Micro 38 Flashcards

A virus enters through the oral cavity and begins replicating at the site most commonly affected by viral disease. Which site is involved?

A. Conjunctiva and retina
B. Liver and pancreas
C. Oropharynx and respiratory tract
D. Kidneys and urinary tract

A college student develops rhinorrhea, sneezing, and mild pharyngitis without pneumonia. Which viruses most commonly cause this syndrome?

A. Adenoviruses and reoviruses
B. Rhinoviruses and coronaviruses
C. Herpesviruses and poxviruses
D. Flaviviruses and togaviruses

Which location of respiratory viral infection generally predicts more serious disease?

A. Nasal vestibule
B. Oropharyngeal mucosa
C. Lower respiratory tract
D. Upper respiratory tract

A novel influenza strain begins circulating without substantial preexisting population immunity. Which group is especially susceptible?

A. Middle-aged adults
B. Older adults
C. Young adults
D. Young children

A patient with influenza develops fever, malaise, myalgias, and fatigue. Which mediators primarily produce these systemic symptoms?

A. Histamine and leukotrienes
B. Interferons and cytokines
C. Complement and antibodies
D. Bradykinin and thromboxane

The gastrointestinal viruses described in this material generally possess which structural feature?

A. Lipid-enveloped particles
B. Segmented enveloped particles
C. Reverse-transcribing particles
D. Naked capsid particles

A child develops rotavirus gastroenteritis. Which gastrointestinal region is primarily infected?

A. Stomach
B. Colon
C. Small intestine
D. Esophagus

A toddler develops acute rotavirus infection. Which clinical consequence is most characteristic?

A. Hematemesis with iron loss
B. Constipation with sodium retention
C. Watery diarrhea with electrolyte loss
D. Dysphagia with protein wasting

Which pathological process primarily produces diarrhea during infection with Norwalk virus, rotavirus, or astrovirus?

A. Hepatocyte necrosis and cholestasis
B. Colonic crypt invasion
C. Gastric parietal cell destruction
D. Villous epithelial dysfunction and injury

Examination reveals several flat, colored spots on a patient’s trunk. How should these lesions be classified?

A. Macules
B. Vesicles
C. Nodules
D. Papules

What are slightly raised areas of the skin that may result from immune or inflammatory responses rather than the direct effects of the virus.

A. Papules
B. Macules
C. Nodules
D. Vesicles

Papules appearing during a viral illness may result primarily from which process?

A. Direct viral cytolysis
B. Local immune inflammation
C. Subcutaneous viral replication
D. Dermal vascular thrombosis

A patient has large, raised areas of skin during an infectious illness. Which term best describes them?

A. Nodules
B. Macules
C. Vesicles
D. Pustules

Which description best defines a vesicular lesion?

A. Flat erythematous patch
B. Firm subcutaneous nodule
C. Fluid-filled skin blister
D. Slightly raised papule

Which skin lesion is most likely to contain infectious virus?

A. Vesicle
B. Macule
C. Papule
D. Nodule

An infant is born after maternal rubella infection during pregnancy. Which finding strongly supports congenital rubella syndrome?

A. Cataracts
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Polydactyly
D. Omphalocele

A teenager has fever, fatigue, lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly. Which viral pair is most associated with the organ enlargement?

A. Influenza and rhinovirus
B. Norovirus and rotavirus
C. EBV and CMV
D. Rabies and poliovirus

A patient develops arthritis and arthralgias during a systemic viral illness despite minimal viral replication within the joints. What best explains these manifestations?

A. Direct chondrocyte infection
B. Cytokine storm and hypersensitivity
C. Complement deficiency and bacteremia
D. Cartilage invasion by virions

An arbovirus causes encephalitis after initially replicating outside the central nervous system. How does it generally reach the brain?

A. Peripheral nerve axons
B. Bloodstream dissemination
C. Lymphatic duct obstruction
D. Infected neutrophil migration

Which mechanism allows HIV to enter and disseminate within the central nervous system?

A. Free virions through CSF
B. Retrograde sensory axons
C. Infected macrophage trafficking
D. Direct endothelial budding

A patient develops fever, headache, neck stiffness, and sterile bacterial cultures after a viral infection. Which structure is primarily inflamed?

A. Cerebral white matter
B. Spinal anterior horns
C. Meninges surrounding central nervous system
D. Peripheral nerve roots

Which group contains only recognized causes of aseptic meningitis from the provided material?

