In the environment, an endemic dimorphic fungus grows in which form?
A. Encapsulated budding yeast
B. Intracellular
endospores
C. Filamentous septate hyphae
D. Nonseptate
tissue spherules
C. Filamentous septate hyphae
The environmental growth form of a dimorphic fungus is called which phase?
A. Saprobic phase
B. Parasitic phase
C. Latent
phase
D. Disseminated phase
A. Saprobic phase
Where is the saprobic phase typically found?
A. Human macrophages
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. Pulmonary
granulomas
D. Soil or decaying vegetation
D. Soil or decaying vegetation
After entering a human host, a dimorphic fungus transitions into which phase?
A. Sporulating phase
B. Parasitic phase
C. Saprobic
phase
D. Teleomorphic phase
B. Parasitic phase
The parasitic phase of endemic fungi grows optimally at which temperature?
A. 25°C
B. 30°C
C. 37°C
D. 42°C
C. 37°C
How does the parasitic phase reproduce?
A. Asexually
B. Sexually
C. By conjugation
D. By
meiosis only
A. Asexually
Why does conversion into larger yeast benefit dimorphic fungi?
A. It improves environmental sporulation
B. It increases
airborne transmission
C. It provides a survival advantage
D.
It prevents thermal conversion
C. It provides a survival advantage
Histoplasmosis is classically endemic to which regions?
A. California and Arizona
B. Great Lakes
C. Latin
America
D. Mississippi and Ohio Valleys
D. Mississippi and Ohio Valleys
A pulmonary fungal infection occurs near the Great Lakes. Which endemic mycosis is most likely?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C.
Coccidioidomycosis
D. Paracoccidioidomycosis
B. Blastomycosis
Blastomycosis is endemic primarily in which area?
A. Eastern and Central United States
B. Southwestern United
States
C. Mississippi Delta only
D. Central and South America
A. Eastern and Central United States
A patient from Arizona develops a pulmonary fungal infection. Which disease is most likely?
A. Blastomycosis
B. Histoplasmosis
C.
Paracoccidioidomycosis
D. Coccidioidomycosis
D. Coccidioidomycosis
Coccidioidomycosis is endemic to which region?
A. Great Lakes region
B. Southwestern United States
C.
Mississippi River Valley
D. Northeastern United States
B. Southwestern United States
Which state is particularly associated with coccidioidomycosis?
A. California
B. Ohio
C. Michigan
D. Maine
A. California
Paracoccidioidomycosis is endemic primarily to which region?
A. Eastern Europe
B. Southern Africa
C. Latin
America
D. Southeast Asia
C. Latin America
Coccidioidomycosis characteristically may disseminate to which tissues?
A. Liver and pancreas
B. Bone and skin
C. Retina and
cornea
D. Thyroid and adrenal glands
B. Bone and skin
A patient with coccidioidomycosis develops tender red leg nodules. Which finding is present?
A. Erythema nodosum
B. Kaposi sarcoma
C. Tinea
corporis
D. Ecthyma gangrenosum
A. Erythema nodosum
Which additional inflammatory rash may accompany coccidioidomycosis?
A. Erythema migrans
B. Pityriasis rosea
C. Erythema
multiforme
D. Livedo reticularis
C. Erythema multiforme
Joint pain accompanying coccidioidomycosis is termed what?
A. Myalgia
B. Arthralgia
C. Neuralgia
D. Pleuritis
B. Arthralgia
Disseminated coccidioidomycosis may cause which serious CNS complication?
A. Encephalomalacia
B. Myelitis
C. Brain abscess
D. Meningitis
D. Meningitis
A tissue biopsy shows multiple buds surrounding a large yeast. Which organism is suggested?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Blastomyces
dermatitidis
C. Paracoccidioides species
D.
Coccidioides immitis
C. Paracoccidioides species
The characteristic budding pattern of Paracoccidioides is called what?
A. Captain’s wheel
B. Broad-based budding
C. Pilot
wheel
D. Rosette conidia
A. Captain’s wheel
How does Paracoccidioides yeast compare with erythrocytes?
