Summer Immuno Lecture 7 Flashcards


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1

A naive lymphocyte first recognizes its specific antigen and begins adaptive immune activation. Where does this recognition phase occur?
A. Primary lymphoid organs
B. Secondary lymphoid organs
C. Peripheral infected tissue
D. Bone marrow sinusoids

B. Secondary lymphoid organs

2

What are three secondary lymphoid organs?

____ ____, ____, ____

Lymph nodes, spleen, MALT

3

Which organs are classified as primary lymphoid organs?

____ ____

____

Bone marrow

thymus

4

A patient has impaired lymphoid follicle formation. Which immune structures would most directly share this abnormality?
A. Primary lymphoid organs
B. All lymphatic vessels
C. Secondary lymphoid organs
D. All inflamed tissues

C. Secondary lymphoid organs

5

The common anatomical structure shared by secondary lymphoid organs is which of the following?

_____ _____

Lymphoid follicles

6

Lymphoid follicles begin as loose networks of which cell type?

_____ _____ _____

Follicular dendritic cells

7

Early lymphoid follicles form in regions especially rich in which lymphocyte population?

B cells

8

Follicular dendritic cells are already present by which developmental period?

Second trimester

9

Which cell type displays antigen primarily to B cells?

____ ____ ____

Follicular dendritic cells

10

Which cell type presents antigen primarily to T cells?

____ ____ ____

Conventional dendritic APCs

11

delete

delete

12

Follicular dendritic cells can also bind immune complexes using receptors for which antibody region?

____ region

Fc region

13

A follicular dendritic cell attracts and activates B cells, leading to intense B-cell proliferation. Over time, this active follicle becomes what?

______ ______

Germinal center

14

Before adaptive immunity responds effectively to infection, which system must first detect danger?

______ system

Innate system

15

B cells proliferating in germinal centers become fragile. Which cells rescue them from apoptosis?

Helper T cells

16

Which secondary lymphoid organ lacks high endothelial venules?

Spleen

17

High endothelial venules serve primarily as a doorway for which cells?
A. Neutrophils and eosinophils
B. B and T cells
C. Monocytes and basophils
D. Plasma cells and platelets

B. B and T cells

18

High endothelial venules allow lymphocytes to enter secondary lymphoid organs from which compartment?
A. Blood
B. Bone marrow
C. Germinal centers
D. Efferent lymph

A. Blood

19

High endothelial venules are regions within which vessel type?
A. Arteriole
B. Capillary
C. Venule
D. Lymphatic duct

C. Venule

20

In a lymph node, high endothelial venules are located in which region?

Paracortex

21

In a lymph node, B cells mainly accumulate in which area?

Cortex

22

In a lymph node, T cells mainly accumulate in which area?

Paracortex

23

Conventional dendritic cells mainly accumulate in which lymph-node region?

Paracortex

24

Follicular dendritic cells are mainly located in which lymph-node region?

Cortex

25

Lymph-node sinus walls are carpeted with which immune cells?

Macrophages

26

Movement of immune cells within secondary lymphoid organs is coordinated by which signal type?
A. Chemokines
B. Antibodies
C. Perforins
D. Integrins only

A. Chemokines

27

Chemokines are best described as which type of cytokine?
A. Apoptotic cytokines
B. Chemoattractive cytokines
C. Cytotoxic cytokines
D. Complement-fixing cytokines

B. Chemoattractive cytokines

28

Follicular dendritic cells produce which chemokine to attract naive B cells?
A. CCR7
B. ICOSL
C. CXCR5
D. CXCL13

D. CXCL13

29

After a B cell finds its cognate antigen, what happens to its CXCL13 receptor expression?
A. It increases sharply
B. It remains unchanged
C. It downregulates
D. It switches to CD28

C. It downregulates

30

After recognizing cognate antigen, an activated B cell upregulates which chemokine receptor?
A. CXCL13
B. CCR7
C. ICOSL
D. B7

B. CCR7

31

CCR7 expression helps activated B cells migrate toward which region?
A. Medullary sinus
B. Thymic cortex
C. Blood-red pulp border
D. Cortex-paracortex border

D. Cortex-paracortex border

32

The cortex-paracortex border is important because it allows meeting between which cells?
A. B cells and T cells
B. NK cells and neutrophils
C. Macrophages and eosinophils
D. Plasma cells and platelets

A. B cells and T cells

33

Activated helper T cells downregulate signals keeping them in which region?

