Micro 43 Flashcards

Which genome type is characteristic of herpesviruses?

_______-stranded _______

Which capsid structure characterizes herpesviruses?

A. Helical

B. Complex

C. Icosahedral

D. Filamentous

Which layer surrounds the herpesvirus nucleocapsid?

A. Tegument

B. Matrix capsule

C. Peptidoglycan

D. Lipid core

Which component predominates in herpesvirus envelopes?

A. Host cholesterol

B. Cellular enzymes

C. Viral phospholipids

D. Viral glycoproteins

The herpesvirus outer envelope originates from what?

A. Viral capsid

B. Cell membrane

C. Host chromosome

D. Nuclear matrix

A patient recovers from primary HSV infection. Which property allows lifelong persistence?

A. Continuous viremia

B. Chromosomal integration

C. Latent infection

D. Persistent extracellular replication

Under which circumstance can herpesvirus latency develop?

A. Only after severe disease

B. Only after vesicular disease

C. Only after recurrent disease

D. Without evident primary disease

Why may HSV shedding go unnoticed?

A. Viremia masks lesions

B. Lesions may be inapparent

C. Latency blocks inflammation

D. Antibodies prevent symptoms

Which environmental condition readily damages herpesviruses?

A. High humidity

B. Neutral pH

C. Drying

D. Isotonic saline

Which treatment readily inactivates herpesviruses?

A. Heat

B. Refrigeration

C. Visible light

D. Hypertonic saline

Which substance can readily inactivate herpesviruses?

A. Glucose

B. Albumin

C. Bicarbonate

D. Mild detergent

Herpesviruses are particularly susceptible to which agents?

A. Amino acids

B. Solvents

C. Electrolytes

D. Nucleotides

Why does normal skin resist HSV infection?

A. It blocks viral penetration

B. It produces antiviral IgG

C. It destroys viral DNA

D. It prevents ganglionic latency

Alphaherpesvirus glycoproteins initially bind which host structure?

A. Integrin receptors

B. Sialic acid

C. MHC class I

D. Heparan sulfate chains

Heparan sulfate used by HSV is found on:

A. Nuclear histones

B. Cell-surface proteoglycans

C. Cytoplasmic ribosomes

D. Mitochondrial proteins

Binding of HSV glycoprotein to entry receptor triggers:

A. Viral transcription

B. DNA replication

C. Membrane fusion

D. Capsid assembly

HSV envelope fusion can occur directly with the:

A. Plasma membrane

B. Nuclear membrane

C. Golgi membrane

D. Mitochondrial membrane

HSV envelope fusion may alternatively occur within the:

A. Lysosome

B. Peroxisome

C. Nucleolus

D. Endosome

After nucleocapsid transport to nuclear pores, HSV DNA enters the:

A. Cytoplasm

B. Nucleus

C. Golgi

D. Endosome

HSV reaches latency after entering which structures?

A. Blood vessel endings

B. Lymphatic channels

C. Nerve cell endings

D. Sweat gland ducts

HSV travels from peripheral nerve endings toward:

A. Ganglion cell bodies

B. Epidermal keratinocytes

C. Regional lymph nodes

D. Bone marrow cells

HSV latency is established primarily within which site?

A. Epidermal basal cells

B. Hepatic macrophages

C. Bone marrow cells

D. Peripheral sensory ganglia

Besides sensory ganglia, HSV may establish latency in:

A. Germinal centers

B. Autonomic ganglia

C. Splenic sinusoids

D. Renal glomeruli

During lytic (active) infection, the herpesvirus genome enters the cell host nucleus as a linear, double-stranded DNA molecule.

However, to establish stable long-term latency without integrating into human DNA, the viral genome undergoes significant conformational and chromatin _______.

Latent herpesvirus DNA persists in the nucleus as an:

A. Episome

B. Provirus

C. Transposon

D. Viroid

A herpesvirus episome is most analogous to a:

A. Ribosome

B. Chromosome

C. Prion

D. Plasmid

Viral gene transcription during herpesvirus latency is generally:

A. Extensive

B. Minimal

C. Continuous

D. Unregulated

Immediate-early HSV transcription is assisted by factors carried in the:

A. Tegument

B. Envelope lipids

C. Host nucleus

D. Viral DNA

Where is the herpesvirus tegument located?