A. Smaller than erythrocytes
B. Similar in size
C.
Slightly smaller
D. Much larger
D. Much larger
BAD1 is an important virulence factor of which fungus?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Blastomyces
dermatitidis
C. Coccidioides immitis
D.
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
B. Blastomyces dermatitidis
BAD1 promotes adhesion of blastomyces yeast to which cells?
A. Macrophages
B. Erythrocytes
C. Keratinocytes
D. Neutrophils
A. Macrophages
Macrophage adhesion mediated by BAD1 helps produce what?
A. Capsule formation
B. Arthroconidia production
C. Host
immune response
D. Hyphal extension
C. Host immune response
BAD1 suppresses production of which inflammatory cytokine?
A. IL-4
B. IFN-γ
C. IL-10
D. TNF-α
D. TNF-α
High surface expression of BAD1 is associated with what cell-wall finding?
A. Thick β-glucan layer
B. Thin 1,3-α-glucan layer
C.
Absent chitin layer
D. Thick ergosterol membrane
B. Thin 1,3-α-glucan layer
What relationship exists between BAD1 and 1,3-α-glucan?
A. Direct relationship
B. No relationship
C. Inverse
relationship
D. Cyclic relationship
C. Inverse relationship
The outer wall of Coccidioides immitis contains which proteins?
A. Cysteine-rich hydrophobins
B. Histidine-rich
adhesins
C. Glycine-rich porins
D. Proline-rich enzymes
A. Cysteine-rich hydrophobins
Hydrophobins are located primarily in which fungal structure?
A. Nuclear membrane
B. Inner mitochondrial wall
C.
Endospore cytoplasm
D. Outer cell wall
D. Outer cell wall
What is the principal virulence function of coccidioidal hydrophobins?
A. Promote binary fission
B. Resist phagocytosis
C.
Produce ammonia
D. Digest collagen
B. Resist phagocytosis
The saprobic form of Coccidioides occupies which environmental niche?
A. Decaying hardwood
B. Bird droppings
C. Alkaline
desert soil
D. Freshwater vegetation
C. Alkaline desert soil
Which pulmonary cells readily ingest coccidioidal endospores?
A. Alveolar macrophages
B. Type I pneumocytes
C.
Bronchial goblet cells
D. Pulmonary fibroblasts
A. Alveolar macrophages
What happens after coccidioidal endospores are phagocytosed?
A. They are immediately destroyed
B. They undergo
extracellular budding
C. They form bacterial endospores
D.
They survive intracellularly
D. They survive intracellularly
Which enzyme hydrolyzes urea during coccidioidal infection?
A. Catalase
B. Urease
C. Elastase
D. Coagulase
B. Urease
Urease initially converts urea into which products?
A. Ammonia and carbamate
B. Carbon dioxide and
nitrate
C. Uric acid and ammonium
D. Citrate and bicarbonate
A. Ammonia and carbamate
Carbamate breakdown ultimately generates additional amounts of what?
A. Sulfate
B. Lactate
C. Ammonia
D. Pyruvate
C. Ammonia
Maximum coccidioidal urease protein is found in which structure?
A. Mature arthroconidia
B. Germinating hyphae
C. Resting
spherules
D. Endosporulating spherules
D. Endosporulating spherules
Peak ammonia production correlates with which fungal stage?
A. Endosporulating developmental stage
B. Environmental
hyphal stage
C. Dormant conidial stage
D. Early attachment stage
A. Endosporulating developmental stage
The association of urease and ammonia is strongest during which process?
A. Yeast budding
B. Endospore development
C. Clamp
formation
D. Hyphal fragmentation
B. Endospore development
What substrates can the coccidioidal alkaline proteinase digest?
A. Viral nucleic acids
B. Fungal ergosterol
C. Bacterial
peptidoglycan
D. Structural proteins
D. Structural proteins
During what portion of coccidioidal disease is the alkaline proteinase believed to be secreted?
