomyosarcoma

C. Endometrioma

D. Adenomyosis

Uterine leiomyomas arise from which tissue layer?

A. Endometrium

B. Myometrium

C. Perimetrium

D. Serosa

Which enzyme is deficient in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A. Adenosine deaminase

B. Xanthine oxidase

C. HGPRT

D. Dihydrofolate reductase

HGPRT deficiency produces what effect on uric acid production?

______

What is the inheritance pattern of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A. X-linked recessive

B. Autosomal recessive

C. X-linked dominant

D. Autosomal dominant

HGPRT deficiency causes what change in de novo purine synthesis?

A. Complete inhibition

B. Increased synthesis

C. Decreased synthesis

D. Unchanged synthesis

Which mnemonic can be used to remember manifestations of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A. JONES

B. C-MOPS

C. HGPRT

D. FROM JANE

The articular surfaces of adjoining bones are covered by what tissue?

A. Fibrocartilage

B. Elastic cartilage

C. Dense connective tissue

D. Hyaline cartilage

Which collagen type predominates in articular hyaline cartilage?

Articular cartilage of adjoining bones is surrounded by what structure?

A. Tendon sheath

B. Joint capsule

C. Periosteum

D. Bursa

Which HLA subtype is associated with seronegative spondyloarthritis according to these notes?

A. HLA-DR4

B. HLA-DR1

C. HLA-B2

D. HLA-DQ2

Synovial fluid is particularly rich in which substance?

A. Hyaluronic acid

B. Uric acid

C. Collagen II

D. Fibrin

What is the major function of synovial fluid?

A. Increase bone formation

B. Lubricate joint motion

C. Promote cartilage erosion

D. Produce osteophytes

What is the most common type of arthritis?

Progressive degeneration of articular cartilage from wear and tear describes which disease?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Psoriatic arthritis

C. Gout

D. Osteoarthritis

Which sex is more commonly affected by osteoarthritis?

What is the major risk factor for osteoarthritis?

A. Smoking

B. Age over 60

C. Silica exposure

D. HLA-DR4

Which additional factor increases osteoarthritis risk?

A. Low body weight

B. Male sex

C. Obesity

D. Young age

Which history increases the risk of developing osteoarthritis?

A. Viral infection

B. Autoimmunity

C. Hyperuricemia

D. Joint trauma

Which hand joints are classically affected by osteoarthritis?

A. MCPs, wrists, elbows

B. MCPs, PIPs, wrists

C. PIPs, DIPs, first CMC

D. DIPs, wrists, MCPs

Which thumb joint is commonly affected in osteoarthritis?

A. First MCP

B. First DIP

C. Radiocarpal joint

D. First CMC

A patient develops knee pain after prolonged use. Which disease best fits this weight-bearing joint pattern?

A. Osteoarthritis

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Septic arthritis

D. Reactive arthritis

Which joints are commonly affected by osteoarthritis after use?

A. Shoulders and elbows

B. Hips and knees

C. MCPs and wrists

D. Cervical spine only

Which spinal region is commonly affected by osteoarthritis?

A. Upper cervical spine

B. Thoracic spine

C. Lumbar spine

D. Sacrum spine

Fragments of cartilage floating within an osteoarthritic joint are called what?

A. Pannus fragments

B. Rheumatoid bodies

C. Tophi

D. Joint mice

Eburnation in osteoarthritis refers to what process?

A. Polishing of subchondral bone

B. Destruction of synovium

C. Calcification of cartilage

D. Necrosis of ligaments

Why does eburnation occur in osteoarthritis?

A. Immune-complex deposition

B. The bone friction causes it

C. Crystal deposition

D. Synovial infection

What are osteophytes in osteoarthritis?

A. Cartilage fragments

B. Synovial granulomas

C. Reactive bony outgrowths

D. Uric acid deposits

Joint-space narrowing with osteophyte formation on imaging most strongly suggests what?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Septic arthritis

C. Gout

D. Osteoarthritis

Which medications are used for osteoarthritis pain management?

A. NSAIDs or acetaminophen

B. Methotrexate or azathioprine

C. Rituximab or abatacept

D. Allopurinol or colchicine

Which treatment may be injected directly into an osteoarthritic joint?

A. Penicillin

B. Glucocorticoids

C. Methotrexate

D. Allopurinol

Synovitis followed by formation of an inflammatory pannus characterizes which disease?