A. Enteroviruses, HSV-1, rabies, CMV
B. Enteroviruses, HSV-2, mumps, LCMV
C. Adenovirus, VZV, influenza, EBV
D. Rotavirus, dengue, rubella, RSV

Progressive HIV infection most directly reduces the number of which immune cells?

A. CD8 cytotoxic T cells
B. CD4 helper T cells
C. Natural killer cells
D. Mature plasma cells

Which characteristic allows infected macrophages to act as long-term, mobile reservoirs that spread a virus throughout the body?

A. Rapid viral replication that immediately lyses the host cell

B. The ability of macrophages to secrete neutralizing antibodies

C. Viral entry mechanisms that completely halt macrophage migration

D. Controlled, limited viral replication that keeps the host cell alive

Which cell is the primary target of dengue virus?

A. Hepatocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Enterocytes
D. Oligodendrocytes

Papillomavirus, HSV, CMV, HIV, HTLV-1, HBV, HCV, and HDV share which major transmission route?

A. Sexual transmission
B. Fecal-oral transmission
C. Respiratory droplet transmission
D. Arthropod vector transmission

HBV, HCV, HDV, HIV, HTLV-1, and CMV may all be transmitted through which route?

A. Respiratory droplets
B. Contaminated food
C. Arthropod bites
D. Blood and organ transplantation

Which group includes recognized arthropod-borne viruses?

A. Herpesvirus, adenovirus, poxvirus, papillomavirus
B. Picornavirus, calicivirus, astrovirus, rotavirus
C. Orthomyxovirus, coronavirus, paramyxovirus, rhabdovirus
D. Togavirus, flavivirus, bunyavirus, Colorado tick fever reovirus

A patient with severely impaired cell-mediated immunity is at greatest risk for serious disease from which viral category?

A. Enveloped viruses
B. Naked enteric viruses
C. Bacteriophages
D. Defective viral particles

A patient with severe T-cell deficiency is evaluated before smallpox vaccination. Which vaccine virus poses particular danger?

A. Poliovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Vaccinia virus

Impaired cell-mediated immunity particularly increases the likelihood of which complication?

A. Reactivation of latent viruses
B. Primary bacterial superinfection
C. Loss of mucosal antibodies
D. Excess complement activation

A patient with IgA deficiency and hypogammaglobulinemia is particularly susceptible to which viral infections?

A. Skin and nervous system viruses
B. Hepatic and arthropod-borne viruses
C. Blood-borne and latent viruses
D. Respiratory and gastrointestinal viruses

According to the provided material, maternal milk supplies passive immunity for approximately what duration?

A. One to three months
B. Six to twelve months
C. Eighteen to twenty-four months
D. Three to five years

Norwalk virus, caliciviruses, astroviruses, adenoviruses, reoviruses, and rotaviruses infect the ____ ____ but not the ____

______ is often associated with EBV infectious mononucleosis and CMV infections

A child develops viral pneumonia followed by viremia and a generalized exanthem. Which viral pair can produce this progression?

A. RSV and parainfluenza
B. EBV and adenovirus
C. VZV and measles virus
D. Rhinovirus and coronavirus

A smoker with cystic fibrosis develops unusually severe respiratory viral disease. Which defect most directly increased this risk?

A. Impaired mucociliary epithelial clearance
B. Reduced serum complement activity
C. Excess alveolar antibody secretion
D. Accelerated pulmonary lymphatic drainage

Most enteroviruses initially establish infection at which site?

A. Small intestinal villi
B. Nasal respiratory epithelium
C. Genital squamous epithelium
D. Oropharyngeal mucosa

After initial oropharyngeal replication, enteroviruses generally reach distant target tissues through which mechanism?

A. Retrograde axonal transport
B. Hematogenous viremia
C. Direct tissue extension
D. Infected erythrocyte migration

A student presents with fever, exudative pharyngitis, and tonsillitis. Which viral pair is most consistent?

A. RSV or parainfluenza
B. Adenovirus or early EBV
C. HSV or VZV
D. Rhinovirus or coronavirus

A child develops fever, painful gingiva, and numerous oral lesions during the first HSV infection. What is the diagnosis?

A. Exudative tonsillitis
B. Aphthous stomatitis
C. Primary gingivostomatitis
D. Oral candidiasis

After primary oral infection, HSV establishes latency within which cell type?

A. Sensory neurons
B. Tonsillar lymphocytes
C. Alveolar macrophages
D. Intestinal enterocytes

Reactivation of latent oral HSV most commonly produces which condition?

