WCC QOD, Quiz 5 Flashcards


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1

A patient has a stage III pressure ulcer that is draining large amounts of exudate what category of dressing is most appropriate for this wound?

Alginates

Collagen matrix

Tegaderm Absorbent clear Acrylic Dressing

Gauze impregnated w/dry soduim chloride

Alginates

* When applied to a wound, sodium ions in the exudte exchangr w/calcium ions in the dressing, absorbing serous fluid or exudate & forming a nonadhesive, nonocclusive hydrophilic gel that conforms to the wound bed.

2

Alginates-

are calcium or calcium/sodium salts of alginic acid & are composed of mannuronic & guluronic acids obtained from seaweed.

3

Did you know that ______ acts as clotting factor (factor IV, this mechanism enables some alginates to function as a hemostat.

calcium

4

When educating a patient w/a neuropathic foot on the appropriate socks to wear, a provider should not make which of the following statements?

The sock should be fully cushioned w/a nonrestrictive top

The sock should have mended areas and seams over bony prominences

For active patients, socks can be obtained w/silicone over the high-stress areas to prevent shear.

Choos a cotton/acrylic blend to assist in wicking moisture away from the foot.

The sock should have mended areas and seams over bony prominences

* Socks for neuropathic foot should not have any mended areas or seams that lie over bony prominences, this causes increased pressure and will lead to skin breakdown.

5

When educating a patient w/a neuropathic foot on the appropriate socks to wear, a provider should inform patient of the following statements, as education?

  • The sock should be fully cushioned w/a nonrestrictive top
  • For active patients, socks can be obtained w/silicone over the high-stress areas to prevent shear.
  • Choos a cotton/acrylic blend to assist in wicking moisture away from the foot.

6

In the context of evidence ranking, how do Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs) compare to observational studies?

RCTs rank hight due to their control over confound variables

Observational studies rank higher due to their real-world context

Both are considered equally reliable forms of evidence

RCTs rank lower due to limited real-world applicablility

RCTs rank hight due to their control over confound variables

* RCTs rank higher in the evidence hierarchy because they are designed to minimze confounding variables, allowing for clearer conclusions about cause-and-effect relationships between interventions & outcomes.

7

A compression stocking that provides 25-35 mm Hg of compression is considered to be in what compression class?

Class 1

Class 4

Class 2

Class 3

Class 3

* This class of hose/stockings provide a greaded compression from ankle to below the knee to mobilize edema fluid.

8

There are 4 classess of compression stockings based on the amount of compression they deliver:

Class 1: 14-19 mm HG

14-19 mm HG

9

There are 4 classess of compression stockings based on the amount of compression they deliver:

Class 2:

19-24 mm HG

10

There are 4 classess of compression stockings based on the amount of compression they deliver:

Class 3:

25-35 mm HG

* Debate exists over which class is most effective, the best stockings ar the that patients will actually wear. Literature generally supports 30-40 mm HG compression as a good compromise between therapeutic effect, comfort, and ease of use

11

There are 4 classess of compression stockings based on the amount of compression they deliver:

Class 4: 10-50 mm HG

40-50 mm HG

12

According to the American Burn Association's burn injury categories, which criterion defines a moderate burn?

A 30% TBSA burn injury for all patients

Any burn on any patient involving the face, eyes, ears, hands, or perineum

A 10% TBSA burn injury for children & elderly

A 15% to 25% TBSA burn injury for adults

A 15% to 25% TBSA burn injury for adults

*

13

ABA category of moderate burn:

Adults TBSA is

15 to 25%

14

ABA category of moderate burn:

Children > 10 years or adults < 40 years. Mixed partial-and-full thickness burns of

10% to 20% TBSA

15

ABA category of moderate burn:

Full-thickness burns not involving the fac, ears, eyes, hands, feet, or perineum & without functional impairment

< 10%

16

The ____________ cateroizes burns a minor, moderate, or majoy and has established criteria for burn-center referral. Patients with major-or those meeting specific criteria-require treatment in spcialized burn center

American Burn Association (ABA)

17

Which legal principle is essential to consider when making culturally sensitive wound care decisions?

Beneficence

Non-maleficence

Autonomy

Justice

Justice

* This principle ensures that all patient receive equitable treatment regardless of cultural background. In wound care, justice requires that no group is favored or disadvantaged & that care delivery respects cultural beliefs & practices.

18

Which team member is typically responsible for initially identifying a new or deteriorating wound within a hospital setting?

Physical or occupatient therapist

Nursing Assistant

Physician

Registered Nurse

Registered Nurse

* due to their trained assessments

19

A wound on a pt.s right hip shows red granulation tissue. The wound edges are firm, and soft, and ti contracting into a rectangular shape. Which phase of healing is this wound in?

Maturation

Proliferation

Inflammation

Hemostatsis

Proliferation - 3rd phase in wound healing

* Restoration of skin color & contour symmetry as peri-wound edema resolves. - Formation of red granulation tissue at the peri-wound perimeter. - Active wound contraction & epithelialization leading to scar formation.

