Phys 34 Flashcards

How do blood leukocytes and leukocyte-derived tissue cells protect against infection?

A. Phagocytosis and adaptive immune responses

B. Hormone release and vasoconstriction

C. Coagulation and platelet aggregation

D. Erythropoiesis and oxygen transport

What is another name for leukocytes?

Where are leukocytes primarily formed?

A. Liver and kidney

B. Spleen and pancreas

C. Thymus and skin

D. Bone marrow and lymph tissue

Which blood leukocyte is a polymorphonuclear granulocyte?

A. Monocyte

B. Neutrophil

C. Lymphocyte

D. Plasma cell

What are the three granulocytes?

Which blood leukocyte may appear only occasionally?

A. Neutrophil

B. Monocyte

C. Lymphocyte

D. Plasma cell

Which cells protect by phagocytosis and inflammatory substances?

A. Granulocytes and monocytes

B. Lymphocytes and plasma cells

C. Platelets and erythrocytes

D. Fibroblasts and endothelial cells

What are the two major leukocyte lineages?

A. Granular and agranular

B. Innate and adaptive

C. Myelocytic and lymphocytic

D. Monocytic and granulocytic

Which precursor begins the myelocytic lineage?

A. Lymphoblast

B. Promyelocyte

C. Monoblast

D. Myeloblast

Which precursor begins the lymphocytic lineage?

A. Lymphoblast

B. Myeloblast

C. Promyelocyte

D. Megakaryocyte

Promyelocytes can ultimately form which granulocytes?

A. Monocytes, lymphocytes, plasma cells

B. Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

C. Platelets, lymphocytes, monocytes

D. Macrophages, plasma cells, platelets

Promyelocytes can also give rise to which cell type?

A. Lymphoblasts

B. Plasma cells

C. Megakaryocytes

D. Macrophages

Where are granulocytes and monocytes formed?

A. Lymph nodes only

B. Spleen only

C. Thymus only

D. Bone marrow only

Where are lymphocytes and plasma cells mainly produced?

A. Lymph tissues

B. Bone cortex

C. Renal tissue

D. Skeletal muscle

Which structures are major lymphoid production sites?

A. Liver, kidney, pancreas, skin

B. Nodes, spleen, thymus, tonsils

C. Heart, lungs, liver, kidney

D. Marrow, cartilage, tendon, muscle

How many times more WBCs are stored in the bone marrow than circulating?

A. Equal numbers

B. Twice as many

C. Five times as many

D. Three times as many

How long do granulocytes usually circulate in blood?

A. 4–8 hours

B. 1–2 days

C. 4–5 days

D. 7–10 days

How long do granulocytes usually survive in tissues?

A. 4–8 hours

B. 4–5 days

C. 10–14 days

D. Several months

What happens to granulocyte lifespan during severe tissue infection?

A. It greatly increases

B. It remains unchanged

C. It becomes shorter

D. It becomes several months

Why is granulocyte lifespan shortened during severe infection?

A. They remain in marrow

B. They stop migrating

C. They become lymphocytes

D. They rapidly perform their function

What happens to blood monocytes after entering tissues?

A. They swell into macrophages

B. They become neutrophils

C. They become plasma cells

D. They become lymphocytes

Tissue macrophages originally develop from which blood cells?

A. Neutrophils

B. Monocytes

C. Eosinophils

D. Basophils

What process allows leukocytes to cross vessel walls?

A. Chemotaxis

B. Phagocytosis

C. Opsonization

D. Diapedesis

How do lymphocytes pass from blood into tissues?

A. Diapedesis

B. Exocytosis

C. Pinocytosis

D. Osmosis

How do leukocytes move through tissue spaces?

A. Ciliary motion

B. Ameboid motion

C. Passive diffusion

D. Axonal transport

What guides neutrophils toward chemical signals?

A. Diapedesis

B. Opsonization

C. Chemotaxis

D. Agglutination

Which cells undergo chemotaxis toward inflammatory signals?

A. Platelets and erythrocytes

B. Lymphocytes and plasma cells

C. Basophils and megakaryocytes

D. Neutrophils and macrophages

Which microbial products can attract leukocytes by chemotaxis?

A. Bacterial or viral toxins

B. Normal plasma proteins

C. Red-cell membrane proteins

D. Dietary amino acids

Which tissue-derived substances can promote leukocyte chemotaxis?

A. Normal collagen fibers

B. Degenerative inflammatory products

C. Intact epithelial proteins

D. Normal extracellular fluid

Which immune-system products can produce chemotaxis?