A. Initial exposure
B. Entire disease course
C.
Dissemination
D. Convalescence
B. Entire disease course
A patient develops pulmonary coccidioidomycosis after exposure to desert dust. What is the usual mode of infection?
A. Ingestion of environmental spherules
B. Inhalation of
arthroconidia
C. Traumatic implantation of yeast
D. Mosquito
inoculation of conidia
B. Inhalation of arthroconidia
Which environmental fungal particle initiates human infection with Coccidioides immitis?
A. Budding yeast cells
B. Intracellular endospores
C.
Mature tissue spherules
D. Environmental arthroconidia
D. Environmental arthroconidia
After inhalation, the yeast phase of Histoplasma capsulatum primarily resides within which cells?
A. Macrophages
B. Neutrophils
C. Keratinocytes
D.
Alveolar epithelial cells
A. Macrophages
Histoplasma capsulatum avoids innate immune activation by concealing which immunostimulatory cell-wall component?
A. Chitin
B. Galactomannan
C. β-glucans
D. Ergosterol
C. β-glucans
Which receptor is primarily responsible for detecting fungal β-glucans?
A. Dectin-1
B. TLR4
C. CD14
D. Mannose receptor
A. Dectin-1
Concealment of β-glucans allows H. capsulatum to avoid activation of which receptor?
A. CCR5
B. CD4
C. TLR2
D. Dectin-1
D. Dectin-1
Following phagocytosis, which phagolysosomal change promotes intracellular survival of H. capsulatum?
A. Decreased oxygen concentration
B. Increased phagolysosomal
pH
C. Increased lysosomal acidity
D. Decreased intracellular calcium
B. Increased phagolysosomal pH
The pH modification used by H. capsulatum occurs within which intracellular compartment?
A. Nucleus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C.
Phagolysosome
D. Golgi apparatus
C. Phagolysosome
Intracellular iron is limited within macrophages. How does H. capsulatum acquire this nutrient?
A. Degrading host hemoglobin
B. Producing iron-binding
siderophores
C. Importing host ferritin directly
D.
Activating host transferrin receptors
B. Producing iron-binding siderophores
The siderophores produced by H. capsulatum primarily chelate which form of iron?
A. Ferric iron
B. Ferrous iron
C. Elemental iron
D.
Heme-bound iron
A. Ferric iron
What results when fungal siderophores bind ferric iron?
A. Insoluble iron precipitates
B. Host ferritin is
destroyed
C. Iron enters fungal nuclei
D. Soluble iron
complexes form
D. Soluble iron complexes form
How does surface α-glucan promote H. capsulatum virulence?
A. It stimulates neutrophil migration
B. It increases fungal
sporulation
C. It prevents immune recognition
D. It promotes
phagolysosomal acidification
C. It prevents immune recognition
Certain strains of H. capsulatum naturally lacking α-glucan are found in which region?
A. North America
B. South America
C. Southeast
Asia
D. Southern Africa
A. North America
A patient with disseminated paracoccidioidomycosis develops painful oral ulcers. Which manifestation is characteristic of this disease?
A. Isolated nail destruction
B. Black palmar macules
C.
Mucosal lesions
D. Diffuse scalp alopecia
C. Mucosal lesions
Disseminated paracoccidioidomycosis most often produces mucosal lesions at which sites?
A. Eyes, ears, and scalp
B. Bladder, urethra, and
kidney
C. Esophagus, stomach, and colon
D. Mouth, nose,
sometimes gastrointestinal tract
D. Mouth, nose, sometimes gastrointestinal tract
Which group contains the four principal polysaccharides in the Paracoccidioides brasiliensis cell wall?
A. Cellulose, mannan, dextran, glycogen
B. Galactomannan,
α-glucan, β-glucan, chitin
C. Chitosan, cellulose, starch,
glycogen
D. Peptidoglycan, chitin, mannan, cellulose
B. Galactomannan, α-glucan, β-glucan, chitin
Which P. brasiliensis cell-wall component is expressed only during the yeast phase?