A. Inside viral genome

B. Outside viral envelope

C. Within host nucleus

D. Between capsid and envelope

Immediate-early HSV proteins primarily activate expression of:

A. Late genes

B. Early genes

C. Host genes

D. Latency genes

HSV early-gene products are primarily required for:

A. Viral DNA replication

B. Virion attachment

C. Axonal transport

D. Membrane fusion

Which event occurs before HSV late-gene expression?

A. Capsid release

B. Neuronal transport

C. Envelope fusion

D. Viral DNA synthesis

Following viral DNA synthesis, which genes are expressed?

A. Immediate-early genes

B. Viral late genes

C. Latency genes

D. Host repair genes

Which proteins are included among HSV late products?

A. Host transcription factors

B. Cellular proteoglycans

C. Viral glycoproteins

D. Heparan sulfate

Herpesvirus late glycoproteins are inserted into:

A. Cell membranes

B. Viral DNA

C. Host ribosomes

D. Nuclear chromatin

Acyclovir blocks HSV DNA synthesis. Which downstream process is most directly reduced?

A. Immediate-early transcription

B. Viral attachment

C. Tegument entry

D. Late-gene expression

How does herpesvirus acquire its final glycoprotein-rich envelope?

A. Nuclear membrane disruption

B. Budding into cytoplasmic vacuoles

C. Direct plasma membrane synthesis

D. Capsid-mediated membrane fusion

The vacuoles used for herpesvirus envelopment arise from the:

A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

B. Nuclear envelope

C. Lysosomal membrane

D. Golgi apparatus

After final envelopment, mature herpesvirions reach the cell surface through:

A. Cytoplasmic vacuoles

B. Nuclear pores

C. Axonal vesicles

D. Ribosomal transport

How are mature herpesvirions ultimately released from infected cells?

A. Cell lysis

B. Endocytosis

C. Exocytosis

D. Transcytosis

The effectiveness of cellular immunity against herpesviruses varies primarily with:

A. Sex

B. Blood type

C. Age

D. Body mass

Developing neonatal organs may worsen HSV disease because their cells have greater:

A. Adaptive resistance

B. Antibody production

C. Interferon secretion

D. Innate viral susceptibility

Why does herpes zoster become more common with aging?

A. Increased viral replication

B. Antiviral immune senescence

C. Increased epithelial turnover

D. Enhanced antibody affinity

HSV and VZV primarily destroy which cells during mucocutaneous replication?

A. Epithelial cells

B. Fibroblasts

C. Endothelial cells

D. Macrophages

HSV and VZV epithelial destruction initially produces which lesion?

A. Papule

B. Pustule

C. Vesicle

D. Nodule

What typically happens to herpesvirus vesicular lesions?

A. They calcify

B. They rupture

C. They become nodules

D. They undergo fibrosis

After herpesvirus vesicles rupture, what remains?

A. Deep necrotic ulcers

B. Painless black eschars

C. Raised verrucous plaques

D. Shallow gray-white ulcers

Herpetic ulcers typically occur on which background?

A. Pale base

B. Necrotic base

C. Purpuric base

D. Erythematous base

Which environmental exposure can reactivate latent HSV?

A. Cold weather

B. Sunburn

C. High humidity

D. Mild exercise

Which physiologic event can trigger HSV reactivation?

A. Ovulation

B. Pregnancy

C. Menstruation

D. Lactation

Which infectious event can trigger latent HSV reactivation?

A. Systemic infection

B. Local colonization

C. Asymptomatic bacteriuria

D. Remote vaccination

Which host condition can promote HSV reactivation?

A. Hyperlipidemia

B. Hypertension

C. Immune impairment

D. Iron deficiency

Which psychological factor may reactivate HSV?

