WCC Quiz 6 Flashcards


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1

A 22 YO male pt. presents w/a superficial abrasion on his forearm. The wound is clean, dry, & free of any signs of infection. Which of the following products is indicated for this wound?

Hydrogel dressing

Honey based dressing

Transparent film dressing

Dry gauze dressing

Transparent film dressing

* This dressing is ideal for a clean, dry superficial abrasion. It provides protection, maintains & moist wound environment conducive to healing, and allows continuous vilsualization of the wound w/out disturbming the healing tissue.

2

For a patient w/an ischemic ulcer, what is the best treatment option?

Topical agents only

Amputation

Systemic antibiotics & Topical agents

Systemic antiobiotics only

Systemic antibiotics & Topical agents

* Because arterial macrovascular insufficiency limits perfusion & reduces delivery of WBCs to the wound, bacteria can proliferate unchecked. Although systemic abx are frequently prescribed, their effectiveness is compromised by poor blood flow; therapeutic concentrations may not reach the ischemic tissue. Therefore, combining systemic antibiotics w/topical antimicrobial agents is essential to manage bioburden effectively.

3

Which ulcer tends to be painful w/minimal drainage.

Ischemic ulcer

4

In what context would the use of multimedia educational tools be most appropriate when educating patients and families?

Patient who are easily distracted

Pt.s w/limited literacy skills

Pt.s w/extensive knowledge of wound care

Pts. who prefer not to engage w/educational materials

Pt.s w/limited literacy skills

* These tools convey information visually or auditorily, helping pts. better understand wound care instructions when they struggle w/written materials.

5

You are providing wound care for a 22 YO female pt. with a burn wound who is receiving enzymatic debridement therapy. Which outcome would be most directly indicate an improvement in the wound condition?

Increased blistering around the wound edges

Wound appearance becomes drier & less prone to infection

Enzymatic degradion of necrotic tissue

Reduced sensation around the wound area

Enzymatic degradion of necrotic tissue

* The primary goal of enzymatic debridement therapy is to remove nectrotic tissue & promote wound healing. ~ The presence of enzymatic breakdown of nectrotic tissue directly indicates that the treatment is effective.

6

Examples of enzymatic debriding agents:

Collagenase ; Papain; Bromelain

7

This enzymatic debriding agent is the most widely used agent, derived from Clostridium histolyticum, which specifically targets and breaks down collagen in necrotic tissue.

Collagenase

8

This enzymatic debriding agent is a proteolytic enzyme derived from papaya that digests non-viable protein tissue, frequently formulated with urea and chlorophyllin.

Papain

9

This enzymatic debriding agent is a plant-derived enzyme often utilized in specialized burn management to dissolve thick eschar

Bromelain

10

A new NP (Practitioner) at your clinic is cnfulsed about the selction criteria for different debridement techniques. What is the appropriate approach to educate the NP on when to use enzymatic debridement?

Enzymatic debridement should be reserved for use only after trying sharp debridement methods

Enzymatic debridement should be used mainly for infected wounds w/heavy exudate

Enzymatic debridement is used primarily for dry necrotic wounds

Enzymatic debridement is preferred for patient who cannot tolerate surgical debridement

Enzymatic debridement is preferred for patient who cannot tolerate surgical debridement

* This type of debridement is especially useful in pt.s that are poor candidates for surgical/sharp debridement, or with bleeding disorders, anticoagulation, pain sensitivity, or other comorbidities that increase surgical risk.

11

A wound care NP is asked to perform a wound dressing change on a patient who has developed a new diabetic foot ulcer (DFU). Before proceeding, what should the NP confirm to remain w/in their legal scope of practice?

Wait until a physician completes a thorough examination of the wound

Verify that the dressing change alligns w/the established wound care plan

Confirm a physician's direct supervision for the dressing change

Ensure that a colleague is present for assistance

Verify that the dressing change alligns w/the established wound care plan

* The Care plan is the guiding document that outlines treatment protocols & ensures practice within the NP's legal scope. ~ A wound care NP generally has the autority to change wound dressings independently when the procedure falls within the pts. individualized wound care plan.

12

When should a wound care specialist consider referring a pt. w/a DFU to a vascular surgeon?

When there is no significant improvement after four weeks of standard care

When an infection is suspected

Once the wound has healed completely

When the patient is diagnosed w/the ulcer

When there is no significant improvement after four weeks of standard care

* Referral to vascular surgeon is recommended if there is no significant improvement in a diabetic foot ulcer after 4 weeks of comprehensive wound management.

13

A palpable pulse in the foot indicates which blood pressure level?