A. Galactomannan
B. Chitin
C. 1,3-β-glucan
D. 1,3-α-glucan
D. 1,3-α-glucan
Expression of yeast-phase 1,3-α-glucan in P. brasiliensis correlates with what?
A. Increased virulence
B. Reduced thermal tolerance
C.
Decreased tissue adhesion
D. Increased sexual reproduction
A. Increased virulence
The gp43 antigen of P. brasiliensis binds which host extracellular matrix protein?
A. Fibronectin
B. Collagen IV
C. Laminin-1
D. Elastin
C. Laminin-1
Binding of laminin-1 by gp43 may promote adhesion of P. brasiliensis to which structure?
A. Vascular endothelium
B. Host basement membrane
C.
Erythrocyte membranes
D. Pulmonary surfactant
B. Host basement membrane
Which organism is the most common opportunistic fungal pathogen?
A. Candida
B. Coccidioides
C.
Blastomyces
D. Paracoccidioides
A. Candida
Endogenous candidiasis often originates from colonization of which site?
A. Respiratory alveoli
B. Keratinized nail plates
C.
Subcutaneous connective tissue
D. Gastrointestinal mucosa
D. Gastrointestinal mucosa
Candida albicans hyphae can follow surface grooves and penetrate pores. What is this growth response called?
A. Chemotropism
B. Thigmotropism
C. Phototropism
D. Thermotropism
B. Thigmotropism
What pathogenic advantage does Candida hyphal thigmotropism provide?
A. Increased spore production
B. Resistance to antifungal
drugs
C. Infiltration of epithelial surfaces
D. Avoidance of
thermal conversion
C. Infiltration of epithelial surfaces
When grown at 20°C, Candida albicans typically demonstrates which forms?
A. Budding yeasts and pseudohyphae
B. Germ tubes and
spherules
C. Arthroconidia and sporangia
D. Capsules and
clamp connections
A. Budding yeasts and pseudohyphae
Incubating Candida albicans at 37°C promotes formation of which structure?
A. Sporangiospores
B. Germ tubes
C. Clamp
connections
D. Endospores
B. Germ tubes
Which surface property characterizes C. albicans germ tubes?
A. Hydrophobic
B. Hydrophilic
C. Negatively
charged
D. Heavily encapsulated
A. Hydrophobic
Which surface property characterizes Candida blastoconidia?
A. Hydrophobic
B. Lipid soluble
C. Hydrophilic
D.
Acid resistant
C. Hydrophilic
Which two enzymes are primarily secreted by Candida?
A. Catalase and urease
B. Aspartyl proteinases and
phospholipases
C. Phenoloxidase and coagulase
D. Elastase
and collagenase
B. Aspartyl proteinases and phospholipases
Candida can rapidly alternate between budding yeast, pseudohyphae, and hyphae. What is this ability called?
A. Phenotype switching
B. Antigenic drift
C. Thermal
inactivation
D. Heterologous interference
A. Phenotype switching
Phenotype switching is an important virulence property of which organism?
A. Candida albicans
B. Cryptococcus
neoformans
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D.
Coccidioides immitis
A. Candida albicans
Which description best characterizes Cryptococcus neoformans?
A. Nonencapsulated filamentous mold
B. Heavily encapsulated
yeast
C. Intracellular dimorphic fungus
D. Nonseptate
environmental mold
B. Heavily encapsulated yeast
How is Cryptococcus neoformans usually acquired?
A. Traumatic skin implantation
B. Contaminated food
ingestion
C. Arthropod inoculation
D. Inhalation of
aerosolized organisms
D. Inhalation of aerosolized organisms
After pulmonary acquisition, C. neoformans commonly spreads through which route?
A. Retrograde axonal transport
B. Direct tissue
extension
C. Lymphatic obstruction
D. Hematogenous dissemination
D. Hematogenous dissemination
Hematogenous cryptococcal dissemination shows a particular tropism for which site?
A. Nail beds
B. Intestinal villi
C. Meninges
D.