A. Mild boredom

B. Sleep duration

C. Social isolation

D. Emotional stress

Reactivated HSV reaches peripheral epithelial cells by traveling down:

A. Axonal processes

B. Lymphatic vessels

C. Capillary beds

D. Epidermal ducts

After reactivation, HSV infects which nearby cells?

A. Ganglion neurons

B. Mucocutaneous epithelial cells

C. Circulating lymphocytes

D. Vascular endothelial cells

HSV-1 can spread from peripheral nerves into the CNS and cause:

A. Transverse myelitis

B. Encephalitis

C. Cerebellar abscess

D. Bacterial meningitis

HSV-1 encephalitis characteristically produces what inflammatory pattern?

A. Unilateral focal inflammation

B. Symmetric diffuse inflammation

C. Multifocal spinal inflammation

D. Predominantly meningeal inflammation

HSV-1 encephalitis is notable for being unusually:

A. Self-limited and mild

B. Relapsing and painless

C. Slowly reversible

D. Progressive and destructive

A healthy child develops neurologic symptoms after chickenpox. Which complication is most characteristic?

A. Peripheral neuropathy

B. Temporal lobe necrosis

C. Cerebellar ataxia

D. Spinal cord infarction

A clinician scrapes a suspected HSV lesion. Which test can directly detect viral DNA?

A. Gram stain

B. Viral culture

C. Heterophile antibody test

D. Polymerase chain reaction

Direct fluorescent testing of an HSV lesion uses antibodies targeting:

A. Host DNA

B. Viral antigens

C. Cellular enzymes

D. Viral RNA

Which combination establishes a definitive HSV diagnosis?

A. PCR and Gram stain

B. Culture and serology

C. Cytopathic changes and immunofluorescence

D. Biopsy and heterophile testing

Which antiviral is especially useful against several herpesviruses?

A. Acyclovir

B. Ribavirin

C. Oseltamivir

D. Remdesivir

Acyclovir is structurally an analog of which molecule?

A. Adenosine

B. Cytidine

C. Thymidine

D. Guanosine

Acyclovir is initially phosphorylated primarily by:

A. Host ribosomal enzymes

B. Herpesvirus enzymes

C. Cellular mitochondrial enzymes

D. Host nuclear polymerases

Why is acyclovir selectively active in infected cells?

A. Host enzymes rapidly activate it

B. It enters only infected cells

C. Viral enzymes phosphorylate it

D. Uninfected cells lack DNA

After activation, acyclovir is incorporated into:

A. Viral DNA

B. Host RNA

C. Viral proteins

D. Cellular membranes

Once incorporated into viral DNA, acyclovir acts as a:

A. Polymerase activator

B. Base-pair stabilizer

C. Proofreading inhibitor

D. Chain-terminating nucleotide

Why does acyclovir have little toxicity in uninfected cells?

A. It cannot enter cells

B. Cell enzymes poorly phosphorylate it

C. Host DNA excludes guanosine

D. Cellular polymerases destroy it

Which drug is a guanosine analog related to acyclovir?

A. Ganciclovir

B. Valacyclovir

C. Penciclovir

D. Foscarnet

Which route is particularly useful for penciclovir?

A. Topical

B. Intramuscular

C. Inhaled

D. Intrathecal

Why is penciclovir poorly suited for oral therapy?

A. Excessive nephrotoxicity

B. Rapid viral resistance

C. Severe marrow suppression

D. Poor oral bioavailability

Valacyclovir is a prodrug of which antiviral?

A. Penciclovir

B. Acyclovir

C. Ganciclovir

D. Cidofovir

Famciclovir is a prodrug of which antiviral?

A. Acyclovir

B. Ganciclovir

C. Penciclovir

D. Foscarnet

Valacyclovir and famciclovir are commonly used to treat:

______ or ______ disease

Which herpesvirus subfamily includes cytomegalovirus?

A. Alphaherpesvirus

B. Betaherpesvirus

C. Gammaherpesvirus

D. Deltaherpesvirus

Which virus is the prototype gammaherpesvirus?

A. Cytomegalovirus

B. HHV-6

C. Epstein-Barr virus

D. Varicella-zoster virus

Community-acquired CMV and EBV initially contact which surfaces?