A. Osteoarthritis

B. Gout

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Septic arthritis

What is a pannus in rheumatoid arthritis?

A. Cartilage calcification

B. Bony outgrowth

C. Uric acid deposit

D. Inflamed granulation tissue

Which HLA subtype is a risk factor for rheumatoid arthritis?

A. HLA-DR4

B. HLA-B2

C. HLA-DQ2

D. HLA-A3

Which additional HLA subtype is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A. HLA-B27

B. HLA-DR1

C. HLA-DQ8

D. HLA-A2

Which group contains only rheumatoid arthritis risk factors?

A. HLA-DR4, DR1, smoking, silica

B. Obesity, trauma, age, female sex

C. HLA-B2, alcohol, obesity, trauma

D. Age, smoking, hyperuricemia, asbestos

Which hand joints are classically affected by rheumatoid arthritis?

A. DIPs, first CMC, wrists

B. PIPs, MCPs, wrists

C. DIPs, PIPs, first CMC

D. MCPs, DIPs, first CMC

Which deformity is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?

A. Radial finger deviation

B. Ulnar wrist deviation

C. Ulnar finger deviation

D. Isolated DIP deviation

Rheumatoid arthritis may produce which wrist deformity?

A. Ulnar wrist deviation

B. Volar wrist deviation

C. Dorsal wrist deviation

D. Radial wrist deviation

Long-standing rheumatoid arthritis can cause subluxation of which region?

A. Cervical spine

B. Lumbar spine

C. Thoracic spine

D. Sacroiliac joint

Which imaging pattern most strongly suggests rheumatoid arthritis?

A. Osteophytes and sclerosis

B. Narrowing, erosions, periarticular osteopenia

C. Chondrocalcinosis and cysts

D. Joint mice and eburnation

Rheumatoid nodules contain which central histologic finding?

A. Caseous necrosis

B. Fat necrosis

C. Fibrinoid necrosis

D. Liquefactive necrosis

Which cells characteristically surround the necrotic center of rheumatoid nodules?

A. Eosinophils

B. Plasma cells

C. Giant cells

D. Palisading histiocytes

Where can rheumatoid nodules occur?

_____ and _____ organs

Which visceral organ is specifically listed as a site of rheumatoid nodules?

______

A patient with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis develops splenomegaly and neutropenia. Which diagnosis is most likely?

A. Felty syndrome

B. Reiter syndrome

C. Sjögren syndrome

D. Still disease

Which type of amyloidosis is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A. AL amyloidosis

B. ATTR amyloidosis

C. Secondary AA amyloidosis

D. Dialysis-related amyloidosis

Rheumatoid factor is usually which immunoglobulin class?

A. IgA

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgM

Rheumatoid factor is directed against which target?

A. Fc portion of IgG

B. Fab portion of IgM

C. Fc portion of IgA

D. Citrullinated collagen

Which antibody is particularly specific for rheumatoid arthritis?

A. ANA

B. Anti-CCP

C. Anti-dsDNA

D. Anti-centromere

Anti-CCP antibodies recognize which type of antigen?

A. Double-stranded DNA

B. Cardiolipin

C. Citrullinated peptides

D. Basement membrane

Which arthritis is associated with noninflammatory synovial fluid?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Reactive arthritis

C. Psoriatic arthritis

D. Osteoarthritis

What synovial-fluid WBC count is characteristic of osteoarthritis in these notes?

A. Below 2,000/mm³

B. Above 5,000/mm³

C. Above 50,000/mm³

D. Below 100/mm³

Which arthritis is associated with inflammatory synovial fluid?

A. Osteoarthritis

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Degenerative arthritis

D. Traumatic arthritis

What synovial-fluid WBC count is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis in these notes?

A. Below 500/mm³

B. Below 2,000/mm³

C. Above 5,000/mm³

D. Exactly 2,000/mm³

Heberden nodes are bony swellings involving which joints?

A. MCP joints

B. PIP joints

C. Wrist joints

D. DIP joints

Bouchard nodes are bony swellings involving which joints?

A. PIP joints

B. DIP joints

C. MCP joints

D. CMC joints

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies characteristically lack which laboratory marker?

A. ANA

B. Anti-CCP

C. Rheumatoid factor

D. Anti-dsDNA

Which skeletal region is characteristically involved in seronegative spondyloarthropathies?