Skeletal muscles
C. Meninges
The cryptococcal capsule impairs host defense by interfering with which process?
A. Complement synthesis
B. Neutrophil production
C.
Antigen presentation
D. Antibody class switching
C. Antigen presentation
The capsule of C. neoformans limits host-cell production of which antimicrobial molecule?
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Hypochlorous acid
C. Superoxide
dismutase
D. Nitric oxide
D. Nitric oxide
Which fungal enzyme catalyzes melanin production?
A. Phospholipase
B. Aspartyl proteinase
C.
Phenoloxidase
D. Urease
C. Phenoloxidase
The alpha-mating phenotype of C. neoformans is associated with which gene?
A. BAD1
B. STE12alpha
C. Dectin-1
D. gp43
B. STE12alpha
Which disease is the most common invasive mold infection worldwide?
A. Cryptococcosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Mucormycosis
D. Aspergillosis
D. Aspergillosis
Which Aspergillus toxin suppresses both macrophage and T-cell functions?
A. Aflatoxin
B. Endotoxin
C. Gliotoxin
D. Ergotamine
C. Gliotoxin
Gliotoxin directly inhibits which macrophage function?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Antigen synthesis
C. Antibody
secretion
D. Histamine release
A. Phagocytosis
In addition to macrophage inhibition, gliotoxin suppresses which lymphocyte activities?
A. B-cell class switching
B. T-cell activation and
proliferation
C. NK-cell antibody production
D. Neutrophil
maturation and migration
B. T-cell activation and proliferation
Aspergillus fumigatus can adhere to which two host molecules?
A. Collagen and elastin
B. Fibronectin and keratin
C.
Chitin and glucan
D. Fibrinogen and laminin
B. Fibronectin and keratin
The laminin bound by A. fumigatus is located in which pulmonary structure?
A. Bronchial mucus layer
B. Pulmonary surfactant
C.
Alveolar basement membrane
D. Pleural connective tissue
C. Alveolar basement membrane
Which hematologic abnormality is strongly associated with invasive aspergillosis?
A. Neutropenia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Thrombocytosis
D. Polycythemia
A. Neutropenia
Why does profound neutropenia predispose patients to invasive aspergillosis?
A. Neutrophils activate fungal growth
B. Neutrophils produce
fungal capsules
C. Neutrophils normally damage hyphae
D.
Neutrophils generate fungal spores
C. Neutrophils normally damage hyphae
Aspergillus possesses which hydrogen peroxide–degrading enzyme?
A. Coagulase
B. Urease
C. Catalase
D. Phenoloxidase
C. Catalase
Catalase acts on hydrogen peroxide to produce which effect?
A. Increased fungal pigmentation
B. Enhanced T-cell
activation
C. Increased hydrogen peroxide
D. Hydrogen
peroxide degradation
D. Hydrogen peroxide degradation
Which medications can increase susceptibility to invasive Aspergillus growth?
A. Antihistamines
B. Corticosteroids
C. Beta
blockers
D. Antacids
B. Corticosteroids
Most mycotoxicoses result from which exposure?
A. Eating contaminated foods
B. Inhaling fungal
hyphae
C. Traumatic spore implantation
D. Person-to-person transmission
A. Eating contaminated foods
Aflatoxin exposure most commonly originates from which foods?
A. Stored grains and nuts
B. Fresh fruits and
vegetables
C. Undercooked meat and fish
D. Unpasteurized
milk products
A. Stored grains and nuts
Which fungal genus commonly produces aflatoxins?
A. Candida
B. Aspergillus
C.
Cryptococcus
D. Pneumocystis
B. Aspergillus
Chronic dietary aflatoxin exposure increases the risk of which malignancy?
A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
C.
Hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Colorectal adenocarcinoma
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Which environmental reservoir is strongly associated with Cryptococcus neoformans?
A. Pigeon-dropping–enriched soil
B. Alkaline desert
soil
C. Decaying rose thorns
D. Stored grains and nuts
A. Pigeon-dropping–enriched soil
Which group contains the four recognized primary endemic fungal pathogens?