A. Aphthous stomatitis
B. Oral candidiasis
C. Exudative pharyngitis
D. Herpes labialis

A febrile child has cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and early buccal lesions. Which infection is most likely?

A. Rubella
B. Varicella
C. Measles
D. Dengue

Which description correctly characterizes Koplik spots?

A. Vesicles along gingival margins
B. White buccal spots on erythema
C. Nodules beneath the tongue
D. Ulcers over the hard palate

Which viruses cause most upper respiratory tract infections?

A. Rhinoviruses and coronaviruses
B. Influenza and measles viruses
C. RSV and metapneumovirus
D. Adenovirus and EBV

Viral inflammation narrows the subglottic trachea. Which age-dependent manifestations are expected?

A. Adult croup; childhood sinusitis
B. Adult bronchitis; childhood laryngitis
C. Adult pharyngitis; childhood bronchiolitis
D. Adult laryngitis; childhood croup

A child develops inspiratory stridor and a barking cough. Which virus is especially associated with this syndrome?

A. Rhinovirus
B. Parainfluenza virus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Dengue virus

Which group contains major pediatric lower respiratory tract pathogens?

A. Influenza, measles, rhinovirus
B. Adenovirus, EBV, HSV
C. RSV, parainfluenza, metapneumovirus
D. Coronavirus, VZV, enterovirus

A child under 6 months of age develops life-threatening bronchiolitis and pneumonia. Which viruses are especially important causes?

A. Rhinovirus and coronavirus
B. Adenovirus and EBV
C. Measles and VZV
D. RSV and parainfluenza type 3

A patient initially improves from influenza but then develops rapidly worsening bacterial pneumonia. Which organisms are most strongly associated?

A. Staphylococcus aureus and streptococci
B. Mycoplasma and Chlamydia
C. Klebsiella and Pseudomonas
D. Legionella and Coxiella

An adult develops primary viral pneumonia during a winter respiratory outbreak. Which virus is the most likely cause?

A. RSV
B. Parainfluenza
C. Influenza
D. Measles

Why is dengue infection called “break-bone fever”?

A. Hemorrhagic skin lesions
B. Severe myalgia and arthralgia
C. Painful oral vesicles
D. Exudative tonsillar inflammation

A patient with chronic HBV develops extrahepatic inflammatory disease. Which mechanism best explains this complication?

A. Direct renal viral invasion
B. Persistent bacterial coinfection
C. Cytokine-mediated cartilage lysis
D. Immune complex deposition

Which combination may result from chronic HBV immune complex disease?

A. Arthritis and nephritis
B. Croup and bronchiolitis
C. Gingivostomatitis and labialis
D. Cataracts and deafness

A severely malnourished infant develops profuse diarrhea during a prolonged regional drought. Which virus is especially associated with severe disease under these conditions?

A. Norwalk virus
B. Coxsackievirus
C. Rotavirus
D. Molluscum contagiosum virus

Which viruses are major causes of infantile gastroenteritis?

A. Rotavirus and adenovirus 40/41
B. Norovirus and coxsackievirus B
C. CMV and adenovirus 7
D. HSV and enterovirus 70

An outbreak of vomiting and diarrhea affects older children and adults attending the same banquet. Which viruses are most likely responsible?

A. Rotavirus and CMV
B. Adenovirus and HSV
C. Coxsackievirus and VZV
D. Norwalk virus and caliciviruses

Norwalk virus outbreaks are commonly associated with which exposure?

A. Respiratory droplets
B. Contaminated food or water
C. Arthropod bites
D. Sexual transmission

A patient develops multiple benign epithelial growths on the hands. Which viral group most commonly causes these lesions?

A. Adenoviruses
B. Enteroviruses
C. Human papillomaviruses
D. Hemorrhagic fever viruses

A child develops several painless, wartlike skin nodules. Which infection is most likely?

A. Molluscum contagiosum
B. Herpes zoster
C. Rubella
D. Coxsackievirus infection

How does molluscum contagiosum produce wartlike nodules?

A. It ruptures dermal vessels
B. It destroys sensory neurons
C. It deposits immune complexes
D. It stimulates skin-cell growth

What systemic event allows hemorrhagic fever viruses to reach distant tissues?

A. Retrograde axonal transport
B. Establishment of viremia
C. Direct mucosal extension
D. Lymphatic obstruction

Which cells are major targets of hemorrhagic fever viruses?

