Immuno 2 Flashcards

What is another name for innate immunity?

A. Acquired immunity

B. Adaptive immunity

C. Native immunity

D. Humoral immunity

Which are the principal innate immune reactions?

A. Inflammation and antiviral defense

B. Antibodies and cytotoxicity

C. Memory and clonal expansion

D. Tolerance and class switching

Type I interferons primarily produce which effect?

A. Increase antibody affinity

B. Activate complement proteins

C. Promote bacterial phagocytosis

D. Block intracellular viral replication

Necrotic cells release molecules that activate innate immunity. What are these called?

A. PAMPs

B. DAMPs

C. Opsonins

D. Anaphylatoxins

Conserved microbial structures recognized by innate immunity are called what?

A. DAMPs

B. Epitopes

C. PAMPs

D. Opsonins

Which host molecules directly recognize microbial PAMPs?

A. Pattern-recognition receptors

B. Antigen-specific antibodies

C. Major histocompatibility proteins

D. T-cell coreceptors

Which toll receptor recognizes Gram-positive peptidoglycan?

Which receptor recognizes double-stranded viral RNA?

Which receptor recognizes gram-negative bacterial LPS?

Which two receptors primarily recognize single-stranded RNA?

A motile bacterium releases flagellin. Which receptor detects it?

Which receptor recognizes unmethylated microbial CpG DNA?

TLR signaling commonly activates which transcription factor?

A. NF-κB

B. STAT6

C. GATA3

D. FOXP3

NF-κB activation promotes expression of what?

A. Immunoglobulin variable regions

B. T-cell antigen receptors

C. Complement membrane proteins

D. Cytokines and adhesion molecules

Which transcription factors stimulate type I interferons?

A. Nuclear hormone receptors

B. Hypoxia-inducible factors

C. Interferon regulatory factors

D. Activator protein factors

Where do NOD-like receptors detect danger signals?

A. Plasma membrane

B. Cellular cytosol

C. Extracellular matrix

D. Nuclear membrane

NOD1 and NOD2 recognize products from what?

A. Bacterial peptidoglycan

B. Viral capsid proteins

C. Fungal membrane sterols

D. Parasitic surface glycoproteins

NOD1 and NOD2 signaling activates what?

A. Caspase-8

B. STAT3

C. NF-κB

D. FOXP3

Which cytokine induces fever and acute inflammation?

A. IL-2

B. IL-4

C. IL-10

D. IL-1

Which of the following best describes an inflammasome?

A. A nuclear transcription factor that upregulates Type I interferons

B. A cytosolic multiprotein complex that activates Caspase-1

C. A membrane-bound receptor that senses viral double-stranded RNA

D. A secreted plasma enzyme that initiates the classical complement pathway

Inflammasomes generate active forms of which cytokines?

A. IL-2 and IL-4

B. IL-5 and IL-13

C. IL-1β and IL-18

D. IL-10 and TGF-β

Which enzyme activates immature IL-1β?

A. Caspase-1

B. Caspase-8

C. Granzyme B

D. Phagocyte oxidase

_____-_____ is an inflammatory enzyme activated by multi-protein complexes called inflammasomes.

Its core functions are to convert inactive pro-inflammatory cytokines into active forms and to trigger a lytic, inflammatory form of programmed cell death known as pyroptosis.

Inflammasome-mediated inflammatory cell death is called what?

A. Necroptosis

B. Pyroptosis

C. Autophagy

D. Senescence

Which cytosolic receptors recognize viral RNA?

A. NOD1 and NOD2

B. TLR2 and TLR4

C. STING and cGAS

D. RIG-I and MDA5

RIG-I and MDA5 signaling induces what?

A. Antibody class switching

B. Complement protein synthesis

C. Type I interferon production

D. Mast-cell degranulation

Excessive cytosolic self-DNA may cause what?

A. Interferonopathy

B. Immunoglobulin deficiency

C. Complement consumption

D. Allergic sensitization

Most innate cytosolic DNA sensors engage the stimulator of IFN genes (______) pathway to induce type I IFN production

Lectins are proteins that recognize what?

A. Lipids

B. Carbohydrates

C. Nucleic acids

D. Peptide hormones

In immunology, ______ act as soluble or cell-surface pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) that differentiate between host cells and pathogens based on their surface sugar profiles.

Which receptors specifically recognize fungal glucans?

A. Dectins

B. Integrins

C. Selectins

D. Fc receptors

Formyl peptide receptor 1 (FPR1) is a pattern recognition receptor expressed primarily on the surface of innate immune cells, particularly _______ and _______.

Formyl peptide receptor 1 is expressed mainly where?

A. Plasma cells

B. Helper T cells

C. Phagocytes

D. Erythrocytes

Formyl peptide receptor 1 recognizes which molecule?

A. Unmethylated CpG DNA

B. Double-stranded RNA

C. Bacterial flagellin

D. N-formylmethionine peptides

Which macrophage activation produces inflammatory M1 cells?

A. Alternative activation

B. Classical activation

C. Regulatory activation

D. Humoral activation

Which cytokine drives classical macrophage activation?

A. IL-4

B. IL-13

C. IFN-γ

D. IL-10

Alternative macrophage activation produces which phenotype?