A. Immunoglobulin light chains

B. Platelet membrane proteins

C. Complement reaction products

D. Hemoglobin breakdown products

Which hemostatic process can generate chemotactic products?

A. Erythrocyte synthesis

B. Antibody secretion

C. Lymphocyte maturation

D. Plasma clotting reactions

The direction of leukocyte chemotaxis depends on what?

A. Chemotactic concentration gradient

B. Total erythrocyte count

C. Plasma glucose concentration

D. Platelet lifespan

What is the most important function of neutrophils and macrophages?

______

Approximately how often are circulating platelets replaced?

A. Every 2 days

B. Every 5 days

C. Every 10 days

D. Every 30 days

Which surface feature makes a particle more likely to undergo phagocytosis?

A. Smooth protein coating

B. Rough surface

C. Intact host membrane

D. Low surface charge

Why are most normal body substances relatively resistant to phagocytosis?

A. They lack cell membranes

B. They contain bacterial toxins

C. Protective protein coats repel phagocytes

D. They rapidly activate complement

How can the immune system increase phagocytosis of infectious bacteria?

A. Produce antibodies against bacteria

B. Decrease complement activation

C. Remove phagocyte receptors

D. Smooth the bacterial surface

During antibody-enhanced phagocytosis, antibodies combine with which complement product?

A. C1

B. C2

C. C5

D. C3

What is the process of marking a pathogen for phagocytosis called?

A. Chemotaxis

B. Opsonization

C. Diapedesis

D. Agglutination

Why can neutrophils begin phagocytosis immediately after entering tissues?

A. They are already mature

B. They become macrophages immediately

C. They require antibody production

D. They first undergo mitosis

After attaching to a bacterium, what does a neutrophil extend around it?

A. Cilia

B. Flagella

C. Pseudopodia

D. Microvilli

What is the intracellular vesicle containing an engulfed particle called?

A. Lysosome

B. Phagosome

C. Endosome

D. Peroxisome

Which cells are more powerful phagocytes than neutrophils?

______

How can macrophages differ from neutrophils after digesting foreign material?

A. They immediately undergo apoptosis

B. They become lymphocytes

C. They extrude residual products

D. They stop all phagocytosis

After clearing digested material, how long can macrophages continue functioning?

A. Several minutes

B. Several months

C. Several hours

D. Several days

After a foreign particle is phagocytosed, what digests it intracellularly?

A. Antibodies

B. Complement proteins

C. Plasma clotting factors

D. Intracellular enzymes

Neutrophils and macrophages contain abundant lysosomes filled with what?

A. Proteolytic enzymes

B. Immunoglobulins

C. Clotting proteins

D. Steroid hormones

Which enzymes help digest bacteria with thick lipid membranes?

A. Proteases

B. Lipases

C. Kinases

D. Polymerases

If lysosomal enzymes cannot digest bacteria, what can still kill them?

A. Platelet factors

B. Plasma antibodies alone

C. Bactericidal agents

D. Fibrinogen clots

Which components together make up the reticuloendothelial system?

A. Only circulating neutrophils

B. Only fixed macrophages

C. T cells and B cells

D. Monocytes, macrophages, specialized endothelial cells

Which organs contain specialized reticuloendothelial cells?

A. Heart, lungs, kidneys

B. Marrow, spleen, lymph nodes

C. Thyroid, pancreas, adrenal glands

D. Skin, muscle, cartilage

Why do tissue particles usually enter lymphatics instead of crossing capillaries directly?

A. Particles cannot be absorbed directly

B. Capillaries lack endothelial cells

C. Lymph contains more antibodies

D. Blood vessels repel bacteria

What happens to particles not destroyed locally within tissues?

A. They enter arterial blood

B. They remain permanently trapped

C. They enter lymph

D. They enter bone marrow

Which vessels carry lymph into a lymph node?

A. Efferent lymphatics

B. Afferent lymphatics

C. Venules

D. Arterioles

Which lymphatic vessels carry lymph away toward venous blood?

A. Afferent lymphatics

B. Lacteals

C. Capillary lymphatics

D. Efferent lymphatics

An alveolar macrophage cannot digest an inhaled particle. What may it become?

A. Giant cell

B. Plasma cell

C. Neutrophil

D. Lymphocyte

What are the tissue macrophages lining liver sinusoids called?

A. Langerhans cells

B. Kupffer cells

C. Microglia

D. Osteoclasts

Which vascular change is characteristic of acute inflammation?