A. Skeletal muscle cells
B. Retinal pigment cells
C. Vascular endothelial cells
D. Intestinal goblet cells

Infection of vascular endothelium by hemorrhagic fever viruses directly causes what?

A. Increased permeability or vessel rupture
B. Reduced renal immune complexes
C. Accelerated mucociliary clearance
D. Decreased vascular fragility

Which clinical cluster most strongly suggests hemorrhagic fever?

A. Parotitis, orchitis, and arthritis
B. Conjunctivitis, cough, and coryza
C. Pleurodynia, myocarditis, and pericarditis
D. Hemorrhage, electrolyte loss, and shock

Which lesions characterize a hemorrhagic rash?

A. Vesicles and pustules
B. Petechiae and ecchymoses
C. Macules and papules
D. Nodules and plaques

Keratoconjunctivitis differs from uncomplicated conjunctivitis because it involves which structure?

A. Cornea
B. Retina
C. Optic nerve
D. Lacrimal gland

Which viruses can cause keratoconjunctivitis?

A. CMV, rubella, and mumps
B. RSV, influenza, and measles
C. Adenovirus, HSV, and VZV
D. Rotavirus, norovirus, and HPV

A patient develops sudden painful conjunctival inflammation with visible hemorrhage. Which viral pair is most associated?

A. HSV-1 and VZV
B. Adenovirus 40 and 41
C. CMV and rubella virus
D. Enterovirus 70 and coxsackievirus A24

Which patients are particularly susceptible to CMV chorioretinitis?

A. Healthy adults and adolescents
B. Congenital newborns and immunosuppressed patients
C. Smokers and cystic fibrosis patients
D. Older children with gastroenteritis

Which group contains viruses characteristically associated with conjunctivitis?

A. HSV, CMV, and VZV
B. Rotavirus, norovirus, and adenovirus
C. Adenovirus, measles, and rubella
D. Mumps, HPV, and coxsackievirus

A newborn develops acute myocarditis and pericarditis. Which virus is a major potential cause?

A. Coxsackievirus
B. Papillomavirus
C. Norwalk virus
D. Molluscum contagiosum virus

Coxsackievirus B infection of skeletal muscle produces which painful syndrome?

A. Keratoconjunctivitis
B. Gingivostomatitis
C. Pleurodynia
D. Chorioretinitis

Pleurodynia caused by coxsackievirus B is also known as what?

A. Break-bone fever
B. Bornholm disease
C. German measles
D. Fifth disease

An adolescent with mumps develops painful swelling near the jaw followed by testicular pain. Which complications are present?

A. Tonsillitis and nephritis
B. Myocarditis and pleurodynia
C. Conjunctivitis and chorioretinitis
D. Parotitis and orchitis

Which region is classically involved in HSV encephalitis?

A. Occipital lobe
B. Cerebellar vermis
C. Temporal lobe
D. Basal ganglia

Postmortem examination of a patient with rabies reveals viral inclusions within hippocampal pyramidal neurons. Which region is involved?

A. Ammon’s horn
B. Anterior horn
C. Dorsal root ganglion
D. Substantia nigra

A child develops asymmetric flaccid paralysis after poliovirus infection. Which structure was most directly damaged?

A. Posterior spinal columns
B. Lateral corticospinal tracts
C. Dorsal horn neurons
D. Anterior horn motor neurons

Which CSF profile most strongly supports viral CNS infection over bacterial?

A. Neutrophils, low glucose, high pressure
B. Mononuclear cells, few neutrophils, near-normal glucose
C. Eosinophils, high glucose, low protein
D. Acellular fluid, absent glucose, low pressure

A child develops aseptic meningitis during July. Which viral categories are especially associated with this season?

A. Herpesviruses and retroviruses
B. Orthomyxoviruses and paramyxoviruses
C. Enteroviruses and arboviruses
D. Adenoviruses and papillomaviruses

Which viral encephalitis can occur throughout the year rather than predominantly during summer?

A. West Nile encephalitis
B. Enteroviral encephalitis
C. Arboviral encephalitis
D. HSV encephalitis

Which group contains recognized causes of aseptic meningitis?

A. Enteroviruses, HSV-2, mumps, LCMV
B. HSV-1, rabies, JC virus, CMV
C. VZV, influenza, HPV, rotavirus
D. HIV, EBV, adenovirus, measles

A patient with aseptic meningitis develops confusion, seizures, and cerebral dysfunction. What has the infection become?