A. Anti-inflammatory M2 cells

B. Proinflammatory M1 cells

C. Cytotoxic lymphoid cells

D. Antibody-producing plasma cells

Which cytokines drive alternative macrophage activation?

A. IL-1 and IL-6

B. IL-2 and IFN-γ

C. IL-5 and GM-CSF

D. IL-4 and IL-13

Which cells produce helper-like cytokines without TCRs?

A. Natural killer T cells

B. Innate lymphoid cells

C. Regulatory T cells

D. Follicular helper cells

Innate lymphoid cells are found primarily where?

A. Circulating plasma

B. Bone marrow

C. Peripheral tissues

D. Thymic cortex

Which cells recognize virus-infected and stressed cells?

A. B lymphocytes

B. Plasma cells

C. Neutrophils

D. Natural killer cells

Natural killer cells activate macrophages by secreting what?

A. IFN-γ

B. IL-4

C. IL-10

D. TGF-β

How do NK cells respond to infected cells?

A. Produce high-affinity antibodies

B. Kill cells and secrete IFN-γ

C. Present antigen through MHC II

D. Form complement membrane pores

Which cytokine supports NK-cell development and maturation?

A. IL-4

B. IL-15

C. IL-17

D. IL-23

Which cytokines enhance NK-cell killing functions?

A. IL-4 and IL-13

B. IL-10 and TGF-β

C. IL-1 and IL-6

D. Type I IFNs and IL-12

Which set contains NK-activating cytokines?

A. IL-15, type I IFNs, IL-12

B. IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

C. IL-1, IL-6, TNF

D. IL-10, TGF-β, IL-35

Which activating receptor is expressed by NK cells?

A. CD28

B. CTLA-4

C. NKG2D

D. CD40

NKG2D recognizes molecules induced by what?

A. Antibody class switching

B. Complement activation

C. Cellular stress

D. Thymic selection

Which cells principally mediate antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity?

A. Natural killer cells

B. Helper T cells

C. Plasma cells

D. Dendritic cells

Which are major NK inhibitory receptor families?

A. TCRs and BCRs

B. CD28 and CTLA-4

C. FcεRI and FcγRI

D. KIRs and CD94/NKG2 receptors

A virus reduces host MHC I expression. Which cell can still kill it?

A. Helper T cell

B. Natural killer cell

C. Plasma cell

D. Regulatory T cell

Which complement pathway activates spontaneously on microbial surfaces?

A. Alternative pathway

B. Classical pathway

C. Lectin pathway

D. Terminal pathway

Why is alternative complement activation sustained on microbes?

A. Microbes secrete complement proteins

B. Microbes express antibody receptors

C. Microbes lack regulatory proteins

D. Microbes contain host MHC

Which complement pathway is usually antibody initiated?

A. Alternative pathway

B. Classical pathway

C. Lectin pathway

D. Terminal pathway

Which pathway begins when MBL binds microbial carbohydrates?

A. Classical pathway

B. Alternative pathway

C. Terminal pathway

D. Lectin pathway

Which complement protein is the major opsonin?

A. C3a

B. C5a

C. C5b

D. C3b

Which fragments promote inflammation and leukocyte recruitment?

A. C3b and C5b

B. C3a and C5a

C. C1q and C2a

D. C5b and C9

Which acute-phase protein indicates systemic inflammation?

A. Fibrinogen

B. Albumin

C. C-reactive protein

D. Transferrin

Which functions are performed by C-reactive protein?

A. Opsonization and classical complement activation

B. Antibody secretion and neutralization

C. Cytotoxicity and perforin release

D. Histamine release and vasodilation

Which cytokines are classified as type I interferons?

At high concentrations, TNF promotes which endothelial event?

A. Reduced leukocyte adhesion

B. Increased antibody transport

C. Decreased coagulation

D. Thrombus formation

How can excessive TNF reduce blood pressure?

A. Vasodilation, leakage, myocardial depression

B. Vasoconstriction and increased contractility

C. Bradycardia and renal vasoconstriction

D. Reduced permeability and thrombosis

Defective integrins and selectin ligands cause what?

A. Chronic granulomatous disease

B. Severe combined immunodeficiency

C. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

D. Complement component deficiency

What reaction is catalyzed by macrophage iNOS?

A. Arginine to nitric oxide

B. Oxygen to superoxide

C. Histidine to histamine

D. Tyrosine to dopamine

Phagocyte oxidase deficiency causes which disorder?

A. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

B. Chediak-Higashi syndrome

C. Chronic granulomatous disease

D. Severe combined immunodeficiency

Which cells secrete antiviral cytokines after sensing viral nucleic acids?

A. Classical dendritic cells

B. Follicular dendritic cells

C. Langerhans cells

D. Plasmacytoid dendritic cells

What is another name for B7-1?

A. CD28

B. CD80

C. CD86

D. CD40

What is another name for B7-2?

A. CD40

B. CD80

C. CD28

D. CD86

B7-1 and B7-2 are surface proteins on immune cells that help activate ___ cells

Which one comes earlier: B7-1 or B7-2?

_______ macrophages secrete anti-inflammatory cytokines (e.g., IL-10, TGF-beta) and produce proline and polyamines via arginase-1 to promote tissue repair, wound healing, fibrosis, and defense against helminth parasites.

_______ macrophages produce pro-inflammatory cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha) and reactive oxygen species (ROS) to kill intracellular pathogens.