A. Distal phalanges

B. Upper extremities

C. Peripheral skeleton

D. Axial skeleton

Which mnemonic summarizes the major seronegative spondyloarthropathies?

A. PEAR

B. JONES

C. C-MOPS

D. FROM JANE

In the PEAR mnemonic, what does P represent?

A. Polymyalgia rheumatica

B. Psoriatic arthritis

C. Polyarteritis nodosa

D. Pseudogout

In the PEAR mnemonic, what does E represent?

A. Erosive osteoarthritis

B. Erythema nodosum

C. Enteropathic arthritis

D. Eosinophilic fasciitis

Enteropathic arthritis is particularly associated with which disease category?

A. Rheumatoid disease

B. Gout

C. Osteoarthritis

D. Inflammatory bowel disease

In the PEAR mnemonic, what does A represent?

A. Ankylosing spondylitis

B. Acute rheumatic fever

C. Amyloid arthropathy

D. Autoimmune arthritis

In the PEAR mnemonic, what does R represent?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Reactive arthritis

C. Reiterated arthritis

D. Rheumatic arthritis

How does inflammatory back pain from seronegative spondyloarthropathy typically respond to exercise?

Which ocular manifestation is associated with seronegative spondyloarthropathies?

A. Retinitis

B. Cataracts

C. Glaucoma

D. Uveitis

Ankylosing spondylitis primarily involves which structures?

A. Spine and sacroiliac joints

B. DIP joints and wrists

C. MCP joints and elbows

D. Shoulders and ankles

Which ocular complication is an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis?

A. Conjunctivitis

B. Uveitis

C. Retinal detachment

D. Optic neuritis

A patient with ankylosing spondylitis develops a new diastolic murmur. Which valvular lesion is classically associated?

A. Mitral stenosis

B. Tricuspid stenosis

C. Aortic regurgitation

D. Pulmonic regurgitation

Why can ankylosing spondylitis cause aortic regurgitation?

A. Papillary muscle rupture

B. Infective vegetations

C. Mitral annular calcification

D. Aortitis

Which triad characterizes reactive arthritis?

A. Conjunctivitis, urethritis, arthritis

B. Uveitis, diarrhea, arthritis

C. Pharyngitis, rash, arthritis

D. Splenomegaly, neutropenia, arthritis

A patient develops arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis after an illness. Which diagnosis is most likely?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Reactive arthritis

C. Osteoarthritis

D. Ankylosing spondylitis

Which additional gastrointestinal symptom may accompany reactive arthritis?

A. Constipation

B. Hematemesis

C. Diarrhea

D. Jaundice

Reactive arthritis classically develops in which demographic?

A. Elderly adults

B. Young adults

C. Neonates

D. Older children

Reactive arthritis classically follows which type of infection?

A. GI or Chlamydia infection

B. Pulmonary or fungal infection

C. Skin or viral infection

D. CNS or parasitic infection

Which sexually transmitted organism can trigger reactive arthritis?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

B. Treponema pallidum

C. Chlamydia trachomatis

D. Haemophilus ducreyi

What type of synovial fluid characterizes reactive arthritis?

A. Purulent

B. Septic

C. Hemorrhagic

D. Sterile

A patient has inflammatory arthritis associated with psoriasis and nail lesions. Which diagnosis is most likely?

A. Psoriatic arthritis

B. Reactive arthritis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Septic arthritis

Septic arthritis results from which underlying process?

A. Crystal deposition

B. Infectious invasion

C. Autoimmune synovitis

D. Cartilage degeneration

What type of organism most commonly causes septic arthritis?

A. Fungal

B. Viral

C. Bacterial

D. Parasitic

A sexually active young adult develops septic arthritis. Which organism is most likely?

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Escherichia coli

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

What is the typical cause of septic arthritis in older children and adults?

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

D. Enterococcus faecalis

A patient has one acutely red, swollen, painful joint. Which diagnosis should be strongly considered?

A. Osteoarthritis

B. Septic arthritis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Reactive arthritis

Which joint is most commonly involved in septic arthritis?

A. Shoulder

B. Hip

C. Knee

D. Wrist

Purulent synovial fluid with WBCs above 50,000/mm³ suggests what?

A. Osteoarthritis

B. Reactive arthritis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Septic arthritis

Which triad characterizes gonococcal arthritis-dermatitis syndrome?

A. Polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, dermatitis

B. Arthritis, urethritis, conjunctivitis

C. Fever, arthritis, hematuria

D. Rash, diarrhea, arthritis

Gout results from deposition of which crystals?

A. Calcium oxalate

B. Monosodium urate

C. Calcium pyrophosphate

D. Cholesterol crystals

Where are monosodium urate crystals especially deposited?

A. Pulmonary alveoli

B. Cardiac valves

C. Joints

D. Biliary ducts

What is the most common form of gout?

A. Secondary gout

B. Renal gout

C. Tophaceous gout

D. Primary gout

Primary gout is characterized by which etiology?

A. Unknown etiology

B. Leukemia

C. Renal insufficiency

D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Why can leukemia cause secondary gout?

A. Reduced inflammation

B. Increased cell turnover

C. Decreased purine synthesis

D. Increased calcium excretion

Which disorders can cause secondary gout through increased cellular turnover?

A. Osteoarthritis and RA

B. SLE and scleroderma

C. Leukemia and myeloproliferative disorders

D. Psoriasis and eczema

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome predisposes to gout because of impaired ability to do what?

A. Calcium absorption

B. Pyrimidine degradation

C. Uric acid filtration

D. Salvage purine

Which glycogen storage disease can cause secondary gout?

A. Von Gierke disease

B. Pompe disease

C. McArdle disease

D. Cori disease

Renal insufficiency predisposes to gout through what mechanism?

A. Increased purine synthesis

B. Decreased uric acid excretion

C. Increased calcium absorption

D. Reduced neutrophil activation

Painful acute gout involving the first MTP is called what?

A. Tophus

B. Chondrocalcinosis

C. Synovitis

D. Podagra

Monosodium urate crystal deposition activates which inflammatory cells?

A. Neutrophils

B. Eosinophils

C. Basophils

D. Erythrocytes

Why can alcohol consumption precipitate acute gout?

A. Increased calcium absorption

B. Competes for renal excretion

C. Blocks neutrophil migration

D. Decreases purine intake

Which foods can precipitate acute gout because of high purine content?

A. Dairy and eggs

B. Fruits and vegetables

C. Red meat and seafood

D. Bread and rice

Chronic gout produces which characteristic deposits?

A. Pannus

B. Osteophytes

C. Joint mice

D. Tophi

What is a gouty tophus?

A. White chalky urate aggregate

B. Reactive bony outgrowth

C. Inflamed granulation tissue

D. Calcified cartilage fragment

Which location is commonly affected by gouty tophi?

A. Nasal septum

B. External ear

C. Cornea

D. Fingernail

Which periarticular structure commonly develops gouty tophi?

A. Prepatellar ligament

B. Rotator cuff

C. Olecranon bursa

D. Meniscus

Which tendon commonly develops gouty tophi?

A. Patellar tendon

B. Biceps tendon

C. Triceps tendon

D. Achilles tendon

Chronic gout may eventually cause which major complication?

A. Renal failure

B. Liver failure

C. Pulmonary fibrosis

D. Heart failure

How can chronic gout cause renal failure?

A. Glomerular antibody deposition

B. Tubular urate deposition

C. Renal artery thrombosis

D. Calcium oxalate deposition

What shape characterizes monosodium urate crystals?

A. Rhomboid

B. Spherical

C. Needle-shaped

D. Hexagonal

What birefringence characterizes gout crystals?

A. Strongly positive

B. Weakly positive

C. Nonbirefringent

D. Negative

Under parallel polarized light, MSU crystals appear what color?

A. Yellow

B. Blue

C. Red

D. Green

Under perpendicular polarized light, MSU crystals appear what color?

A. Yellow

B. Blue

C. Red

D. Green

Pseudogout results from deposition of which crystals?

A. Monosodium urate

B. Calcium oxalate

C. Calcium pyrophosphate

D. Cholesterol

Which condition is associated with pseudogout?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. SLE

C. Osteoarthritis

D. Hemochromatosis

Which endocrine disorder is associated with pseudogout?

A. Hyperparathyroidism

B. Hyperthyroidism

C. Addison disease

D. Diabetes insipidus

Which joint is most commonly affected by pseudogout?

A. First MTP

B. Knee

C. Wrist

D. Shoulder

Which radiographic finding classically suggests pseudogout?

A. Joint mice

B. Osteophytes

C. Chondrocalcinosis

D. Pannus formation

What shape characterizes calcium pyrophosphate crystals?