Paracortex

34

Activated helper T cells upregulate which receptor to meet activated B cells?
A. CCR7
B. CXCL13
C. CXCR5
D. ICOSL

C. CXCR5

35

CXCR5 expression helps helper T cells congregate with activated B cells at which site?
A. Medullary cord
B. Follicle border
C. Splenic red pulp
D. Efferent lymphatic

B. Follicle border

36

B cells require help from activated helper T cells. Activated helper T cells also require help from which cells?
A. Activated B cells
B. Resting macrophages
C. Naive neutrophils
D. Medullary thymocytes

A. Activated B cells

37

The reciprocal help between activated B cells and activated Th cells occurs through what mechanism?
A. Cell-cell contact
B. Antibody secretion only
C. Complement lysis
D. Cytokine diffusion only

A. Cell-cell contact

38

Which B-cell surface protein binds CD28 on helper T cells?
A. CCR7
B. ICOSL
C. B7
D. CXCL13

C. B7

39

Which B-cell surface protein binds ICOS on helper T cells?
A. B7
B. ICOSL
C. CCR7
D. CXCR5

B. ICOSL

40

Which helper T-cell protein binds B7 on the activated B-cell surface?
A. ICOS
B. CD28
C. CCR7
D. CXCR5

B. CD28

41

Which helper T-cell protein binds ICOSL on the activated B-cell surface?
A. CD28
B. CXCL13
C. CCR7
D. ICOS

D. ICOS

42

A patient has impaired complement deposition on antigen. Which FDC function would be most directly reduced?
A. Binding opsonized antigen
B. Producing IL-2
C. Presenting peptide to T cells
D. Activating thymic selection

A. Binding opsonized antigen

43

Which statement best captures secondary lymphoid organ function?

They support _____ _____

They support antigen recognition

44

At the follicle border, an activated Th cell directly helps an activated B cell through which ligand-receptor pair?
A. ICOSL–ICOS
B. B7–CD28
C. CD40L–CD40
D. CXCL13–CXCR5

C. CD40L–CD40

45

During the B-cell/Th-cell “dance,” which molecule is provided by the helper T cell?

CD40L

46

During the B-cell/Th-cell “dance,” which molecule is found on the B-cell surface and binds CD40L?

CD40

47

Activated B cells provide which material to help helper T cells mature?
A. IL-17, IL-21, IL-23
B. Antigen, B7, ICOSL
C. CD40L, IL-2, FasL
D. Perforin, granzyme, IFN-gamma

B. Antigen, B7, ICOSL

48

A helper T cell becomes fully mature at the follicular border after contact with an activated B cell. What is it now called?
A. Th0 cell
B. Treg cell
C. Tfh cell
D. CTL cell

C. Tfh cell

49

Follicular helper T cells are licensed to rescue which fragile cell population?
A. Germinal-center B cells
B. Naive T cells
C. Marginal-zone macrophages
D. Follicular dendritic cells

A. Germinal-center B cells

50

A germinal-center B cell receives Tfh help and avoids apoptosis. Which later processes can Tfh cells support?

____ ____ and ____

Class switching and hypermutation

51

Somatic hypermutation takes place in the ____ ____ of the germinal center

dark zone

52

During affinity maturation, B cells with higher-affinity receptors gain an advantage by doing what?
A. Secreting more IL-12
B. Plucking more antigen
C. Blocking CD40 signaling
D. Losing class II MHC

B. Plucking more antigen

53

Higher-affinity B cells present more antigen to Tfh cells using which molecule?

Class II MHC

54

In germinal centers, greater antigen presentation by high-affinity B cells causes what outcome?

More Tfh help

55

Somatic hypermutation selects higher-affinity B cells because these cells receive more help from which cells?

Tfh cells

56

A killer T cell recognizes cognate antigen presented by dendritic cells in a lymph node. Where does activation occur?

Paracortex

57

A lymph node draining an infected wound becomes enlarged. Which process contributes most directly?

_____ proliferation

Lymphocyte proliferation

58

In infected draining lymph nodes, medullary sinuses may become clogged by which cells?