A. Local vasoconstriction

B. Reduced capillary flow

C. Local vasodilation

D. Decreased vessel diameter

What happens to capillary permeability during inflammation?

A. It increases

B. It decreases

C. It becomes absent

D. It remains unchanged

Which event occurs within interstitial spaces during inflammation?

A. Fluid becomes more alkaline

B. Lymphocytes undergo maturation

C. Antibodies stop entering tissue

D. Interstitial fluid may clot

Which leukocytes migrate into inflamed tissues in large numbers?

A. Plasma cells and platelets

B. Granulocytes and monocytes

C. Erythrocytes and megakaryocytes

D. Fibroblasts and endothelial cells

What happens to tissue cells during inflammation?

A. They shrink

B. They calcify

C. They swell

D. They disappear

Which substances can trigger inflammatory tissue reactions?

A. Histamine and bradykinin

B. Hemoglobin and albumin

C. Insulin and glucagon

D. Thyroxine and cortisol

Which additional mediators participate in inflammatory reactions?

A. Acetylcholine and dopamine

B. Prostaglandins and serotonin

C. Aldosterone and renin

D. Epinephrine and insulin

Which immune mediators can contribute to inflammation?

A. Hemoglobin degradation products

B. Bile acids

C. Complement reaction products

D. Gastric enzymes

Which hemostatic system can generate inflammatory mediators?

A. Blood clotting system

B. Renin-angiotensin system

C. Thyroid system

D. Bile secretion system

Which cells release lymphokines during inflammatory responses?

A. Neutrophils

B. Sensitized T cells

C. Platelets

D. Erythrocytes

What is one of the earliest protective effects of inflammation?

A. Increase systemic blood flow

B. Destroy all nearby tissue

C. Wall off injured area

D. Suppress leukocyte migration

How are tissue spaces and lymphatics blocked within an inflamed area?

A. Antibody precipitation

B. Platelet destruction

C. Vasoconstriction

D. Fibrinogen clot formation

What usually determines the intensity of an inflammatory response?

A. Degree of tissue injury

B. Patient blood type

C. Number of erythrocytes

D. Plasma glucose level

Which cells provide the first line of defense against tissue infection?

A. Circulating lymphocytes

B. Tissue macrophages

C. Plasma cells

D. Basophils

What triggers the early invasion of neutrophils into inflamed tissue?

A. Inflammatory cytokines and biochemical products

B. Reduced capillary blood flow

C. Antibody production by plasma cells

D. Decreased endothelial permeability

How does inflammation make neutrophil diapedesis easier?

A. Endothelial attachments tighten

B. Capillary walls calcify

C. Endothelial attachments loosen

D. Lymphatic drainage stops

Inflammatory mediators guide neutrophils toward injured tissue through which process?

A. Opsonization

B. Phagocytosis

C. Diapedesis

D. Chemotaxis

What causes neutrophils to adhere to inflamed vessel walls?

A. Adhesion molecules and integrins

B. Antibodies and lymphokines

C. Histamine and heparin

D. Fibrinogen and platelets

During inflammation, neutrophils primarily adhere to which vessels?

A. Large arteries and capillaries

B. Capillaries and small venules

C. Large veins and arteries

D. Lymphatic vessels and veins

How does inflammation cause acute neutrophilia?

A. Neutrophils divide within blood

B. Macrophages become neutrophils

C. Spleen converts monocytes

D. Marrow releases stored neutrophils

What carries inflammatory signals to bone marrow during neutrophilia?

A. Bloodstream

B. Lymph nodes

C. Cerebrospinal fluid

D. Bile ducts

Compared with neutrophil accumulation, macrophage buildup at an inflamed site is what?

A. Faster

B. Slower

C. Identical

Why is macrophage accumulation slower than neutrophil accumulation?

A. Macrophages cannot migrate

B. Monocytes remain immature initially

C. Macrophages lack chemotaxis

D. Neutrophils remain in marrow

Which cytokines help regulate macrophage and neutrophil responses?

A. TNF and IL-1

B. IL-4 and IL-5

C. IL-10 and TGF-β

D. IFN-α and IFN-β

Which colony-stimulating factor increases both granulocyte and monocyte production?

A. G-CSF

B. M-CSF

C. GM-CSF

D. EPO

Which colony-stimulating factor specifically increases granulocyte production?

A. M-CSF

B. G-CSF

C. GM-CSF

D. IL-1

Which colony-stimulating factor specifically increases monocyte production?

A. G-CSF

B. GM-CSF

C. TNF

D. M-CSF

What is pus composed primarily of?