80 mm Hg

100 mm Hg

60 mm Hg

120 mm Hg

80 mm Hg

* A palpable pedal pulse indicates an arterial perfusion pressure of approx. 80mm Hg in the foot.

14

In wound care; if a regional pulse is not palpable, ______ _____ or other vascular assessments are necessary to evaluate the potential for wound healing.

Doppler Ultrasound

15

Chronic or non-healng wounds are often unable to progress past which phase of wound healing?

Inflammatory phase

Remodeling (maturation phase)

Epithelialization phase

Proliferative phase

Inflammatory phase

* This phase is essential to initiate wound healing; however, when inflammation becomes chronic or unregulated, it inhibits progression to the next phase.

16

_______ or infection can prolong the inflammatory stage, elaying overall healing.

Necrosis

17

A wound care specialist is teaching a group of nurses about hydrotherapy for wounds & is reviewing the benefits & risks of this treatment. What is a significant risk associated w/hydrotherapy in wound care?

Increased risk of infection

Rapid healing of the wound

Reduced blood flow to the wound area

Decreased sensation in the wound area

Increased risk of infection

18

____________ for wounds involves- using running water or controlled water immersion to clean, debride, and heal tissue. It increases infection risk, soothes inflammation, and promotes healthy circulation.

Hydrotherapy

-Reference: Wound Care: A collaborative practice manual for Health Professionals, 4th edition, p. 739

19

Hydrotherapy

The two primary methods are directional wound irrigation and whirlpool treatments

20

What is the primary purpose of involving family members in wound care education?

To increase family members' medical knowledge about their loved one's condition

To provide additional support for the patient in adhering to the treatment plan

To minimize the need for future medical interventions

To ensure they can independently handle at-home wound care needs.

To provide additional support for the patient in adhering to the treatment plan

* Involving family members in wound care education helps them understand how to assist the patient w/their treatment plan. This can be critical for pts. who need help adhering to wound care routines, as family members often encourage consistent care & plrovide reminders or assistance w/daily tasks.

21

A 62 YO patient's chronic ulcer begins to exhibit signs of reduced inflammation & the start of new tissue formation over the wound bed. Which of the following best describes this transition from one phase of wound healing to the next?

From maturation to hemostatis

From proliferation to maturation

From inflammation to proliferation

From hemostasis to inflammation

From inflammation to proliferation

This transition from inflammatory to proliferative phase in chronic wound healing involves a decrease in signs of inflammation-- such as swelling & redness, and the initiation of new tissue formation.

22

The Unna/Duke boot is an example of what type of compression therapy?

Cohesive bandage compression

Light support

Inelastic compression

Multilayer high compression

Inelastic compression

* Inelastic compression, also called nonelastic compression, provides low resting pressure & high working pressure during muscle contraction.

23

Name this form Compression Therapy-

When a patient ambulates , the expanding calf muscle presses agbainst the semirigid bandage, generating higher compression. At rest, with no muscle activity, the pressure is minimal.

Inelastic compression such as- Unna/Duke boot

24

In which of the following positions would a patient most likely experience a shearing force injury to skin?

Laying supine in bed

Side-lying w/a pillow between the knees

Sitting upright at a 90-degree angle

Sitting w/the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle

Sitting upright at a 90-degree angle

* Keeping the head of the bed at or below 30-degree (Semi-Fowler's position) minimizes

25

A new occupational therapist (OT) on the wound care team is uncertain about the rols of specialty cushions in preventing pressue injuries. What is the best way to clarify the function of these cushions to the OT?

Speciatly cushions help prevent pressure injuries when combined w/regular respositioning

Specialty cushions can be used only for patients w/stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcers

Specialty cushions are used to prevent pressure injuries w/out repositioning

Specialty cushions are primarily designed to treat existing pressure injuries rather that to prevent new ones

Speciatly cushions help prevent pressure injuries when combined w/regular respositioning

26

A patient develops a pressure ulcer on the hell that has blister involving the epidermis & dermis. What is the stage of this ulcer?

Stage IV

Stage III

Stage I

Stage II

Stage II

* According to NPUAP staging system, a Stage II pressure ulcer is characterized by partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and /or dermis

27

Stage II pressure ulcer appearance

The wound bed is viable, pink or red, moist, and may present as an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister. There is no slough, eschar, or granulation tissue present.

28

Which type of sock fabric is best at wicking moisture away from the skin?

Wool blends

100% polyester

Acrylic blends

100% cotton

Acrylic blends

* A cotton/acrylic blend facilitates the wicking of perspiration away from the foot, helping to keep the area clean & dry.

29

Which of the following is not a function of the macrophages?