_____

Macrophages

59

Peyer patches are examples of which lymphoid tissue?
A. Thymic tissue
B. Red pulp
C. Bone marrow
D. MALT

D. MALT

60

Unlike lymph nodes, Peyer patches lack which structure?
A. Outgoing lymphatics
B. Incoming lymphatics
C. Germinal centers
D. B-cell follicles

B. Incoming lymphatics

61

Peyer patches are topped by which specialized epithelial cells?
A. Goblet cells
B. Paneth cells
C. Enteroendocrine cells
D. M cells

D. M cells

62

M cells over Peyer patches are not coated with which structures?

____ and ____

Mucus and villi

63

M cells sample material from which location?

____ ____

Intestinal lumen

64

M cells transport sampled intestinal material into which site?

____ ____

Underlying tissues

65

The spleen primarily functions as what type of filter?
A. Blood filter
B. Lymph filter
C. Mucus filter
D. Airway filter

A. Blood filter

66

Approximately what fraction of cardiac output enters the spleen?
A. 1%
B. 20%
C. 5%
D. 50%

C. 5%

67

The spleen screens circulating blood approximately every how long?
A. 5 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 6 hours
D. 1 day

B. 30 minutes

68

Compared with lymph nodes and Peyer patches, the spleen is less selective because everything enters from where?
A. Blood
B. Lymph
C. Mucus
D. Thymus

A. Blood

69

Which organs are selective about where B/T cells and antigens enter?

_____ _____ and _____ _____

Lymph nodes and Peyer patches

70

In the spleen, T cells are temporarily retained in which region?

_____

PALS

71

In the spleen, B cells are found between which structures?

_____ and _____ _____

PALS and marginal sinuses

72

The periarteriolar lymphocyte sheath mainly retains which cells?
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Macrophages

A. T cells

73

The spleen lacks lymphatics to transport dendritic cells from tissues. How does it compensate?
A. Uses thymic epithelial cells
B. Uses incoming M cells
C. Uses circulating neutrophils
D. Uses resident dendritic cells

D. Uses resident dendritic cells

74

In the spleen, resident dendritic cells take up antigens from invaders located where?

Blood

75

Which organ is a main site where B cells can activate without Th-cell assistance?

Spleen

76

B cells that can activate without Th-cell help in the spleen are called what?
A. Germinal-center B cells
B. Naive follicular B cells
C. Plasma memory cells
D. Marginal-zone B cells

D. Marginal-zone B cells

77

Marginal-zone B cells are stationed where they contact blood entering the spleen. Where is this?
A. Marginal sinuses
B. Red pulp cords
C. Splenic capsule
D. Central arteriole wall

A. Marginal sinuses

78

Secondary lymphoid organs are strategically positioned to intercept which threat?
A. Self-reactive thymocytes
B. Aging erythrocytes only
C. Invaders entering the body
D. Bone marrow precursors

C. Invaders entering the body

79

Secondary lymphoid organs provide environments that mobilize weapons appropriate to what?
A. Thymocyte selection stage
B. Likely invading organisms
C. Red-cell deformability
D. Platelet activation status

B. Likely invading organisms

80

The most important function of secondary lymphoid organs is bringing together which cells?
A. Platelets and erythrocytes
B. Mast cells and basophils
C. Fibroblasts and osteoblasts
D. Lymphocytes and APCs

D. Lymphocytes and APCs

81

Bringing lymphocytes and APCs together increases the probability of activating which immune system?
A. Adaptive immune system
B. Complement system
C. Coagulation system
D. Innate barrier system

A. Adaptive immune system

82

The process of B and T cells moving to specific locations is called what?
A. Chemotactic drift
B. Lymphocyte trafficking
C. Germinal rescue
D. Antigen plucking

B. Lymphocyte trafficking

83

Virgin and experienced lymphocytes differ mainly in which feature?
A. Nuclear membrane number
B. Immunoglobulin shape
C. Traffic patterns
D. Ribosomal density

C. Traffic patterns

84

Virgin T cells use which molecule to enter lymph nodes through HEVs?

L-selectin

85

L-selectin on virgin T cells binds which ligand on lymph-node HEVs?
A. MadCAM-1
B. ICOS
C. CD40
D. GlyCAM-1

D. GlyCAM-1

86

Virgin T cells use which integrin to enter Peyer patches and intestinal lymph nodes?
A. CD28
B. α4β7
C. CXCL13
D. CD40L

B. α4β7

87

α4β7 on virgin T cells binds which ligand on intestinal HEVs?
A. GlyCAM-1
B. Fas receptor
C. MadCAM-1
D. ICOSL

C. MadCAM-1

88

Virgin T cells circulate through blood and lymph, spending about how long per loop?