A. Keratinized surfaces

B. Mucosal surfaces

C. Serosal surfaces

D. Synovial surfaces

Which mucosal site commonly permits CMV acquisition?

A. Conjunctiva

B. Nasopharynx

C. Oropharynx

D. Rectum

Which additional mucosal site permits community CMV acquisition?

A. Genital tract

B. Bronchial tree

C. Middle ear

D. Urinary bladder

In many populations, infants most commonly acquire CMV through:

A. Placental blood

B. Respiratory droplets

C. Breast milk

D. Skin contact

Which behavior also commonly transmits CMV during adolescence?

A. Shared utensils

B. Sexual contact

C. Casual touching

D. Aerosol inhalation

CMV is best classified epidemiologically as which infection?

A. Vector-borne infection

B. Foodborne infection

C. Sexually transmitted infection

D. Zoonotic infection

CMV crosses which structure to infect a fetus?

A. Amnion

B. Placenta

C. Chorion

D. Cervical epithelium

Transplacental CMV infection produces which condition?

A. Neonatal HSV

B. Congenital CMV

C. Acquired EBV

D. Zoster infection

A newborn with congenital CMV is at risk for permanent:

A. Hearing loss

B. Cataracts only

C. Renal agenesis

D. Limb defects

Congenital CMV can cause severe disease involving primarily which system?

A. Musculoskeletal system

B. Nervous system

C. Endocrine system

D. Gastrointestinal system

Besides community exposure, which patients are at special CMV and EBV risk?

A. Hospitalized patients

B. Healthy athletes

C. Schoolchildren

D. Outdoor workers

CMV and EBV attachment involves which host molecules?

A. Integrins

B. Glycosaminoglycans

C. Cadherins

D. Selectins

One CMV/EBV entry pathway involves receptor binding followed by:

A. Plasma membrane fusion

B. Nuclear membrane fusion

C. Direct DNA injection

D. Ribosomal entry

The second CMV/EBV entry pathway begins with receptor binding followed by:

A. Budding

B. Internalization

C. Exocytosis

D. Nuclear import

After internalization, CMV/EBV fusion requires what condition?

A. Neutral pH

B. Alkaline pH

C. Acidic pH

D. Hypertonic pH

Acid-dependent fusion releases which structures from endocytic vesicles?

A. Ribosomes and RNA

B. Nucleocapsid and tegument

C. Glycoproteins and lipids

D. Histones and enzymes

EBV gp350/220 binds which B-cell receptor?

A. CD4

B. CD8

C. CD21

D. CD28

EBV enters epithelial cells optimally at which pH?

A. Neutral pH

B. Acidic pH

C. Alkaline pH

D. Variable pH

EBV entry into epithelial cells requires which process?

A. Clathrin endocytosis

B. Macropinocytosis

C. Phagocytosis

D. No endocytosis

Which proteins are sufficient for EBV membrane fusion?

A. gB, gH, gL

B. gp42, gp120, gp41

C. gB, gp42, CD21

D. gp350, gL, CD4

Virions lacking gp42 infect which cells more efficiently?

A. B lymphocytes

B. Epithelial cells

C. T lymphocytes

D. Monocytes

Compared with gp42-containing virions, gp42-deficient EBV shows enhanced infection of:

A. Neurons

B. Hepatocytes

C. Epithelial cells

D. Macrophages

After CMV or EBV penetrates a cell, the nucleocapsid is transported toward the:

A. Nucleus

B. Golgi apparatus

C. Lysosome

D. Plasma membrane

CMV and EBV nucleocapsid transport likely depends on:

A. Actin depolymerization

B. Ribosomal movement

C. Microtubular transport

D. Nuclear diffusion

Herpesvirus assembly occurs in which cellular compartments?