A. Necrotic tissue and dead leukocytes

B. Living neutrophils and erythrocytes

C. Antibodies and platelets

D. Lymphocytes and fibrin only

Which additional component is present in pus?

A. Bone marrow

B. Tissue fluid

C. Bile

D. Cerebrospinal fluid

Approximately what percentage of blood leukocytes are eosinophils?

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 2%

D. 50%

How effective are eosinophils as phagocytes?

A. Very powerful

B. Moderately powerful

C. Nonphagocytic

D. Weak

Despite weak phagocytosis, eosinophils demonstrate which movement response?

A. Chemotaxis

B. Osmosis

C. Pinocytosis

D. Agglutination

Which condition commonly causes marked eosinophil production?

A. Viral infections

B. Parasitic infections

C. Bacterial sepsis

D. Autoimmune anemia

Where do eosinophils migrate during parasitic infection?

A. Healthy bone

B. Bloodstream

C. Parasite-infected tissues

D. Lymph nodes

Which widespread parasitic infection is associated with eosinophilic responses?

A. Giardiasis

B. Malaria

C. Toxoplasmosis

D. Schistosomiasis

How can eosinophils directly damage parasites?

A. Release hydrolytic enzymes

B. Produce antibodies

C. Release insulin

D. Form fibrin clots

Which toxic products released by eosinophils can damage parasites?

A. Reactive oxygen species

B. Immunoglobulin light chains

C. Clotting factors

D. Plasma albumin

A patient develops muscle invasion after eating undercooked infested pork. What is the diagnosis?

A. Schistosomiasis

B. Giardiasis

C. Trichinosis

D. Malaria

Which parasite causes trichinosis after ingestion of undercooked pork?

A. Schistosoma

B. Giardia

C. Plasmodium

D. Trichinella

Which cells release eosinophil chemotactic factor during allergic inflammation?

A. Neutrophils and macrophages

B. Mast cells and basophils

C. Lymphocytes and plasma cells

D. Monocytes and eosinophils

Circulating basophils most closely resemble which tissue cells?

A. Macrophages

B. Neutrophils

C. Mast cells

D. Plasma cells

Which anticoagulant substance is released by mast cells and basophils?

A. Histamine

B. Serotonin

C. Bradykinin

D. Heparin

What is the primary effect of heparin released by mast cells and basophils?

A. Prevents blood coagulation

B. Promotes platelet aggregation

C. Increases fibrin production

D. Stimulates neutrophil production

Besides heparin, which mediators are released by mast cells and basophils?

A. Histamine, bradykinin, serotonin

B. Insulin, glucagon, cortisol

C. Dopamine, GABA, acetylcholine

D. Albumin, fibrinogen, transferrin

A patient develops painful oral and colonic ulcers two days after marrow failure. What caused this complication?

A. Loss of WBC production

B. Excess platelet destruction

C. Increased lymphocyte storage

D. Accelerated erythropoiesis

Whole-body exposure to x-rays or gamma rays can cause what?

A. Leukocytosis

B. Splenic enlargement

C. Bone marrow aplasia

D. Lymph node fibrosis

What is a normal approximate adult WBC count?

A. 700/µL

B. 7,000/µL

C. 70,000/µL

D. 700,000/µL

A cancerous mutation causes uncontrolled WBC production. What is this called?

______

Which disorder is characterized by abnormal WBCs circulating in blood?

______

What are the two general leukemia types?

A. Acute and chronic

B. B-cell and T-cell

C. Lymphocytic and myelogenous

D. Granular and agranular

Lymphocytic leukemia results from cancerous production of which cells?

A. Myeloid cells

B. Lymphoid cells

C. Megakaryocytes

D. Erythroid cells

Where does lymphocytic leukemia usually begin?

A. Bone cortex

B. Renal tissue

C. Lymph nodes or tissues

D. Skeletal muscle

Where does myelogenous leukemia typically begin?

A. Lymph node

B. Bone marrow

C. Thymus

D. Spleen

After beginning in marrow, myelogenous leukemia tends to do what?

A. Remain locally confined

B. Resolve spontaneously

C. Spread throughout the body

D. Become lymphocytic

How does greater cellular immaturity affect leukemia severity?

A. Makes leukemia more acute

B. Makes leukemia less severe

C. Prevents metastatic growth

D. Eliminates infection risk

Which complication can result from leukemic cell spread?

A. Metastatic leukemic growth

B. Reduced lymphocyte formation

C. Increased platelet production

D. Improved marrow function

Why are patients with leukemia prone to infection?