1 day

89

If a virgin T cell does not find cognate antigen, it dies after approximately how long?
A. 1 day
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 year
D. 6 weeks

D. 6 weeks

90

A virgin T cell failing to find cognate antigen eventually dies by what mechanism?

Apoptosis

91

Experienced T cells that have found cognate antigen have their travel passports become what?
A. Expanded
B. Deleted
C. Randomized
D. Restricted

D. Restricted

92

Experienced T cells express adhesion molecules based on what location?
A. Where they activated
B. Where they die
C. Where they circulate randomly
D. Where antibodies bind

A. Where they activated

93

A T cell activated in a Peyer patch will increase which adhesion molecule?
A. GlyCAM-1
B. CD40
C. α4β7
D. B7

C. α4β7

94

Increased α4β7 on Peyer-patch-activated T cells helps them do what?
A. Return to mucosal sites
B. Enter thymic cortex
C. Bind splenic red pulp
D. Block dendritic migration

A. Return to mucosal sites

95

Experienced T cells also carry “combat passports” that help them enter what sites?
A. Primary lymphoid organs
B. Sites of infection
C. Bone marrow niches
D. Thymic medulla

B. Sites of infection

96

Experienced mucosa-activated T cells express which integrin?
A. α4β7
B. MadCAM-1
C. L-selectin
D. αEβ7

D. αEβ7

97

αEβ7 helps experienced mucosal T cells enter which tissue environment?
A. Inflamed mucosa
B. Splenic capsule
C. Thymic cortex
D. Bone marrow

A. Inflamed mucosa

98

A defect in CD40L expression on activated Th cells would most directly impair which interaction?
A. B-cell CD40 activation
B. HEV entry into nodes
C. Antigen plucking by FDCs
D. M-cell sampling

A. B-cell CD40 activation

99

A B cell fails to provide B7 and ICOSL to a helper T cell. Which process is most directly impaired?
A. CTL granzyme release
B. Helper T-cell maturation
C. M-cell antigen transport
D. Splenic blood screening

B. Helper T-cell maturation

100

A high-affinity B cell outcompetes low-affinity B cells in a germinal center. Which mechanism best explains this?
A. Less antigen presentation
B. Better antigen plucking
C. Loss of class II MHC
D. Reduced Tfh contact

B. Better antigen plucking

101

A patient’s draining lymph node is swollen after cellulitis. Which combined mechanism best explains the swelling?
A. Lymphocyte loss, neutrophil apoptosis
B. Platelet trapping, RBC hemolysis
C. Lymphocyte growth, macrophage clogging
D. Fibrosis, thymocyte expansion

A. Lymphocyte loss, neutrophil apoptosis

102

A virgin T cell enters intestinal lymphoid tissue. Which receptor-ligand pair is most likely used?
A. CD40L–CD40
B. L-selectin–GlyCAM-1
C. α4β7–MadCAM-1
D. ICOS–ICOSL

C. α4β7–MadCAM-1

103

A virgin T cell enters a nonintestinal lymph node through HEVs. Which pair is most relevant?
A. αEβ7–mucosal ligand
B. α4β7–MadCAM-1
C. ICOS–ICOSL
D. L-selectin–GlyCAM-1

D. L-selectin–GlyCAM-1

104

Structures (in order) from arteriole to venulue as lymph passes a lymph node?

(Medullary Sinus, Cortex, Paracortex, Marginal Sinus)

Marginal Sinus -> Cortex -> Paracortex -> Medullary Sinus

105

The subcapuslar sinus of a lymph node contains what two cells?

macrophage

dendritic cell

106

delete

delete

107

Where in the spleen does blood first enters and contains resident dendritic cells?

____ ____

Marginal Sinuses

108

____ bacteria can directly activate B-cells without T-cell help.

Encapsulated

109

Peyer’s Patches specialize in turning out Th Cells that secrete ____ cytokine types and B-Cells that secrete ____.

Th2

IgA

110

If you are invaded by bacteria, the lymph node will produce _____ cytokine types and B-Cells that secrete _____.

Th1

IgG