A. Candida, Cryptococcus, Aspergillus, Mucor
B. Histoplasma,
Candida, Rhizopus, Fusarium
C. Blastomyces, Coccidioides,
Histoplasma, Paracoccidioides
D. Aspergillus, Coccidioides,
Candida, Cryptococcus
C. Blastomyces, Coccidioides, Histoplasma, Paracoccidioides
Blastomyces, Coccidioides, Histoplasma, and Paracoccidioides belong primarily to which fungal phylum?
A. Ascomycota
B. Basidiomycota
C. Mucoromycota
D. Microsporidia
A. Ascomycota
The four classic endemic fungal pathogens share which growth property?
A. Obligately intracellular growth
B. Exclusive yeast
morphology
C. Nonseptate hyphal growth
D. Thermal dimorphism
D. Thermal dimorphism
Which organisms are generally opportunistic fungal pathogens?
A. Blastomyces, Histoplasma, Coccidioides
B. Candida,
Cryptococcus, Aspergillus
C. Paracoccidioides, Histoplasma,
Blastomyces
D. Coccidioides, Fusarium, Histoplasma
B. Candida, Cryptococcus, Aspergillus
Opportunistic fungi commonly cause infection after which event?
A. Development of strong Th1 immunity
B. Skin or mucosal
barrier disruption
C. Increased neutrophil production
D.
Formation of antifungal antibodies
B. Skin or mucosal barrier disruption
Besides barrier damage, what predisposes patients to opportunistic fungal disease?
A. Excessive antibody production
B. Increased complement
activation
C. Enhanced epithelial turnover
D. Defective
innate immunity
D. Defective innate immunity
Which ability is crucial for survival of endemic dimorphic fungi?
A. Formation of bacterial endospores
B. Transformation at
body temperature
C. Growth only below 20°C
D. Permanent
environmental sporulation
B. Transformation at body temperature
After thermal transformation, endemic fungi must replicate to colonize which tissue?
A. Intestinal epithelium
B. Keratinized skin
C. Genital
mucosa
D. Respiratory mucosa
D. Respiratory mucosa
After reaching the alveoli, Blastomyces conidia transform into what?
A. Larger yeast cells
B. Tissue arthroconidia
C.
Encapsulated spherules
D. Septate environmental hyphae
A. Larger yeast cells
The temperature-dependent transformation of Blastomyces is termed what?
A. Phenotype switching
B. Antigenic variation
C. Thermal
dimorphism
D. Heterologous interference
C. Thermal dimorphism
A BAD1-knockout Blastomyces strain would most likely show what?
A. Reduced virulence
B. Increased virulence
C. Increased
spore production
D. Enhanced macrophage adhesion
A. Reduced virulence
Which immune response provides better protection against Blastomyces?
A. Th2 response
B. Treg response
C. Humoral response
only
D. Th1 response
D. Th1 response
A dominant Th2 response to Blastomyces is associated with what?
A. Chronic infection
B. Rapid fungal clearance
C.
Sterilizing immunity
D. Reduced tissue damage
A. Chronic infection
In the saprobic phase, Coccidioides conidia have which surface property?
A. Hydrophilic
B. Hydrophobic
C. Strongly acidic
D.
Heavily encapsulated
B. Hydrophobic
What consequence results from hydrophobic Coccidioides conidia?
A. They aerosolize readily
B. They remain water-bound
C.
They lose infectivity rapidly
D. They remain inside soil roots
A. They aerosolize readily
Hydrophobic surface molecules also help Coccidioides avoid what?
A. Antibody production
B. Complement synthesis
C.
Thermal conversion
D. Phagocytosis
D. Phagocytosis
The saprobic form of Coccidioides inhabits which environment?
A. Acidic forest soil
B. Bird-dropping–enriched soil
C.
Decaying river vegetation
D. Alkaline desert soil
D. Alkaline desert soil
Coccidioides creates what local chemical environment around itself?