20

Hydrogel dressings should be used for wounds with which of the following levels of exudate?

Highly exudative wounds only

Dry to minimally exudative wounds

Moderate to highly exudative wounds

Minimally to moderatelly exudative wounds

Dry to minimally exudative wounds

21

When should facial sutures generally be removed?

1 to 3 days

7 to 10 days

14 to 21 days

3 to 5 days

3 to 5 days

22

Sutures should be removed within ____ to ____ ___ of placement, depending on the anatomic location.

1 to 2 weeks

23

Suture removal for face:

3 - 5 days

24

Suture removal for scalp, chest, fingers, hand & lower extremity:

7 - 10 days

25

Suture removal for back, forarm, and foot:

10 - 14 days

26

Which of the following is not a physiologic change to the skin that occurs naturally with age?

Decreased sweat glands

Decreased collagen & elastin fibers

Increased fatty layers

Increased time for regeneration

Increased fatty layers

27

Regarding venous insuffieciency, what is the gold standard in detecting blood flow & possible reflux in outpatient setting?

Venous duplex scanning

Air plethysomgraphy (APG)

Photoplethysmography (PPG)

Ambulatory venous pressure monitoring

Venous duplex scanning

* Also known as Color duplex US scanning.

28

In the United States, which of the following drugs is most commonly prescribed for venous disease & is an effective adjunct to compression therapy?

Micronized purified flavonoid fraction (MPFF)

Aspirin

Pentoxifylline

Horse chestnut see extract (HCSE)

Pentoxifylline

29

_________ ____ is an invasive vascular test used to evaluate the function of the calf muscle pump and detect venous hypertension. It is traditionally performed by inserting a needle into a foot vein while the patient performs tiptoe exercises, measuring how effectively the veins empty and refill

Ambulatory venous pressure (AMVP) monitoring

30

Venous duplex scan

A ____ ____ is a non-invasive, painless ultrasound used to visualize veins, evaluate blood flow, and check for blockages or valve issues. It combines standard imaging to "see" the veins (B-mode) with Doppler technology that listens to and measures blood flow

31

_________ __ is a simple, non-invasive optical technique used to detect blood volume changes in the microvascular bed of tissue. Commonly applied at the surface of the skin, it serves as the core technology for heart rate tracking and blood oxygen monitoring in modern medical devices and consumer wearables

Photoplethysmography (PPG)

32

________ __ is a non-invasive diagnostic test that evaluates lower limb blood flow and venous disease. By wrapping an air-filled cuff around the leg to measure volume changes, the procedure accurately quantifies valvular reflux, calf muscle pump function, venous obstruction, and chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)

Air plethysmography (APG)

33

_______________________ is an oral venoactive drug composed of 90% diosmin and 10% other flavonoids, such as hesperidin. It acts by reducing inflammation, improving lymphatic drainage, and increasing capillary resistance. It is widely used to treat vascular conditions.

Micronized purified flavonoid fraction (MPFF)

34

Pentoxifylline

A prescription medication used to improve blood flow and relieve leg pain, cramping, or aching (intermittent claudication) caused by peripheral artery disease. It works by decreasing blood viscosity and making red blood cells more flexible, allowing oxygen to reach the muscles more easily

35

The most commonly seen fistulas involve which areas?

Skin & GI tract

Intestine & colon

Intestine & wound bed ( or wound surface)

Skin & bladder

Skin & GI tract

* Internal fistulas connect two internal organs (example- from small bowel to the bladder) whereas external fistulas involved the skin ( for example, from the small bowel to the skin).

36

The Sussman Wound Healing Tool (SWHT)

The documentation is simple, and the outcomes are visual

The SWHT is a qualitative tool

It was developed to monitor & track the effectiveness of physical therapy technologies used for pressue ulcer healing.

37

What common foot lesion is caused by an infection of the human papillomavirus?

Plantar warts

Tinea pedis

Callus

Hard and/or soft corn

Plantar warts

38

A pt.s lab values reveal increased serum osmolarity & serum creatinine, as well as elevated hematocrit levels. What condition does the most likely indicate?

Fluid overload

Malnutrition

Dehydration

Infection

Dehydration

Signs of dehydration: Weight loss, Dry skin & cracked lips, Poor skin turgor and thirst, Fever or hypothermia, Altered sensation, dizziness, and confusion, loss of appetite & nausea.

39

Dehydration lab findings:

  • Increased serum creatinine & hematocrit
  • Elevated BUN, potassium, chloride, and osmolarity (sodium may be high, normal, or low depending on the cause)
  • Decreased blood pressure & increased pulse rate (tachycardia)
  • Concentrated urine & constipation

40

Which tissue layer of the skin is the thickest?

Basement membrane

Epidermis

Hypodermis

Dermis

Dermis

* also known as the true skin is the thickest layer of the skin

41

Impaired skin integrity is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for which stage of pressure ulcer?

Stage IV

Stage III

Stage II

Unstageable pressure injury

Stage II

* This stage applies to ulcers that involve only superficial damage to intact skin or partial-thickness loss.