Promote angiogenesis

Produce antibodies that neutralize foreign objects

Induce fibroblast lproliferation

Enact phagocytosis

Produce antibodies that neutralize foreign objects

* Macrophages derive from circulating monocytes & appear at the wound site approximately 24 to 48 hours after injury. They are activated by chemokines, cytokines, growth factors, and fragments of extracellular matrix components.

30

You are caring for a 70 YO male pt. w/a pressure ulcer who cannot be frequently repositioned due to severe pain. Which adjunctive therapy is most appropriate for this patient?

Negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT)

Ultrasound therapy

Electrical simulation

Low-level laser therapy

Negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT)

* NPWT reduces pressure around the wound, removes exudate, and promotes granulation tissue formation- making it ideal for patients who cannot be repositioned frequently due to severe pain.

31

______ stimulation enhances muscle function & circulation but does not provide pressure relief.

Electrical

32

______ therapy stimulates the wound bed at the cellular level yet does not replace the need for repositioning.

Ultrasound

33

__________ _____________ therapy aids in reducing inflammation & promoting healing but does not address pressure off-loading or repositioning issues.

Low-level laser

34

Bacterial skin damage can be caused by several sources & irritants. Which of the following is not a source of Bacterial skin damage?

Eryspelas

Dermatophyte (tinea)

Folliculitis

Cellulitis

Dermatophyte (tinea)

* tinea are fungal organisms (e.g., ringworm) that cause skin damage but are not bacterial.

35

Bacterial skin damage is most common due to :

  1. Cellulitis
  2. Erysipelas (a bacterial infection of the upper skin layer & superficial lymphatics)
  3. Erythrasma (a superficial bacterial infection that cuses brown, scaly patches in the skin folds)

36

Erythrasma

card image

A superficial bacterial infection that cuses brown, scaly patches in the skin folds

37

Pathergy is a phenomenon often seen in which clinical condition?

DFU

Pyoderma gangrenousum (PG)

Factiltious disorder

Pressure ulcers

card image

Pyoderma gangrenousum (PG)

* A hallmark of PG is pathergy- an abnormal, exaggerated inflammatory respnse to minimal trauma

38

During the acute inflammatory phase of wound healing, what type of drainage is exprected?

Infected

Viscous, yellow, and malodorous

Serous or serosanguineous

scant or dry

Serous or serosanguineous

* In a healthy wound, the acute inflammatory phase (lasting only a few days) focuses on controlling infection & establishing a clean wound bed.

39

A pt. presents to the ER after spillintg scalding coffee on herself, w/painful, blanching, unblistered redness to approximately 30% of her body. What type of burn injury does she have?

Full-thickness burn

Subdermal burn

Partical-thickness burn

Superficial-thickness burn

Superficial-thickness burn

* blanching redness w/out blisters indecates a superficial-thickness (first degree) burn.

40

In ____ _____ burns, the epiderms remains intact & there i s no blisher formation. The skin is erythematous & blanches w/pressure.

First-degree

41

What is the first step a wound care nurse should take when a patient exhibits signs of non-adherence to their prescribed wound care regimen?

Report non-adherence to your nursing supervisor

Prescribe a different treatment w/out consultation

Decrease the frequency of the treatment to better accomoodate the patient's preferences

Discuss potential reason for non-adherence w/the patient

Discuss potential reason for non-adherence w/the patient

42

What is the most effective initial intervention to manage hypergranulation tissue?

Cover the wound w/a sterile dry gauze dressing

Debride the wound bed

Apply silver nitrate

Apply topical antibiotic ointment

Apply silver nitrate

* Silver nitrate chemically cauterizes hypergranulation tissue, effectively reducing its size and promoting normal healing. - This approach directly targets the over-growth of granulation tissue.

43

_______________ tissue results when a wound remains in the chronic proliferative phase. It is typically caused by excess moisture or friction and is predisposed to infection.

Hypergranulation

44

Which type of data is most relevant to a risk assessment in wound care mgt.?

Average length of hospital stay for wound patients

Pt. satisfaction surveys

Prevalence of chronic wounds in the community

Incidence reports of falls in the facility

Incidence reports of falls in the facility

*Incidence reports of falls in the facility can help identify potential risk factors contributing to wound development, such as mobility issues or environmental hazards.

45

A 57 YO man w/a healing wound has a scar that is still remodeling & strengthening; the wound is otherwise asymptomatic & intact. In which phase of wound healing is his wound?

Inflammation

Hemostasis

Maturation

Proliferation

Maturation

* This phase, also called the remodeling phase, is the final phase of wound healing.