A. Nucleus and golgi

B. Cytoplasm and golgi

C. Nuclear and cytoplasmic

D. Golgi and cytoplasmic

During replication, CMV and EBV DNA initially forms long:

A. Concatemers

B. Episomes

C. Proviruses

D. Plasmids

A concatemer consists of repeated copies of:

A. Viral proteins

B. Host chromosomes

C. Viral transcripts

D. Genome-length viral DNA

During capsid maturation, concatemers are cleaved into:

A. Short RNA fragments

B. Unit-length genomes

C. Episomal circles

D. Host-sized chromosomes

Unit-length herpesvirus genomes are generated during:

A. Initial attachment

B. Viral penetration

C. Immediate-early transcription

D. Packaging and capsid maturation

Nucleocapsids initially exit the nucleus by budding through the:

A. Golgi membrane

B. Nuclear membrane

C. Plasma membrane

D. Endosomal membrane

After leaving the nucleus, nucleocapsids acquire which layer?

A. Tegument

B. Capsid

C. Glycocalyx

D. Peptidoglycan

Final CMV and EBV envelopment occurs through the:

A. Nuclear pathway

B. Endocytic pathway

C. Secretory pathway

D. Mitochondrial pathway

Latent herpesvirus infection is characterized by what gene-expression pattern?

A. Continuous

B. Restricted

C. Unregulated

D. Complete

During latent infection, Epstein-Barr virus nuclear antigen 1 (EBNA-1) primarily ensures that viral episomes are:

A. Maintained and partitioned

B. Cleaved and packaged

C. Fused and internalized

D. Transcribed and translated

During latent infection and proliferation of host cells, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) DNA persists primarily as a:

A. Self-replicating episome

B. Integrated linear provirus

C. Host chromosomal insertion

D. Cytoplasmic plasmid

Which latent EBV protein provides cellular growth signals?

A. EBNA-1

B. gp42

C. gp350/220

D. LMP1

Which additional EBV latent protein promotes growth signaling?

A. gB

B. gH

C. LMP2a

D. EBNA-2

LMP1 and LMP2a expression ultimately promotes:

A. Viral DNA cleavage

B. Cellular proliferation

C. Capsid degradation

D. Membrane acidification

Restricting Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) gene expression during latency primarily serves to limit:

A. Host lymphocyte recognition

B. Viral DNA replication

C. Episomal genome maintenance

D. Host cell proliferation

How frequently does EBV reactivate from latency in vivo?

A. Sporadically

B. Continuously

C. Predictably

D. Never

EBV reactivation is especially likely with defective virus-specific:

A. B-cell responses

B. Neutrophil responses

C. NK-cell responses

D. T-lymphocyte responses

Which treatment can predispose to EBV reactivation?

A. Antacid therapy

B. Antihistamine therapy

C. Antibiotic therapy

D. Cytotoxic therapy

Which additional therapy increases risk of EBV reactivation?

A. Immunosuppressive therapy

B. Bronchodilator therapy

C. Anticoagulant therapy

D. Antipyretic therapy

MicroRNAs involved in herpesvirus regulation are classified as:

A. Coding RNAs

B. Noncoding RNAs

C. Ribosomal RNAs

D. Transfer RNAs

MicroRNAs primarily regulate gene expression at which level?

A. DNA replication

B. Translation initiation only

C. Posttranscriptional regulation

D. Chromosomal segregation

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) disseminate throughout the human host primarily as:

A. Cell-associated virus

B. Free-floating plasma virions

C. Aerosolized viral particles

D. Extracellular naked episomes

EBV cellular tropism prominently includes which lymphocytes?

A. T lymphocytes

B. B lymphocytes

C. NK lymphocytes

D. Plasma cells

Besides B lymphocytes, EBV prominently infects which cells?

A. Hepatocytes

B. Neurons

C. Fibroblasts

D. Epithelial cells

Anti-TNF antibodies can increase the risk of severe:

A. HSV infection and CMV

B. Influenza and CMV

C. CMV and EBV infections

D. Adenovirus and EBV infections

Anti-TNF antibodies are commonly used to treat:

A. Rheumatologic diseases

B. Viral encephalitis

C. Bacterial meningitis

D. Congenital infections

CMV encodes a functional homolog of which two cytokines?