A. Acidic halo
B. Alkaline halo
C. Hypoxic halo
D.
Iron-depleted halo
B. Alkaline halo
Which enzyme generates the protective alkaline environment?
A. Catalase
B. Phenoloxidase
C. Urease
D. Phospholipase
C. Urease
The alkaline halo helps Coccidioides resist which host cells?
A. Macrophages
B. Erythrocytes
C. Platelets
D. B lymphocytes
A. Macrophages
Coccidioides proteinases can digest which structural proteins?
A. Keratin and fibrinogen
B. Actin and myosin
C. Tubulin
and laminin
D. Collagen and elastin
D. Collagen and elastin
Which blood protein can be degraded by Coccidioides proteinases?
A. Albumin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Transferrin
D. Fibrinogen
B. Hemoglobin
Which immunoglobulins are cleaved by Coccidioides proteinases?
A. IgM and IgE
B. IgD and IgM
C. IgG and IgA
D. IgE
and IgD
C. IgG and IgA
Degradation of collagen, immunoglobulins, and hemoglobin promotes what?
A. Survival on host mucosa
B. Environmental spore
formation
C. Sexual fungal reproduction
D. Production of
clamp connections
A. Survival on host mucosa
After inhaled Histoplasma conidia enter tissue, which form survives primarily inside host macrophages?
A. Septate hyphae
B. Small yeast cells
C.
Endospore-filled spherules
D. Encapsulated blastoconidia
B. Small yeast cells
Intracellular H. capsulatum resists phagocyte killing partly by producing which factors?
A. Host cytokine receptors
B. Bacterial capsule
proteins
C. Antibody-cleaving ribosomes
D. Oxidative-stress
defense enzymes
D. Oxidative-stress defense enzymes
H. capsulatum manipulates its intracellular compartment toward which condition?
A. Nearly neutral pH
B. Strongly acidic pH
C. Strongly
alkaline pH
D. Complete lysosomal rupture
A. Nearly neutral pH
Which compartment has its pH modified by intracellular Histoplasma?
A. Mitochondrion
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C.
Phagolysosome
D. Host-cell nucleus
C. Phagolysosome
Why does maintaining a less acidic phagolysosome benefit H. capsulatum?
A. It promotes sexual reproduction
B. It enhances
intracellular survival
C. It produces airborne conidia
D.
It activates macrophage killing
B. It enhances intracellular survival
Virulence-associated 1,3-α-glucan occurs in Blastomyces and most strains of which fungus?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Cryptococcus
neoformans
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D.
Candida albicans
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
Which host cells commonly ingest P. brasiliensis yeast?
A. Neutrophils
B. Keratinocytes
C. Erythrocytes
D. Macrophages
D. Macrophages
Symptomatic adult paracoccidioidomycosis is markedly more common in which sex?
A. Females
B. Males
C. Both equally
B. Males
What helps protect adult women from paracoccidioidomycosis?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone
D. Cortisol
A. Estrogen
Which antigen is secreted by the yeast phase of P. brasiliensis?
A. BAD1
B. gp43
C. SOWgp
D. Gliotoxin
B. gp43
Which description best characterizes Cryptococcus neoformans?
A. Heavily encapsulated yeast
B. Nonseptate filamentous
mold
C. Intracellular dimorphic fungus
D. Endospore-forming spherule
A. Heavily encapsulated yeast
Which population is at greatest risk for severe cryptococcosis?
A. Immunocompromised patients
B. Healthy young
athletes
C. Patients with hypertension
D. Individuals with
iron deficiency
A. Immunocompromised patients
Which cells form the first pulmonary defense against inhaled Cryptococcus?
A. Circulating B lymphocytes
B. Alveolar macrophages
C.
Intestinal macrophages
D. Epidermal dendritic cells
B. Alveolar macrophages
Which recruited cells provide another innate defense against cryptococcosis?
A. Inflammatory phagocytic cells
B. Resting
erythrocytes
C. Intestinal epithelial cells
D.