46

Total-contact casting (TCC) is absolutely contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

Excessive edema

Acute deep infections

Fragile skin

Noncompliant patients

Acute deep infections

* TCC is contraindicated are deep infections, sepsis, gangrene

47

Acute deep infections, sepsis, gangrene, are contraindicated with which type of off loading technique?

Total contact casting (TCC)

48

Allergic contact dermatitis has 2 phases. What are they?

Vascular & migratory

Acute inflammatory & proliferative

Sensitization & acute inflammatory

Sensitization & elicitation

Sensitization & elicitation

* Allegic contact dermatitis is an immunologic response to an allergen. True allergic dermatitis requires prior exposure and proceeds in the above two distinct phases

49

Allergic contact dermatitis has 2 phases.

______ phase: occurs over a 7- to 10- day period when the skin of a nonsensitzed individual is first exposed to the substance or chemical

Sensitization

50

Allergic contact dermatitis has 2 phases.

_________ phase: upon reexposure to the same allergen, this phase occurs within 48-72 hours & triggers the inflammatory reaction.

Elicitation

51

The skin is composed of the epidermis & dermis, with each layer containing multiple cell types. Which of the following cell types is found predominantly in the epidermis?

Neutrophils

Macrophages

Keratinocytes

Mast cells

Keratinocytes

* The epidermis outer most layer consist of several cell layers--90% of which are keratinocytes, cells that synthesize keratin.

52

The _____ is the thickest layer of the skin; it's constituent cells include mast cells, neutrophils, macrophages, and lymphocytes.

dermis

53

The epidermis & dermis are separated by the _______ __________.

Basement membrane

54

Beneath the dermis is the _______.

hypodermis (subcutis), a layer of loose connective tissue

55

During an education session, you explain to your patient that the primary benefit of hydrotherapy for wound managment is which of the following?

Decreasing infection rates

Reducing the need for analgesics

Dehydrating the wound bed

Increased epithelial tissue formation

Increased epithelial tissue formation

* Hydrotherapy, promotes a moist envrionment that supports epithlial cell proliferation and expedites wound closure, making increased epithelial tissue formation the primary benefit of hydrotherapy.

56

Which of the following statements about patient education is false?

It should be planned only after assessing the pt.'s healthcare literacy

It allows patients to apply compression therapy as ordered

It improves patient compliance

It improves healing outcomes

It allows patients to apply compression therapy as ordered

57

Patient education can-

  1. increase compliance
  2. promote desirable healing outcomes
  3. empowers patients & their families to actively participate in care

58

Prior to providing your pt. with education on their care assess their

healty literacy

59

Angiogenesis is stimulated by all the following factors except?

Angiostatin

lactic acid

heparin-binding epidermal growth factor

Hypoxia

Angiostatin

60

What factors stimulate Angiogenesis?

  1. Lactic acid
  2. Heparin-binding epidermal growth factor
  3. Hypoxia

61

______________ is the grwth of new blood vessels and is involved in wound healing during the proliferative phase.

Angiogenesis

62

_______ & ___________ also promote angiogenesis

Lactic acid ; heparin-binding epdermal growth factor

63

Angiostatin -

inhibits angiogenesis

64

The epidermis ______ in thicness, has no blood supply of its own, and consists of several cell layers.

varies

65

Arterial occlusion can be assessed by measureing capillary refill time. A refill time greater than which value indicates areterial occlusion?

20 seconds

10 seconds

3 seconds

15 seconds

3 seconds

* A normal capillary refill time is under three seconds.

66

A capillary refill time of > 3 secsonds indicates

delayed perfusion & may be a sign of lower extremity arterial disease (LEAD)

67

___________ ________________ in the Health Belief Model (HBM) refers to -

an individual's belief about their likelihood of experieencing a health issue.

68

Which of the following skin lesions is an example of a papule?

Freckle

Psoriasis

Insect bite

Wart

Wart

* A papule is defined as an elevated firm, circumscribed area under 1cm in diameter. Examples: warts, elevated moles, and lichen planus

69

What is lichen planus?

card image

A non-contagious, chronic inflammatory condition that triggers swelling, irritation, and rashes on the skin, hair, nails, and mucous membranes.

70

The 3 predominant complications associated w/fistulas are:

1. Sepsis

2. Malnutrition

3. Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalances

71

Which factor enables fetal healing to occur w/out scarring during the first & second trimesters?

Diminished inflammatory response

72

____ _____ _________ (through 22 to 24 weeks of gestation) is characterized by a significantly reduced inflammatory response and a rapid, balanced proliferative phase that restores the demal architecture with scarring.

Early fetal wound repair

73

Stage __ pressure ulcers present as intact skin w/non-blanchable erythema localized over a bony prominence.

one