IL-____ and IL-____

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)-encoded cytokine homologs and chemokine receptors primarily function to promote:

A. Viral persistence

B. Host viral clearance

C. Neutralizing antibody production

D. Complement cascade activation

CMV immune-modulating proteins alter which host response?

A. Inflammatory response

B. Coagulation response

C. Endocrine response

D. Hematopoietic response

A young adult develops low-grade fever, fatigue, pharyngitis, and cervical adenopathy after primary infection. Which syndrome is most likely?

A. Scarlet fever

B. Acute mononucleosis

C. Serum sickness

D. Viral exanthem

Which physical finding commonly accompanies acute mononucleosis?

A. Hepatic bruit

B. Ascites

C. Splenomegaly

D. Clubbing

Which lymph node finding commonly occurs in acute mononucleosis?

A. Cervical lymphadenopathy

B. Inguinal lymphadenopathy

C. Hilar lymphadenopathy

D. Mesenteric lymphadenopathy

Which blood finding can accompany acute mononucleosis?

A. Neutropenia

B. Eosinophilia

C. Thrombocytosis

D. Monocytosis

Peripheral blood in acute mononucleosis may contain which lymphocytes?

A. Immature

B. Atypical or reactive

C. Naive only

D. Anergic only

A patient has mononucleosis symptoms but a negative heterophile test. Which virus can cause this syndrome?

A. CMV

B. VZV

C. HSV-2

D. HHV-6

CMV infection has been strongly associated with development of:

A. Coronary artery disease

B. Aortic dissection

C. Venous thrombosis

D. Mitral stenosis

Persistent CMV and EBV infections are associated with chronic:

A. Endocrine disorders

B. Inflammatory diseases

C. Coagulation disorders

D. Metabolic syndromes

Persistent CMV and EBV infections are also associated with human:

A. Autoantibodies

B. Immunodeficiencies

C. Cancers

D. Hemoglobinopathies

A transplant recipient develops fever, lymphadenopathy, hepatitis, and hematologic abnormalities. Which infection is most likely?

A. Acute EBV

B. Acute VZV

C. Acute HSV

D. Acute CMV

Which organ involvement commonly accompanies transplant-associated acute CMV?

A. Pancreatitis

B. Hepatitis

C. Nephritis

D. Myocarditis

Late cytomegalovirus (CMV) reactivation and disease in allogeneic stem cell transplant recipients is most strongly associated with an increased severity of:

A. Graft-versus-host disease

B. Host-versus-graft rejection

C. Serum sickness

D. Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder

Late CMV disease increases transplant-related:

A. Fertility

B. Bone density

C. Vaccine response

D. Morbidity

EBV reactivation after transplantation can induce marked:

A. Lymphoproliferation

B. Neutropenia

C. Fibrosis

D. Erythrocytosis

Which virus is clearly considered oncogenic?

A. CMV

B. HSV-1

C. VZV

D. EBV

Which malignancy is associated with EBV?

A. Hodgkin lymphoma

B. Follicular lymphoma

C. CLL

D. Multiple myeloma

Which lymphoma has a classic EBV association?

A. Mantle cell lymphoma

B. Burkitt lymphoma

C. Marginal zone lymphoma

D. Diffuse follicular lymphoma

Which epithelial malignancy is strongly associated with EBV?

A. Oral squamous carcinoma

B. Thyroid carcinoma

C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

D. Renal cell carcinoma

Which additional carcinoma is associated with EBV?

A. Hepatocellular carcinoma

B. Colon carcinoma

C. Pancreatic carcinoma

D. Gastric carcinoma

EBV latent membrane proteins promote carcinogenesis by increasing:

A. Cellular proliferation

B. DNA repair

C. Antigen presentation

D. Interferon secretion

EBV latent membrane proteins also promote cancer by limiting:

A. Mitosis

B. Apoptosis

C. DNA synthesis

D. Protein translation

Which method can diagnose CMV or EBV infection?