A. Needle-shaped

B. Hexagonal

C. Spherical

D. Rhomboid-shaped

What birefringence characterizes pseudogout crystals?

A. Weakly positive

B. Strongly negative

C. Nonbirefringent

D. Strongly positive

Under parallel polarized light, pseudogout crystals appear what color?

A. Yellow

B. Blue

C. Green

D. Red

A benign neoplasm of adipose tissue within a fibrous capsule is called what?

A. Liposarcoma

B. Rhabdomyoma

C. Lipoma

D. Leiomyoma

What is the most common benign soft-tissue tumor in adults?

A. Rhabdomyoma

B. Fibroma

C. Leiomyoma

D. Lipoma

A malignant tumor arising from adipose tissue is called what?

A. Liposarcoma

B. Lipoma

C. Rhabdomyosarcoma

D. Leiomyoma

What is the most common malignant soft-tissue tumor in adults?

A. Rhabdomyosarcoma

B. Liposarcoma

C. Leiomyosarcoma

D. Fibrosarcoma

Which cell type is characteristic of liposarcoma?

A. Rhabdomyoblast

B. Myofibroblast

C. Lipoblast

D. Chondroblast

A benign tumor of striated muscle is called what?

A. Lipoma

B. Leiomyoma

C. Rhabdomyosarcoma

D. Rhabdomyoma

A malignant tumor of skeletal muscle is called what?

A. Rhabdomyosarcoma

B. Rhabdomyoma

C. Leiomyosarcoma

D. Liposarcoma

What is the most common malignant soft-tissue tumor in children?

A. Liposarcoma

B. Rhabdomyosarcoma

C. Leiomyosarcoma

D. Fibrosarcoma

Which cell type is characteristic of rhabdomyosarcoma?

A. Lipoblast

B. Osteoblast

C. Rhabdomyoblast

D. Chondroblast

Skin picking and lip biting are characteristic behavioral findings in which disorder?

A. Von Gierke disease

B. Gout

C. Pseudogout

D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Tumors of striated muscle are called what when benign and malignant, respectively?

A. Rhabdomyoma and rhabdomyosarcoma

B. Leiomyoma and leiomyosarcoma

C. Lipoma and liposarcoma

D. Fibroma and fibrosarcoma

Which structures are examples of fibrous synarthroses?

A. Pubic and manubriosternal joints

B. Cranial sutures and tooth sockets

C. Knee and hip joints

D. SI and facet joints

Immobile cartilaginous joints are referred to as what?

A. Synovial joints

B. Synarthroses

C. Syndesmoses

D. Synchondroses

Which joints are listed as examples of immobile cartilaginous joints?

A. Manubriosternal and pubic symphyses

B. Hip and knee joints

C. Cranial sutures and teeth

D. Shoulder and elbow joints

Which synovial cell type functions as a specialized macrophage with phagocytic activity?

A. Type A synoviocyte

B. Type B synoviocyte

C. Chondrocyte

D. Fibrocyte

Which synovial cell type resembles a fibroblast?

A. Type A synoviocyte

B. Type B synoviocyte

C. Osteoclast

D. Macrophage

Type B synoviocytes synthesize which important joint lubricant?

A. Uric acid

B. Type I collagen

C. Hyaluronic acid

D. Hydroxyapatite

Which structures are absent from hyaline cartilage?

A. Collagen and proteoglycans

B. Chondrocytes and matrix

C. Synovium and cartilage

D. Vessels, lymphatics, and nerves

The autoimmune response in rheumatoid arthritis is initiated primarily by which cells?

A. CD4+ helper T cells

B. CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

C. Plasma cells

D. Neutrophils

Activated T cells in rheumatoid arthritis express RANKL. What does RANKL promote?

A. Cartilage lubrication

B. Bone resorption

C. Collagen synthesis

D. Synovial fluid absorption

Which cytokine is most firmly implicated in rheumatoid arthritis pathogenesis?

A. IL-4

B. IL-10

C. TNF

D. IFN-beta

A patient receives long-term anti-TNF therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which infection is particularly concerning?

A. Influenza

B. Rhinovirus

C. Parvovirus B19

D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Why should patients receiving long-term anti-TNF therapy be monitored for infection?

A. Opportunistic infections are increased

B. Antibody production becomes excessive

C. Neutrophil activity becomes excessive

D. Complement is overactivated

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis must begin before what age?