A. Myeloradiculitis
B. Meningoencephalitis
C. Polyradiculopathy
D. Leukoencephalopathy

Which feature generally distinguishes aseptic meningitis from bacterial meningitis?

A. Frequent permanent paralysis
B. Rapid septic shock
C. Markedly reduced CSF glucose
D. Usually self-limited course

A patient with viral meningitis is most likely to develop lasting neurologic deficits under which circumstance?

A. CSF glucose remains normal
B. Meningeal inflammation resolves
C. Virus infects brain tissue
D. Mononuclear cells predominate

Encephalitis primarily involves which anatomical structure?

A. Brain
B. Spinal cord
C. Peripheral nerves
D. Neuromuscular junction

Myelitis primarily involves which anatomical structure?

A. Cerebral cortex
B. Spinal cord
C. Meninges
D. Cranial nerves

Poliovirus and several related enteroviruses produce paralysis through which disease process?

A. Meningitis
B. Encephalitis
C. Neuritis
D. Myelitis

HSV and VZV most commonly persist within the nervous system in what state?

A. Asymptomatic latent infection
B. Continuous productive infection
C. Rapidly progressive encephalitis
D. Persistent meningeal inflammation

Reactivation of latent HSV or VZV within the CNS may produce which complication?

A. Isolated conjunctivitis
B. Acute gastroenteritis
C. Encephalitis
D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

An immunosuppressed patient develops progressive weakness, cognitive decline, and multifocal white-matter lesions. Which virus is most likely responsible?

A. Rabies virus
B. JC virus
C. Poliovirus
D. Mumps virus

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy most commonly occurs in which population?

A. Healthy young children
B. Immunized older adults
C. Pregnant adolescents
D. Immunodeficient patients

Which cells are initially infected by HIV and help transport it toward the CNS?

A. Neurons and astrocytes
B. Erythrocytes and platelets
C. Macrophages and myeloid cells
D. Fibroblasts and keratinocytes

In HIV infection, macrophages serve which important virologic function?

A. Persistent viral reservoir
B. Major antibody producer
C. Primary cytotoxic effector
D. Complement synthesis site

How does HIV commonly gain access to the brain?

A. Retrograde motor transport
B. Trafficking infected macrophages
C. Direct axonal penetration
D. Free diffusion through neurons

Which cells contribute directly to AIDS-associated dementia within the CNS?

A. Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells
B. Neutrophils and eosinophils
C. B cells and plasma cells
D. Macrophages and microglia

Sexually transmitted viruses commonly establish which infection pattern?

A. Chronic or latent recurrence
B. Brief infection without persistence
C. Exclusive bloodstream replication
D. Permanent sterilizing immunity

Sexually transmitted viruses may be shed into which fluids?

A. Saliva and tears
B. Semen and vaginal secretions
C. Sweat and urine
D. Bile and pancreatic fluid

Beneath the genital mucosa, CMV and HIV commonly infect which cellular populations?

A. Epithelial and endothelial cells
B. Neuronal and glial cells
C. Fibroblasts and keratinocytes
D. Myeloid and lymphoid cells

Which viruses establish local primary genital infections that later recur at the same site?

A. Papillomaviruses and HSV
B. CMV and HIV
C. HBV and HCV
D. HTLV-1 and HDV

A blood recipient develops encephalitis from a viremic donor’s blood. Which arbovirus is a recognized cause?

A. Yellow fever virus
B. Colorado tick fever virus
C. West Nile virus
D. Rabies virus

What property permits West Nile transmission through donated blood?

A. The virus actively circulates in the donor's blood.
B. The virus continuously replicates inside red blood cells.
C. The virus directly infects and hitches a ride on platelets.
D. The virus hides in a dormant state inside blood vessel linings.

Why does an animal reservoir need to have a high concentration of an arbovirus in its blood?

A. So the virus can be coughed out and spread through the air.

B. So the virus can hide permanently inside the animal's nerve cells.

C. So the virus can breach the animal's intestinal lining.

D. So a biting insect can ingest enough virus to become infected.

After acquiring an arbovirus from a viremic animal, what does the vector enable?

A. Immediate animal recovery
B. Transmission to human hosts
C. Direct aerosol dissemination
D. Persistent soil contamination

Which virus can sustain an urban human–mosquito transmission cycle?