A. Virus isolation

B. Sweat chloride testing

C. Coombs testing

D. Osmotic fragility testing

CMV and EBV diagnosis can include detection of viral:

A. Hormones

B. Antigens

C. Electrolytes

D. Lipoproteins

Another diagnostic strategy detects viral:

A. Phospholipids

B. Steroids

C. Nucleic acids

D. Glycogen

CMV and EBV infection can also be assessed through:

A. Bone density

B. Serological responses

C. Pulmonary function

D. Coagulation studies

CMV can readily be isolated from which specimen?

A. Urine

B. Synovial fluid

C. Sweat

D. Hair

CMV can also readily be isolated from

A. Tears

B. Saliva

C. Nail clippings

D. Cerumen

Which additional specimen can readily yield CMV?

A. CSF

B. Stool

C. Blood

D. Sputum only

CMV can readily be isolated from which additional source?

A. Hair

B. Tissue specimens

C. Bone

D. Skin scrapings

Which assay is useful for CMV diagnosis in immunocompromised patients?

A. Monospot assay

B. Antigenemia assay

C. Coombs assay

D. Schilling test

The CMV antigenemia assay primarily uses:

A. Immunofluorescence

B. Gram staining

C. Acid-fast staining

D. Electron microscopy

CMV antigenemia detects viral antigen in circulating:

A. Erythrocytes

B. Platelets

C. Leukocytes

D. Reticulocytes

Which test is highly sensitive and specific for EBV?

A. ELISA

B. Culture

C. PCR

D. Gram stain

Which EBV molecules are detected by in situ hybridization?

A. LMPs

B. EBERs

C. EBNAs

D. gp350

EBERs are best described as:

A. Viral glycoproteins

B. Capsid proteins

C. Noncoding nuclear RNAs

D. Viral polymerases

Why does Epstein-Barr virus-encoded RNA (EBER) in situ hybridization exhibit high sensitivity for detecting EBV-infected cells?

A. High intranuclear RNA copy number

B. High affinity antibody-antigen binding

C. Rapid lytic viral replication

D. High concentration in serum

Development of new serologic reactivity is called:

A. Seroprotection

B. Seroconversion

C. Seroreversion

D. Seroadsorption

Seroconversion is a standard method for detecting:

A. Latent infection

B. Reactivation

C. Primary infection

D. Drug resistance

Seroconversion can detect primary infection with:

A. CMV and EBV

B. HSV and VZV

During acute EBV mononucleosis, which antibodies are produced?

A. EBV-specific only

B. Non-EBV-specific antibodies

C. Autoantibodies

D. Antinuclear antibodies

The non-EBV-specific antibodies of mononucleosis are called:

A. Cold agglutinins

B. Heterophile antibodies

C. Rheumatoid factors

D. Isohemagglutinins

Which test detects heterophile antibodies in acute EBV?

A. Monospot test

B. Coombs test

C. Western blot

D. VDRL

The Monospot test is best described as a rapid:

A. Precipitation assay

B. Agglutination test

C. Complement fixation test

D. Neutralization assay

What treatment is indicated for disseminated CMV or EBV in immunocompromised patients?

A. Antiviral therapy

B. Antibacterial therapy

C. Antifungal therapy

D. Antiprotozoal therapy

Which drug routinely inhibits CMV replication?

A. Oseltamivir

B. Ganciclovir

C. Ribavirin

D. Zanamivir

Which additional drug inhibits CMV replication?

A. Acyclovir

B. Valacyclovir

C. Foscarnet

D. Famciclovir

Ganciclovir and foscarnet are routinely used for:

A. CMV prevention and treatment

B. EBV vaccination

C. HSV latency eradication

D. VZV prophylaxis only

Ganciclovir is best classified as a:

A. Protease inhibitor

B. Nucleoside analog

C. Integrase inhibitor

D. Neuraminidase inhibitor

Activated ganciclovir inhibits viral DNA-dependent DNA:

A. Ligase

B. Helicase

C. Topoisomerase

D. Polymerase

Ganciclovir also inhibits CMV replication by:

A. Arresting DNA elongation

B. Blocking viral attachment

C. Preventing endocytosis

D. Destroying viral capsids