A. 12 years

B. 16 years

C. 18 years

D. 21 years

For juvenile idiopathic arthritis, arthritis must persist for at least how long?

A. Two weeks

B. Four weeks

C. Six weeks

D. Twelve weeks

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is best described as what?

A. Single genetic disorder

B. Bacterial joint infection

C. Crystal-induced arthritis

D. Heterogeneous group of disorders

Acute suppurative bacterial arthritis usually reaches the joint through which route?

A. Hematogenous spread

B. Direct neural spread

C. Lymphatic obstruction

D. Transplacental spread

A chronic progressive monoarticular arthritis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which diagnosis best fits?

A. Reactive arthritis

B. Mycobacterial arthritis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Psoriatic arthritis

Mycobacterial arthritis usually has which clinical pattern?

A. Acute polyarticular disease

B. Migratory symmetric arthritis

C. Chronic progressive monoarthritis

D. Intermittent axial arthritis

Urate is the final product of which metabolic pathway?

A. Pyrimidine synthesis

B. Heme catabolism

C. Glycogen breakdown

D. Purine catabolism

Ganglion cysts are nearly always found near which structures?

A. Joint capsules or tendon sheaths

B. Long-bone metaphyses or joint capsule

C. Skeletal muscle bellies or joint capsule

D. Subcutaneous adipose tissue or tendon sheaths

What is the typical maximum size of a ganglion cyst according to these notes?

A. 0.5 cm

B. 1.5 cm

C. 3 cm

D. 5 cm

Which malignant adipose tumor is the most common sarcoma of adulthood?

A. Rhabdomyosarcoma

B. Leiomyosarcoma

C. Liposarcoma

D. Fibrosarcoma

Nodular fasciitis is characterized by proliferation of which cells?

A. Chondrocytes and osteoblasts

B. Adipocytes and lipoblasts

C. Myocytes and rhabdomyoblasts

D. Fibroblasts and myofibroblasts

Nodular fasciitis most commonly occurs in which population?

A. Young adults

B. Neonates

C. Elderly adults

D. Pregnant women

How does nodular fasciitis typically behave?

A. Highly metastatic

B. Self-limited

C. Locally destructive

D. Universally recurrent

In contrast to many other tissue tumors, skeletal muscle neoplasms are predominantly what?

A. Benign

B. Congenital

C. Malignant

D. Inflammatory

Rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant tumor showing differentiation toward what tissue?

A. Smooth muscle

B. Adipose tissue

C. Fibrous tissue

D. Skeletal muscle

Rhabdomyosarcoma is classified as which broad tumor type?

A. Mesenchymal tumor

B. Epithelial tumor

C. Neuroendocrine tumor

D. Germ-cell tumor

Leiomyomas are benign tumors derived from which tissue?

A. Skeletal muscle

B. Smooth muscle

C. Adipose tissue

D. Fibrous tissue

Leiomyomas most commonly arise in which organ?

A. Ovary

B. Cervix

C. Uterus

D. Bladder

According to these notes, leiomyomas represent what in women?

A. Most common sarcoma

B. Most common carcinoma

C. Most common ovarian tumor

D. Most common neoplasm

Hyaline cartilage is composed predominantly of which collagen type?

Approximately 50% of first gout attacks involve which joint?

A. Knee

B. First MTP

C. Wrist

D. Ankle

A first gout attack involving the big toe most commonly affects which articulation?

A. First DIP

B. First CMC

C. First MTP

D. First MCP

A popliteal synovial cyst is more commonly called what?

A. Ganglion cyst

B. Synovial sarcoma

C. Desmoid tumor

D. Baker cyst

According to these notes, which tumor typically presents around the knee in approximately 80% of cases?

A. Diffuse tenosynovial giant cell tumor

B. Liposarcoma

C. Rhabdomyosarcoma

D. Leiomyosarcoma

What does the term “sarcoma” indicate regarding tumor origin?

A. Epithelial origin

B. Connective/soft-tissue origin

C. Neural origin

D. Hematopoietic origin

Dupuytren contracture results from which type of proliferative disorder?

A. Deep fibromatosis

B. Nodular fasciitis

C. Superficial fibromatosis

D. Tenosynovial tumor

Deep fibromatoses are also known by which name?

A. Ganglion cysts

B. Baker cysts

C. Nodular fasciitis

D. Desmoid tumors