A. West Nile virus
B. Yellow fever virus
C. St. Louis encephalitis virus
D. Colorado tick fever virus

Humans infected with West Nile or St. Louis encephalitis virus usually function as what?

A. Primary amplifying reservoirs
B. Long-term carrier hosts
C. Obligatory intermediate hosts
D. Incidental dead-end hosts

Which viral group commonly reaches humans through infected animals?

A. Arenavirus, hantavirus, rhabdovirus
B. Adenovirus, astrovirus, papillomavirus
C. Rotavirus, coronavirus, enterovirus
D. Retrovirus, orthomyxovirus, reovirus

Which exposures can transmit arenaviruses, hantaviruses, or rhabdoviruses?

A. Respiratory droplets and aerosols
B. Contaminated food and water
C. Animal secretions, excreta, or bites
D. Sexual fluids and transfusions

Strong cytokine responses and molecular mimicry may produce which complication?

A. Permanent antiviral tolerance
B. Increased tumor surveillance
C. Reduced cytokine production
D. Loss of self-tolerance

Which HPV types are considered high risk?

A. Types 1 and 2
B. Types 16 and 18
C. Types 6 and 11
D. Types 40 and 41

High-risk HPV is associated with which cancer group?

A. Cervical, anal, penile, oropharyngeal
B. Hepatic, renal, gastric, pancreatic
C. Thyroid, adrenal, ovarian, bladder
D. Pulmonary, cerebral, splenic, testicular

A patient has benign genital warts. Which HPV types are most likely?

A. Types 16 and 18
B. Types 31 and 33
C. Types 6 and 11
D. Types 40 and 41

A transplant recipient develops progressive lymphadenopathy and a rapidly enlarging mass. Which complication is especially likely?

A. CMV-associated sarcoma
B. HPV-associated melanoma
C. EBV-associated lymphoma
D. HSV-associated leukemia

What can HSV, CMV, and VZV cause in severely immunosuppressed patients?

A. Disseminated visceral and neurologic disease
B. Localized mucosal lesions only
C. Self-limited febrile exanthems
D. Isolated benign lymphadenopathy

An immunosuppressed child with measles develops severe respiratory failure without the typical rash. Which complication is most likely?

A. Hemorrhagic bronchiolitis
B. Interstitial bacterial pneumonia
C. Necrotizing pulmonary vasculitis
D. Giant cell syncytial pneumonia

Which group contains viruses acquired prenatally before birth?

A. HSV, HBV, HPV, influenza
B. Rubella, parvovirus B19, CMV, HIV
C. RSV, adenovirus, mumps, rhinovirus
D. Coxsackievirus B, echovirus, HSV, HBV

Which viral group may be acquired during delivery?

A. HSV, HBV, CMV, HPV
B. Rubella, parvovirus B19, HIV, measles
C. Influenza, RSV, mumps, rabies
D. Norovirus, rotavirus, adenovirus, astrovirus

Which group contains viruses acquired postnatally?

A. Rubella, B19, measles, mumps, VZV
B. HSV, HPV, rubella, rabies, influenza
C. CMV, B19, rubella, HPV, measles
D. HIV, CMV, HBV, HSV, coxsackievirus B, echovirus

Why are newborns vulnerable to viruses spreading between adjacent cells?

A. Reduced serum albumin
B. Deficient neutrophil migration
C. Immature cell-mediated immunity
D. Excess maternal antibodies

Which viruses are important teratogenic causes of severe congenital abnormalities?

A. HSV and VZV
B. Rubella virus and CMV
C. HBV and HCV
D. RSV and influenza

A young child develops chronic HIV infection without transfusion exposure. Which routes could explain acquisition?

A. Respiratory droplets or saliva
B. Arthropod bites or urine
C. Contaminated food or water
D. In utero or breast milk

Which findings may appear during early pediatric HIV infection?

A. Lymphadenopathy, growth failure, encephalopathy
B. Parotitis, orchitis, pancreatitis
C. Arthritis, nephritis, conjunctivitis
D. Croup, bronchiolitis, pleurodynia

A newborn exposed to maternal genital lesions during delivery develops life-threatening situation. Which diagnosis is most likely?

A. Congenital rubella syndrome
B. Disseminated neonatal HSV
C. Postnatal CMV mononucleosis
D. Neonatal HPV infection

Which fetal outcome is associated with intrauterine parvovirus B19 infection?

A. Giant cell pneumonia
B. Genital papillomatosis
C. Spontaneous abortion
D. Disseminated herpes