A. Abnormal leukocyte production

B. Excess erythrocyte production

C. Increased platelet function

D. Elevated plasma proteins

Which hematologic complication commonly occurs in leukemia?

A. Polycythemia

B. Severe anemia

C. Thrombocytosis

D. Hyperalbuminemia

Why may leukemia produce a bleeding tendency?

A. Excess fibrinogen

B. Excess neutrophils

C. Thrombocytopenia

D. Increased erythrocytes

Leukemic cells may harm the body by excessive use of what?

A. Metabolic substrates

B. Antibodies

C. Platelets

D. Bile salts

Which granulocyte is most abundant in blood?

A. Basophil

B. Eosinophil

C. Neutrophil

D. Monocyte

Which granulocyte is least abundant in blood?

A. Neutrophil

B. Basophil

C. Eosinophil

D. Monocyte

What percentage of circulating WBCs are neutrophils?

A. 30%

B. 5.3%

C. 62%

D. 2.3%

What percentage of circulating WBCs are lymphocytes?

A. 30%

B. 62%

C. 5.3%

D. 0.4%

What percentage of circulating WBCs are monocytes?

A. 2.3%

B. 5.3%

C. 30%

D. 62%

What percentage of circulating WBCs are eosinophils?

A. 0.4%

B. 5.3%

C. 2.3%

D. 30%

What percentage of circulating WBCs are basophils?

A. 0.4%

B. 2.3%

C. 5.3%

D. 30%

Which large particle can a macrophage engulf?

A. Red blood cell

B. Platelet fragment

C. Antibody molecule

D. Plasma protein

Bactericidal oxidizing agents used by phagocytes arise from enzymes located mainly where?

A. Phagosomes and peroxisomes

B. Nuclei and ribosomes

C. Golgi and lysosomes

D. Mitochondria and nuclei

Which substances are examples of bactericidal oxidizing agents produced by phagocytes?

A. Histamine, heparin, serotonin

B. Superoxide, hydrogen peroxide, hydroxyl radicals

C. IgG, C3b, fibrinogen

D. Bradykinin, prostaglandins, lymphokines

What is another name for the monocyte-macrophage system?

A. Granulocytic system

B. Complement system

C. Reticuloendothelial system

D. Lymphocytic system

What are macrophages located in skin and subcutaneous tissue called?

A. Kupffer cells

B. Giant cells

C. Alveolar macrophages

D. Histiocytes

Kupffer cells help remove bacteria entering the circulation from which source?

A. Gastrointestinal tract

B. Respiratory tract

C. Urinary tract

D. Skin

Which tissue macrophages normally line the pulmonary alveoli?

A. Histiocytes

B. Alveolar macrophages

C. Kupffer cells

D. Giant cells

Which cells line the medullary sinuses as lymph passes through a lymph node?

A. Neutrophils

B. Eosinophils

C. Plasma cells

D. Macrophages

Compared with Streptococcus, why does Staphylococcus produce more rapid walling-off of infected tissue?

A. It causes more intense tissue destruction

B. It produces fewer inflammatory signals

C. It prevents fibrinogen clot formation

D. It causes less cellular injury

Which sequence correctly identifies the first three tissue defenses during inflammation?

A. Neutrophils → macrophages → eosinophils

B. Macrophages → neutrophils → macrophages

C. Macrophages → eosinophils → neutrophils

D. Neutrophils → monocytes → lymphocytes

During marked neutrophilia, blood neutrophils may rise from about 5,000/µL to what concentration?

A. 10,000/µL

B. 15,000/µL

C. 25,000/µL

D. 50,000/µL

Which sequence correctly describes neutrophil recruitment from blood into injured tissue?

A. Rolling → tight binding → diapedesis → migration

B. Binding → migration → rolling → diapedesis

C. Diapedesis → rolling → binding → migration

D. Migration → diapedesis → rolling → binding

During neutrophil recruitment, which molecule primarily mediates rolling along the endothelium?

A. ICAM-1

B. Selectin

C. C3b

D. Histamine

During neutrophil recruitment, ICAM-1 is especially involved in which step?

A. Chemotactic gradient formation

B. Phagosome formation

C. Tight leukocyte binding

D. Bacterial opsonization

After an infection has persisted for several weeks, which cell becomes the dominant phagocyte?

A. Neutrophil

B. Eosinophil

C. Basophil

D. Macrophage

Which cells release TNF, IL-1, and colony-stimulating factors that increase marrow leukocyte production?

A. Activated neutrophils

B. Activated macrophages

C. Activated basophils

D. Activated platelets