Platelet-derived cells
A. Inflammatory phagocytic cells
Which adaptive defenses contribute to cryptococcal control?
A. T-cell and B-cell responses
B. Erythrocyte and platelet
responses
C. Fibroblast and keratinocyte responses
D.
Osteoblast and chondrocyte responses
A. T-cell and B-cell responses
What is the principal protective function of the cryptococcal capsule?
A. Accelerate yeast budding
B. Produce fungal melanin
C.
Resist host phagocytosis
D. Bind alveolar laminin
C. Resist host phagocytosis
Besides resisting phagocytosis, the cryptococcal capsule helps the fungus do what?
A. Evade broader immune responses
B. Produce airborne
arthroconidia
C. Invade blood vessels directly
D. Digest
host collagen
A. Evade broader immune responses
Which pulmonary cells normally ingest and kill Aspergillus conidia?
A. Neutrophils
B. Alveolar macrophages
C. B
lymphocytes
D. Type I pneumocytes
B. Alveolar macrophages
After Aspergillus conidia germinate, which cells primarily attack the resulting hyphae?
A. Neutrophils
B. Erythrocytes
C. Plasma cells
D.
Mast cells
A. Neutrophils
Why are neutrophils particularly important in invasive aspergillosis?
A. They prevent conidial inhalation
B. They generate fungal
antibodies
C. They adhere to and kill hyphae
D. They inhibit
macrophage recruitment
C. They adhere to and kill hyphae
Hyphae escaping immune killing may invade which pulmonary structures?
A. Bronchial mucus and vasculature
B. Pulmonary tissue and
vasculature
C. Pleural fluid and pulmonary mucus
B. Pulmonary tissue and vasculature
Vascular invasion by Aspergillus can directly cause what?
A. Thrombosis
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hemolysis
D. Bronchospasm
A. Thrombosis
Occlusion of invaded pulmonary vessels may produce which local consequence?
A. Tissue necrosis
B. Increased mucus clearance
C.
Alveolar hyperplasia
D. Pulmonary calcification
A. Tissue necrosis
After entering pulmonary blood vessels, Aspergillus may spread by which route?
A. Retrograde axonal transport
B. Direct mucosal
extension
C. Hematogenous dissemination
D. Fecal-oral transmission
C. Hematogenous dissemination
Which organ is an important target of disseminated invasive aspergillosis?
A. Brain
B. Thyroid
C. Gallbladder
D. Appendix
A. Brain
A. fumigatus conidia bind which soluble host protein?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Albumin
D. Transferrin
B. Fibrinogen
A. fumigatus also binds which basement-membrane protein?
A. Laminin
B. Keratin
C. Actin
D. Myosin
A. Laminin
The laminin bound by A. fumigatus is located primarily where?
A. Alveolar basement membrane
B. Bronchial mucus layer
C.
Pulmonary surfactant
D. Pleural cavity
A. Alveolar basement membrane
Binding fibrinogen and laminin provides Aspergillus with which advantage?
A. Enhanced pulmonary adherence
B. Increased toxin
ingestion
C. Reduced conidial germination
D. Improved sexual reproduction
A. Enhanced pulmonary adherence
Chronic granulomatous disease strongly predisposes patients to which fungal infection?
A. Dermatophytosis
B. Invasive aspergillosis
C. Tinea
versicolor
D. Tinea nigra
B. Invasive aspergillosis
What immune defect underlies chronic granulomatous disease?
A. NADPH oxidase deficiency
B. Complete neutrophil
absence
C. Antibody class-switching failure
D. Terminal
complement deficiency
A. NADPH oxidase deficiency
NADPH oxidase deficiency primarily impairs production of what?
A. Reactive oxygen species
B. Antiviral antibodies
C.
Complement proteins
D. Histamine granules
A. Reactive oxygen species
The increased Aspergillus risk in CGD reflects defective function of which cells?
A. Phagocytes
B. Erythrocytes
C. Hepatocytes
D. Fibroblasts
A. Phagocytes